Law Enforcement Management
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Law Enforcement Management explores the principles, strategies, and challenges involved in overseeing law enforcement agencies and personnel. The course examines topics such as organizational structure, leadership styles, personnel management, ethics and accountability, budgeting, resource allocation, and community relations. Students will learn to analyze real-world scenarios, develop effective policies, address internal and external challenges, and implement best practices for effective law enforcement administration. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, problem-solving, and the development of leadership skills necessary for managing modern law enforcement organizations.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Investigation 11th Edition by Charles R Swanson
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22 Chapters
1210 Verified Questions
1210 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Evolution of Criminal Investigation and Forensic Science
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Q1) In 1892,who published the first definitive book on dactylography,Finger Prints?
A) Sir Francis Galton.
B) Henri Lacassagne.
C) Henry Balthazard.
D) Calvin Goddard.
Answer: A
Q2) Who were the Bow Street Runners and of what historical importance are they?
Answer: The Bow Street Runners were a small group of volunteer,non-uniformed homeowners established in 1750 by Henry Fielding to "take thieves." In "taking thieves" they would hurry to the scene of a crime and begin an investigation,thus becoming the first modern detective force.
Q3) What early method of criminal identification is based on the fact that every human being differs from every other one in the exact measurements of their body,and that the sum of these measurements yields a characteristic formula for each individual?
A) Dactylography.
B) Ectomorphism.
C) Anthropometry.
D) Meso-morphism.
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Legal Aspects of Investigation
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Q1) Is a "John Doe" arrest warrant valid under any circumstances? Explain.
Answer: John Doe warrants may be valid under certain circumstances provided the warrant is issued for a person who can be described as required by the Constitution.John Doe is used if a name,alias,or nickname is unknown.However,the other type of John Doe warrant,which is merely issued for any person who might have committed that offense without satisfying the particular description requirement of the Constitution,is totally invalid.
Q2) The most preferred method of affecting an arrest is under the authority of a warrant.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The two major benefits derived from securing prior judicial approval for arrests are that the approval relieves the law enforcement officer of the burden of proving the legality of the arrest,and it provides for automatic approval of evidence to be used during the trial for the crime the person was arrested for.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Investigators, the Investigative Process, and the Crime Scene
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are steps in a preliminary investigation?
A) Reviewing the offense/incident report
B) Securing the crime scene and witnesses
C) Re-interviewing the witnesses
D) All of the above
Answer: B
Q2) During a preliminary investigation,if an arrest is not made at the crime scene,the officer must issue a(n)
A) all points alert.
B) notification of victim.
C) BOLO.
D) be aware of danger notice.
Answer: C
Q3) Portable ________ are quite useful in locating very small items of evidence.These units are particularly effective in gathering hairs,fibers,and certain types of drug evidence.
Answer: trace evidence vacuums
Q4) _____________________ are the sketches that are made in the field and/or at the crime scene.
Answer: rough sketches
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Chapter 4: Physical Evidence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are guidelines to be used in handling soil evidence?
A) Gather soil as quickly as sound action permits.
B) Collect soil samples where there are noticeable changes in composition, color, and texture.
C) Collect soil samples from a depth that is consistent with the depth at which the questioned soil may have originated.
D) All are guidelines to be used in handling soil evidence.
Q2) What three factors account for the rapid rise in superglue fuming?
Q3) This type of crime is more likely to have disputed or questioned documents.
A) Assault
B) White collar crimes
C) Burglary
D) Car theft
Q4) A __________________ document is one whose origin or authenticity is in doubt.
Q5) How do you collect bite mark evidence?
Q6) A fracture match occurs when
A) It is established that two or more pieces were formerly joined together.
B) Multiple items are compared to each other.
C) Multiple items share the same chemical consistency.
D) None of the above are examples of fracture matches
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Chapter 5: Interviewing and Interrogation
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Q1) Which of the following is a required warning contained in the Miranda decision?
A) The right to remain silent.
B) The right to be told that anything the suspect says can and will be used against him or her in court.
C) The right to consult with an attorney prior to answering any questions and to have that attorney present during interrogation.
D) All of the preceding are correct.
Q2) What is the evidentiary test for admissibility of confessions and admissions?
Q3) What are the possible responses when a suspect is asked if they wish to talk to the police?
A) remain silent
B) request an attorney
C) waive their rights against self -incrimination
D) All of the above are possible responses
Q4) The McNabb - Mallory cases set forth the ________ rule that is only applicable in federal courts.
Q5) The utmost importance in conducting ________ is privacy,as distractions tend to have an adverse effect.
