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Law Enforcement Exam Review - 1131 Verified Questions

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Law Enforcement Exam Review

Course Introduction

This course provides a comprehensive overview of the field of law enforcement, exploring the historical development, structure, and functions of policing in modern society. Students will examine the roles and responsibilities of law enforcement agencies at local, state, and federal levels, as well as issues related to police ethics, community relations, and the challenges of maintaining public order. The course also covers constitutional guidelines, investigative procedures, crime prevention strategies, and contemporary debates surrounding the use of force and police accountability. Through case studies and critical analysis, students gain insight into the complexities and evolving nature of law enforcement in todays world.

Recommended Textbook

Criminal Evidence Principles and Cases 8th Edition by Thomas J. Gardner

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Chapter 1: History and Development of the Law of Criminal Justice

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Q1) The prosecution can subpoena that defendants testify at their criminal trials.

A)True

B)False Answer: False

Q2) Under American law, defendants have a right to a ________ trial.

A)perfect (error free)

B)fair

C)bench

D)inquisitorial

Answer: B

Q3) The Fifth Amendment requires that defendants receive notice of any charges brought against them.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) The writ of ________________ is a means of challenging the government's authority to detain or imprison people.

Answer: habeas corpus

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Q5) The _________ Amendment gives defendants a right to a speedy and public trial. Answer: Sixth

Chapter 2: Important Aspects of the American Criminal Justice System

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Q1) What is the main function of a jury? Why is this duty imposed on the jury?

Answer: The determination of truth is the function of the jury.Because the jury must determine truth based only on the often-conflicting versions presented by the adversaries, however, the system has elaborate rules to control how those versions of the truth are presented.The purpose of the rules of evidence is to ensure each adversary's version of the truth is put before the jury by relevant, reliable, and competent evidence.

Q2) The main actors at the trial are the judge, the _____, the prosecutor, and the defense attorney.

A)investigator

B)victim

C)jury

D)defendant

Answer: C

Q3) Competent evidence is reliable, relevant evidence that

A)is not excluded by additional rules of evidence.

B)is subject to the exclusionary rule.

C)cannot be heard by the jury.

D)is offered to impeach a witness.

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Using Evidence to Determine Guilt or Innocence

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Q1) An Information is a formal charging document issued by a prosecutor.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) The defense of insanity is successful in a majority of cases where the defendant uses such a defense.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) Many defendants plea bargain and plead guilty in hopes of obtaining a lighter (or more lenient) _____________.

Answer: sentence

Q4) In most appeals,

A)the appeal takes the form of a new trial.

B)the appeals court reviews the records for errors.

C)the defendant usually is ordered to be acquitted.

D)the prosecution must again prove that the defendant was guilty beyond a reasonable doubt.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Direct and Circumstantial Evidence and the Use of Inferences

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Q1) The burden of ___________requires the party with the burden on a factual issue to introduce sufficient relevant evidence to prove the fact at issue.

A)evidence

B)proof

C)persuasion

D)production

Q2) The corpus delicti rule requires that circumstantial evidence be corroborated by direct evidence.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Evidence of prior similar crimes or bad acts is never admissible against a criminal defendant.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Congress has passed laws making it a crime to receive or possess ____________________ from the Internet.

Q5) In the case In Re _____________, the U.S.Supreme Court held that due process required proof of guilt beyond a reasonable doubt.

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Chapter 5: Witnesses and the Testimony of Witnesses

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Q1) The conduct or attitude of a witness is called their "_____________."

Q2) Defendants who decide to testify at their trial

A)may not be cross-examined because they have a privilege against self-incrimination.

B)may not be prosecuted for perjury even if they lie.

C)may be cross-examined.

D)do not have to take an oath to tell the truth.

Q3) Voir dire is a French term that means "to speak the _____________."

Q4) Children may testify only if

A)they are a minimum of ten years of age.

B)a psychologist testifies that they are aware of the obligation to tell the truth.

C)the judge allows them to testify after the child is questioned (voir dire).

D)they have competed the first grade.

Q5) A criminal defendant's right to confront and cross-examine witnesses is found in the __________ Amendment.

A)Fourth

B)Fifth

C)Sixth

D)Seventh

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Chapter 6: Judicial Notice, Privileges of Witnesses, and Shield Laws

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Q1) The Fifth Amendment privilege applies to prosecution or the possibility of prosecution of any ______________ case.

Q2) List the common examples of the use of judicial notice to prove matters of general knowledge:

Q3) In jurisdictions with a psychotherapist-patient privilege, there is usually an exception for

A)patients who are insane.

B)patients who do not really need treatment.

C)dangerous patients.

D)patients who are psychotic.

