Law Enforcement Operations
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Course Introduction
Law Enforcement Operations provides an in-depth examination of the daily functions, responsibilities, and challenges faced by modern law enforcement agencies. The course covers the structure and organization of police departments, patrol strategies, investigative procedures, community policing initiatives, and the use of technology in crime prevention. Students will also explore ethical issues, legal constraints, and the impact of contemporary social issues on law enforcement practices. Emphasis is placed on analyzing real-world scenarios to better understand decision-making processes and the integration of law enforcement within the broader criminal justice system.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Investigation 1st Edition by Michael
D. Lyman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Foundations of Criminal Investigations
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Q1) __________ is a procedure that was established to study human blood stains and distinguish them from the blood of most other animals.
Answer: serology
Q2) Which of the following is responsible for crime scene protection and the identification and preservation of evidence?
A)Pinkerton units
B)Witnesses
C)Crime scene investigator units (CSU)
D)Prosecutors
Answer: C
Q3) The premise behind criminal investigation is that people make mistakes while committing crimes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The process of proposing a likely explanation for an event that must be tested is referred to as ______.
Answer: abduction
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Crime Scene: Field Notes, documenting, and Reporting
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Q1) It is vital in prosecuting a case for the person who took the photos of a crime scene to be the one who testifies about them in court.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT one of the three-pronged rule of thumb about reports?
A)They should be factual.
B)They should be written using police jargon.
C)They should be thorough.
D)They should be to the point.
Answer: B
Q3) The ________ __________ _______ is the backbone of the criminal prosecution process.
Answer: Official police report
Q4) Information should be _____ before stating it as fact in an official report. Answer: verified
Q5) Field notes may be required later as _____ in court. Answer: evidence
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Chapter 3: Processing the Crime Scene
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Q1) A BOLO,or "be on the lookout," is also referred to as a _______ _______.
Answer: flash description
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the phases of searching the crime scene?
A)Surveying the crime scene
B)Documenting the crime scene through sketches and photographs
C)Canvassing the neighborhood
D)Recording all physical evidence
Answer: C
Q3) Which statement or statements regarding trace evidence is true?
A)It usually is in plain view of investigators.
B)Criminals seek to destroy it before leaving the crime scene.
C)It plays a greater role today with the aid of modern forensic analysis.
D)All of the above.
Answer: C
Q4) If it appears that evidence will be altered,lost,or destroyed,the evidence should be collected by responding officers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Identification of Criminal Suspects
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Q1) Eyewitnesses view one person or photo at a time in a ______ lineup.
Q2) Facial composites are an important part of the identification process and are very valuable for police officers.Identify the four ways in which facial composites can assist law enforcement.
Q3) The practice of profiling was developed during World War II by Hitler.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The FBI Laboratory is available without cost to any U.S.enforcement agency.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A dust print is a print that has been adulterated with foreign matter.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which of the following is a general fingerprint pattern?
A)Delta
B)Core
C)Ridge
D)Whorl
Q7) Eyewitnesses view all people or photos in a _____ lineup
Q8) Define and fully explain the purpose and function of CODIS.
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Chapter 5: Legal Issues in Investigations
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Q1) The U.S.Supreme Court has held that _____ fields are not protected by the Fourth Amendment.
Q2) In the interest of public safety,vehicles are frequently taken into police custody,such as when reported stolen or when used in the commission of a crime.These vehicles may be examined,inside and out,and any evidence of a crime may be lawfully seized under which theory of law?
A)Search incident to arrest
B)Motor vehicle exception
C)Procedural search
D)Inventory procedure
Q3) _____ cause exists when enough facts exists that would lead a reasonable and prudent person to believe that criminal activity is fairly probable.
Q4) A person can waive constitutionally provided protections against unreasonable searches and seizures and allow an investigator to search home,person,and property.Such a search is known as a:
A)consent search.
B)plain view search.
C)stop and frisk.
D)search incident to an arrest.
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Chapter 6: Interviews and Interrogations
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Q1) Once a suspect has been informed of his rights involving self-incrimination and counsel,what must the suspect do before police may begin questioning?