Q6) What are the qualities for an effective interviewer or interrogator?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Field Notes and Reporting
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Sample Questions
Q1) A case may be exceptionally cleared when
A) the suspect is arrested.
B) the suspect is arrested and some stolen property is recovered.
C) the suspect is arrested, charged, convicted, and all stolen property is recovered.
D) the police have established the identity of the perpetrator, but due to circumstances beyond their control cannot pursue the case further.
Q2) When the police know who the perpetrator is but are unable to pursue the case further owing to circumstances beyond their control,such as the death of the only witness,the case is closed as ________.
Q3) Field notes play a significant role in every criminal investigation.They provide a short written record of events,times,places,suspects,witnesses and other information.
A)True
B)False
Q4) After a uniformed supervisor accepts a report,there is a need for him/her to make a disposition of it.What are five dispositions which might be made?
Q5) Write the report in ________,using "I arrived at the scene at 0821 hours".
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Chapter 7: The Follow-Up Investigation and Investigative Resources
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Sample Questions
Q1) The NCIC contains many database files for use by police.Which of the following is not one of the database files available from NCIC?
A) Unlocated suspect file.
B) Wanted person file.
C) Stolen boat file.
D) Terrorist file.
Q2) One source of case information that reveals personal information about the suspect,including his or her current aliases and health condition is the A) crime lab reports.
B) traffic reports.
C) incident reports.
D) jail booking reports.
Q3) Operated by the FBI,the National Center for the Analysis of Violent Crime (NCAVC)is organized in to three components: the Behavioral Analysis Unit; the child Abduction and Serial Murder Investigative Resources Center; and the ________.
Q4) __________ are areas where many incidents occur.
Q5) What are sprees,hot spots,and crimogens?
Page 9
Q6) Briefly discuss the steps in the intelligence/analytical cycle.
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Chapter 8: The Crime Laboratory
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Q1) The ________ Crime Laboratory is one of the largest and most comprehensive forensic laboratories and is the only full service forensic laboratory.
Q2) The FBI Crime Laboratory is one of the largest and most comprehensive forensic laboratories and is the only full-service forensic laboratory.When was it established? A) 1873. B) 1932.
C) 1979. D) 2002.
Q3) The effectiveness of DNA evidence in court depends on
A) the ability of the witness to explain the probability that no other person, except an identical twin has the same DNA type as that discovered at the crime scene. B) the quality of the evidence analysis that was performed in the crime lab.
C) the qualifications of the crime lab and the crime lab personnel.
D) the jurisdiction, the lab technician, and the quality of the equipment used in the analysis.
Q4) Distinguish the Frye test from the Daubert test regarding the admissibility of scientific evidence.
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Chapter 9: Injury and Death Investigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a bullet penetrates the skin,the skin is pressed inward,stretched,and perforated in the stretched position.The entrance wound will be larger than the exit wound because the bullet deforms after stretching the skin and there will not be as much of the bullet to exit the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Livor mortis is caused by A) blows from a blunt object. B) poisoning.
C) gunshot wounds.
D) settling of the blood.
Q3) What are the purposes of an autopsy and what questions may the autopsy also answer?
Q4) ______________ is described as a number of murders (four or more)occurring during the same incident,with no distinctive time period between the murders.
Q5) Describe an incised wound,stab wound,and laceration.
Q6) For the investigator,a major concern in an apparent suicide case is to make certain that the death was self-induced and not the result of a ________ .
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Chapter 10: Sex-Related Offenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surreptitious collection of DNA from suspects is permissible as long as the police have legal access to the area where the item is discarded.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Many condom brands contain a liquid lubricant and are classified as either wet or dry.What,if any,major difference exists between the two types of condoms?
A) Wet condoms use water-based lubricants whereas dry condom lubricants are not water based.
B) Wet condoms are made from lamb membranes whereas dry condoms are latex rubber.
C) Wet condoms are made from polyurethane plastic whereas dry condoms are latex rubber.
D) There is no significant difference between wet and dry condoms.
Q3) Rape is generally considered a woman-centered issue,but growing awareness has led to a rise in reports of homosexual male rape.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the effects of Rohypnol?
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12
Chapter 11: Crimes Against Children
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Q1) Which statement about the AMBER Plan is <b>most</b> accurate?
A) The AMBER Plan is a voluntary partnership between law enforcement agencies and broadcasters to activate an urgent news bulletin in child abduction cases.
B) The AMBER Plan is a mandatory partnership between law enforcement agencies and broadcasters to activate an urgent news bulletin in the most serious child abduction cases.
C) It is a system to alert police officers when a pedophile is seen lurking around schools.
D) It is a plan which all hospitals have to prevent infant abduction.
Q2) A threat is an expression of the intent to do harm or act out violently against someone or something and threat assessment rests on two critical principles: that all threats and threateners are not equal; and that most threateners are ________ to carry out their threats.
Q3) The best tool to protect children from Internet crime is ________ and parental involvement.
Q4) Spill/splash injuries occur when a child falls or is placed into a container of hot liquid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Human Trafficking
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Q1) A single attorney representing many women simultaneously who were found in several different locations may be working for the traffickers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify the law that states human trafficking has occurred if a person was induced to engage in labor or commercial sex acts by force,coercion or fraud
A) The Federal Mann Act.
B) The Trafficking Victims Protection Act (TVPA) of 2000.
C) The Violence against Women Act (VAWA) of 1994.
D) The USA Patriot Act of 2002 and as amended in 2006.
Q3) Discuss the differences between human smuggling and trafficking.
Q4) Anti-trafficking task forces nationwide are comprised of federal,state,and local law-enforcement investigators and prosecutors,labor-enforcement investigators,and non-governmental victim service providers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the psychological impact of sex trafficking and posttraumatic stress disorder.
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Chapter 13: Robbery
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Q1) Discuss how home invaders operate.
Q2) Research suggests that many bank robberies are spontaneous and opportunistic crimes that are often acts of desperation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The term "carjacking" originated in
A) Detroit.
B) Chicago.
C) New Orleans.
D) Los Angeles.
Q4) Another aspect of ________ stereotyping is that the investigator may have difficulty in believing witnesses' descriptions.
Q5) When the officers' expectations are so set to see one thing that he or she fails to perceive the event accurately is termed
A) action stereotyping.
B) physical stereotyping.
C) situational stereotyping.
D) racial stereotyping.
Q6) What considerations are required as you approach the scene of a robbery?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Burglary
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the dimensions of the crime of burglary.
Q2) What measures can homeowners and business operators take to lessen their chances of being burglarized?
Q3) Which of the following is indicative of a juvenile burglar?
A) Destructive acts of vandalism.
B) Removal of prize trophies.
C) Theft of a car taken after a home was burglarized.
D) A semi-organized crime scene.
Q4) Amateur burglars often operate on the basis of A) plans.
B) discussions.
C) surveillance.
D) impulse.
Q5) What are the elements of the crime of burglary?
Q6) A burglary investigation _____________ makes no distinction between the tasks associated with initiating the incident report and those associated with the follow-up investigation,so that the entire scope of investigative tasks can be seen at once.
Q7) Explain two investigative approaches to locating fences.
Q8) How are attacks on stand-alone ATMs committed?
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Chapter 15: Larceny Theft and White-Collar Crime
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Q1) Tangible property means things that have both a physical existence that can be touched and intrinsic value whereas intangible property has value,but is more abstract.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to your textbook,what may be the fastest growing sector of credit card fraud?
A) Asian gangs who obtain credit cards in your name and run up bills rapidly and leave the area.
B) Counterfeiting of credit cards.
C) Terrorist organizations that use credit card fraud to finance their operation.
D) Individuals who are unable to keep up with monthly payments on their credit cards and have to file bankruptcy requiring other holders to make up the loss to the companies.
Q3) ________ accidents are exactly that: no accident has occurred.This also requires collusion with a body shop to perpetrate the crime.
Q4) The missing person fraud is cruel.How is it run?
Q5) Give two definitions of white-collar crime.
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Chapter 16: Vehicle Thefts and Related Offenses
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Q1) What are some of the factors contributing to the theft of heavy,also called off-road equipment?
Q2) All of the following identifiers are part of the 17 character standardized VIN except A) engine type.
B) color.
C)body style.
D) country of manufacturer.
Q3) According to the textbook,what is the primary reason an owner would file a phony-theft loss claim?
A) Avoid liability for some conduct that resulted from the use of the vehicle.
B) Reduce their financial loss.
C) Both A and B.
D) Neither A or B
Q4) One of the most costly consumer frauds of modern times is ________ fraud,also known as rollbacks and clocking.
Q5) Since 1954 American automobile manufacturers have used a ________ instead of an engine number as the primary means of identification.
Q6) What is avionics and why is avionics theft prevalent?
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Chapter 17: Cybercrime
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Q1) Discuss the differences between "black hatters" and "white hatters."
Q2) This type of hacker may work for a national government to destroy the operational capabilities of the target.