A)Confess
B)Be evaluated by a psychiatrist
C)Eat food and drink water
D)Waive those rights freely and voluntarily
Q2) Which one of the following practices helps safeguard against false confessions?
A)Asking suspects to confess to avoid long prison sentences
B)Sharing details of the crime with the suspect during the questioning process
C)Recording the entire interrogation process
D)Putting pressure on suspects to "cooperate"
Q3) The Supreme Court established a two-prong test that determines when the so-called Miranda warnings must be given.This two-prong test is met when which two conditions are present?
A)Stop and frisk
B)Custody and rapport
C)Arrest and interrogation
D)Custody and interrogation
Q4) Discuss the purpose of Miranda rights and define what they are.
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Chapter 7: Criminal Intelligence and Surveillance Operations
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Q1) Intelligence files should never be purged.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ intelligence provides the investigator with a tool for long-range planning.
Q3) Surveillance is a process that allows investigators to:
A)make arrests.
B)work undercover.
C)pay an informant by using secret funds.
D) observe a suspect without arousing his/her suspicions.
Q4) The dissemination stage of the intelligence process is the process that most commonly breaks down.
A)True
B)False
Q5) You are preparing to conduct a surveillance operation and will need to be prepared.Determine what information you should have or attempt to obtain prior to conducting the actual surveillance.
Q6) The role of the intelligence analyst can be critical in the investigative process.Discuss the four main roles which the analyst has that can influence the success of an investigation.
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Chapter 8: Management of Informants and Undercover Operations
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Q1) Mercenary informants give information in exchange for a fee.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The reformed informant is motivated by a sense of guilt.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In which case did the Supreme Court adopt a "totality of the circumstances" approach to the use of informant information?
A)Illinois v.Gates
B)Spinelli V.United States
C)Aguilar v.Texas
D)Harris v.United States
Q4) Which of the following is the best recommendation for maintaining control of an informant?
A)Informants should be contacted by different officers on different occasions.
B)Police should allow informants great latitude in their activities.
C)Informants and police contacts should meet frequently.
D)Officers should pay informants adequate amounts of money.
Q5) ________ means one's ability to be believed.
Q6) A ______ story is a fictitious story that the agent uses. Page 10
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Chapter 9: Death Investigations
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Q1) Evidence of soot is present with contact wounds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) After death the body begins to cool though the process of _____ _____ that is considered to be one of the more reliable indicators of time of death.
Q3) The cooling of the body after death is a fairly constant process and can be used to establish the time of death.This cooling process is known as:
A)algor mortis.
B)rigor mortis.
C)autolysis.
D)lividity.
Q4) Smudging indicates that the firearm was close to,but not actually touching,the victim's skin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Stage 3 of the decomposition process which occurs 10-20 days after death is considered the _______ ________stage.
Q6) Entrance gunshot wounds are generally _____ than exit gunshot wounds.
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Chapter 10: Robbery
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Q1) Which of the following is the best example of the "smash-and-grab" robbery?
A)A taxi cab is side swiped and then robbed at a busy intersection of a large city.
B)An expensive car in a parking lot is stolen by robbers posing as tow truck drivers.
C)A stopped car at an exit ramp near an airport is approached,a window is broken,and the occupant is robbed.
D)A delivery truck is bumped from behind and then robbed.
Q2) The type of location robbed,the time and day of week,and the type of weapon used are all indications of the robber's _____ of _____.
Q3) Robbery is essentially the same crime as burglary,a property crime involving theft of property.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A shakedown of students and teachers is an example of a ______ robbery.
Q5) The most terrifying type of robbery is a ________ robbery.
Q6) A robber's MO refers to his or her motivation in committing the robbery.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 11: Assault and Related Offenses
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Q1) Assaults in which the victim suffers serious,permanent disfigurement are classified as aggravated assaults.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When investigating sexual assault,the interviewer should ask brief open-ended questions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In _____ stalking,the stalker and victim know each other casually.
Q4) During the rape victim interview,the investigator's opening remarks should not show sympathy for the victim to avoid court challenges regarding objectiveness.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the most significant characteristic of "date" rape as opposed to the "blitz" rape?
A)Custodial relationship
B)Prior relationship
C)Incapacity of the victim
D)Victim does not consent to sex
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Chapter 12: Missing and Abducted Persons
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Q1) Obtaining a brief,recent history of family dynamics will help the investigator hypothesize about various possibilities involving the disappearance of the child.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ______ child is the most common missing child case.
Q3) As the interview of an abduction suspect progresses,the effective investigator may obtain more answers by being argumentative,attempting to manipulate the suspect's words to encourage admissions or a confession.
A)True
B)False
Q4) People who kill children through child abduction are at an average of:
A)21
B)24
C)27
D)30
Q5) Most killers of abducted children are unmarried.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The average age of killers of abducted children is _____ years old.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Crimes Against Children: Child Abuse and Child
Fatalities
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Q1) Chronic maltreatment is when the child's death is directly related to injuries caused by neglect occurring over an extended period of time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _________ is the use of children for illegal activities such as prostitution or pornography.
Q3) Discuss the steps you would take if you determined a child had died and you were responsible for the crime scene collection/evidence process.
Q4) In cases of shaken baby syndrome,the child's crying was often recognized as this type of event:
A)Direct
B)Triggering
C)Backing
D)Breaking
Q5) Shaken baby syndrome is also referred to as shaken impact syndrome.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Shaken baby syndrome is also referred to as shaken _______ syndrome.
Q7) Child _____ _____ is the sexual molestation of children.
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Chapter 14: Theft-Related Offenses
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Q1) You are a police community resource officer and have been asked to attend a community wide meeting where you will discuss crime prevention towards victims of check fraud.Before you go,you must prepare for what areas of discussion you would mention in an effort to deter this crime from occurring.List these items.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT correct information about an automobile's VIN?
A) An auto's VIN consists of 14 numbers,letters,and symbols unique to each vehicle.
B)An automobile's VIN will almost certainly reveal if the vehicle is properly registered.
C)All American made automobiles since 1968 contain the VIN plate visible through the front,left windshield.
D)The VIN is assigned to the automobile by the manufacturer at the time of production.
Q3) A fence is most vulnerable during the possession and storage of stolen property.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most burglars are convicted on the strength of circumstantial evidence.
A)True
B)False
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Arson and Bombings
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Q1) Arsonists use mechanical delay devices to afford themselves a few hours in which they can be prepared to respond to the scene of the fire to gauge the effectiveness of the firefighting activities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which physical evidence in a fire indicates burning alcohol?
A)White smoke
B)Green-purple flames
C)Black smoke
D)Blue-orange flames
Q3) Arson for profit accounts for less than 20 percent of all fire-related property damage in the U.S.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is true regarding the crime of arson in the United States?
A)The number of arsons in 2007 was 3,430.
B)In most states,arson is classified as a property crime.
C)Approximately 300 people lose their lives in the U.S.each year due to arson.
D)Fewer than 20% of arson arrests lead to convictions.
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Chapter 16: Terrorism and National Security Crimes
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Q1) Discuss the term terrorism as it is defined by the federal Foreign Relations Authorization Act in its four elements.Further discuss the purpose of terrorism as defined by those who commit this act.
Q2) Under current U.S.law,set forth in the USA PATRIOT Act,acts of domestic terrorism are those that involve acts dangerous to human life that are a violation of the criminal laws of the United States or of any State and appear to be intended to:
A)intimidate or coerce a civilian population.
B)affect the conduct of a government by mass destruction,assassination,or kidnapping.
C)influence the policy of a government by intimidation or coercion.
D)All of the above.
Q3) A radiological dispersal device is also known as:
A)Ugly bomb
B)Scary bomb
C)Dirty bomb
D)Clean bomb
Q4) The USA PATRIOT Act assists in defining the term domestic terrorism.
A)True
B)False
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Page 19