A) Novice
B) Information/Espionage Warfare
C) Cyberpunks
D) All of the above are correct
Q3) Transportation hazards when transporting digital evidence that the investigator should be aware of include
A) magnetic fields
B) heat
C) static electricity
D) all of the above
Q4) The first online service provider for consumers was America Online (AOL).
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the physical evidence that an investigator should consider when investigating computer and/or cybercrime.
Q6) ________ refers to the unauthorized entry into a computer system.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Agricultural, Wildlife, and Environmental Crimes
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Q1) The illegal taking or possession of game,fish,and other wildlife is known as A) jacklighting.
B) hunting out of season.
C) poaching.
D) both A and B.
Q2) Which of the following would least likely be the object of a major theft?
A) Pesticides.
B) Herbicides.
C) Fertilizers.
D) Anhydrous ammonia.
Q3) Hazardous waste may be solids,liquids,sledges,or byproducts of manufacturing processes and is a hazard if it contains which of the below characteristics?
A) Ignitability.
B) Reactivity.
C) Toxicity.
D) All of the preceding.
Q4) ________ substances are substances that are harmful or fatal when ingested or absorbed and that,when improperly disposed of on land,may eventually pollute groundwater.
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Chapter 19: Arson and Explosives Investigations
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Q1) If arson is suspected,why should firefighters not disarrange the premises by mopping up or overhauling the scene of the fire,especially at the point of origin?
Q2) It is necessary that a temperature of _____ be reached before furniture springs will collapse from their own weight.
Q3) In December 2009,a bomber tried to use an IED (Improvised Explosive Device)hidden in his __________________.
Q4) During a fire investigation,it should be borne in mind that a fire always has three causes: a source of heat,material,and ignition.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The insurance industry maintains a modern computerized data bank,the Property Insurance Loss Register (PILR).Which of the below is not maintained in this database?
A) Fire claims.
B) Burglary claims.
C) Theft claims.
D) Suspects arrested in reference to the above listed claims.
Q6) What is the first duty of the investigator at the scene of an explosion?
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Recognition, Control, and Investigation of Drug Abuse
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Q1) Define a conspiracy,and give examples of the types of conspiracy cases.
Q2) What role does the drug methadone play in treating heroin addicts?
Q3) What are the effects of cocaine and how is it used?
Q4) Which of the following statements about OxyContin is incorrect?
A) OxyContin is a time-released formulation that is effective for up to 12 hours.
B) The OxyContin active ingredient is morphine.
C) OxyContin is usually prescribed for cancer patients and has become the drug of choice for addicts and teenage abusers.
D) With the abuse of OxyContin on the rise, police in at least three states are reporting a record number of pharmacies being broken into.
Q5) The history of drug abuse in the United States is intertwined with trends and patterns of not only use but also illicit traffic.The Golden Crescent contributes between 5% and 20% of heroin imported to the United States and is comprised of what three countries?
A) Burma, Laos and Thailand.
B) Bolivia, Peru, and Columbia.
C) Pakistan, Afghanistan and Iran.
D) Western Europe, Belgium, and Netherlands.
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Chapter 21: Terrorism
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Q1) Which terrorist groups often adhere to the principles of racial supremacy and embrace antigovernment,antiregulatory beliefs.
A) The Christian Identify Theology.
B) Domestic right-wing terrorists.
C) Domestic left-wing terrorists.
D) Both A and B are correct.
Q2) One of the five pillars of Islamic faith is known as hawala,or charitable giving.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The basic concept of the ________ is that the teachings of Islam were corrupted after the time of the Prophet Muhammed.The group is centered in Saudi Arabia.
Q4) Agroterrorism is the deliberate and malicious use of biological agents as weapons against the municipal water supplies.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List several steps that every police agency and/or officer can do to help prevent terrorism.
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Chapter 22: The Trial Process and the Investigator As a Witness
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Q1) Regarding the proper clothing to wear while testifying in court,all authorities agree that
A) a uniform should always be worn while testifying.
B) civilian clothes should always be worn while testifying.
C) the investigator should wear what he or she was wearing at the time of the arrest.
D) regardless of what is worn it should be neat and clean.
Q2) There are 5 types of evidence identified in the textbook.Which type introduces tangible objects even though they are not identical to real evidence?
A) Direct evidence.
B) Real evidence.
C) Circumstantial evidence.
D) Demonstrative evidence.
Q3) The courtroom process begins with the selection and swearing in of a jury.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When and how may a witness use notes on the witness stand?
Q5) How important are a witness's appearance and demeanor to credibility?
Page 24
Q6) What is the hearsay rule and why does it exist?
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