Q4) If a law clerk or secretary of the attorney is present during the attorney-client meeting, the privilege is waived.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The attorney-client privilege does not apply to communications made for the purpose of getting advice to commit a crime or fraud.

A)True

B)False

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Q6) The privilege against self-______________ is found in the Fifth Amendment.

Chapter 7: The Use of Hearsay in the Courtroom

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Q1) The hearsay rule does not apply to various _____________that would otherwise literally fall within the definition of hearsay.

Q2) In the Federal Rules of Evidence, one form of statement that is specifically excluded from the definition of hearsay is a/n _____________ by a party- opponent.

Q3) Discuss the co-conspirator rule and provide an example.

Q4) The famous trial of ____________ in 1603 prompted concern about the use of hearsay in English trials.

A)Sir Walter Raleigh

B)Benjamin Franklin

C)Robert Bruce

D)Oliver Cromwell

Q5) The rule against hearsay and the ____________ Amendment confrontation clause address similar problems.

Q6) Under the Federal Rules of Evidence, there is an exemption from the definition of hearsay for certain statements by co-conspirators.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: The Confrontation Clause and Exceptions to the Hearsay Rule

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Q1) In Chambers v.Mississippi (1973), the state rule disallowing hearsay statements against penal interest to be used by defendants was found to be in violation of the U.S.Constitution.

A)True

B)False

Q2) There is a hearsay exception for dying _____________.

Q3) The common law recognized the dying declarations exception to the hearsay rule. A)True B)False

Q4) Hearsay rules have been relaxed for children for several purposes.Discuss the factors that relate to the reliability of children's statements.Do you believe there are victims, besides the children, because of the exceptions in child abuse cases? Why or why not? What might be the pitfalls of this exception? (LO5, 174-175)

Q5) To qualify as an exception to the hearsay rule, the statement must have some indicia of reliability.

A)True

B)False

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Q6) Traditionally, hearsay exceptions have been allowed only when the statement has some indicia of _____________.

Chapter 9: The Exclusionary Rule

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Q1) One of the costs (and criticisms) of the federal exclusionary rule is that it

A)is too simple to covers a variety of situations.

B)may result in innocent people being convicted.

C)may result in guilty people being acquitted.

D)has no exceptions.

Q2) Use of the exclusionary rule to exclude unreliable evidence could help protect innocent people from being convicted.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In _______v.United States, the U.S.Supreme Court described the scope of the exclusionary rule and its application to indirect evidence.

Q4) The type of evidence which excluded pursuant to the exclusionary rule includes all but one of the following

A)physical evidence.

B)confessions.

C)eyewitness and voice information.

D)witness evidence.

Q5) In Hudson v.Michigan, the court stated that the exclusionary rule is most appropriate in cases of ____________ searches.

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Chapter 10: Where the Exclusionary Rule Does Not Apply

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Q1) Two requirements for a consent search are that the person consenting has authority and that the consent was given __________ and ___________ .

Q2) Define the concept of standing.When does a defendant have standing to challenge a police search of a place or things? Be sure to provide examples.

Q3) The ____________ Amendment prohibits unreasonable searches and seizures.

Q4) To have ___________ to challenge a police search, the person must have had a reasonable expectation of privacy in the place searched.

Q5) The federal exclusionary rule

A)applies only in civil cases.

B)applies only in criminal cases.

C)applies in criminal cases and civil penalties for tax fraud.

D)applies in civil and criminal cases.

Q6) Consent is not needed in abandoned nor _______________ circumstances.

Q7) In Maryland v._____________, the U.S.Supreme Court excused an honest mistake by officers while executing a search warrant.

Q8) When does an individual lose their expectation of privacy in rental property?

Q9) The exclusionary rule does not apply in probation or ____________ revocation proceedings.

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Chapter 11: Special Needs and Administrative Searches

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Q1) Public schools may randomly drug test student _____________.

Q2) Persons have fewer Fourth Amendment protections at the ___________ as compared to the interior of the country.

Q3) The U.S.Supreme Court held that the probable cause standard is related to criminal investigations.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Searches of public school students by school officials on school grounds usually only require _____________ suspicion.

Q5) Discuss airport screenings from both the perspective of evidence being admissible and/or non-admissible in court.

Q6) Inmates in prisons and jails may be searched for weapons or contraband

A)only with a warrant.

B)only upon probable cause.

C)only upon reasonable suspicion.

D)randomly or at any time without any particularized individual suspicion.

Q7) Fourth Amendment protections are weaker when the government is protecting its _____________ needs than when it is investigating crime.

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Chapter 12: Obtaining Statements and Confessions for Use

As Evidence

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Q1) A _____________ by one suspect cannot be used against another suspect unless the second suspect as the opportunity to cross-examine the course of the accusation against him.

Q2) Miranda rights can be validly waived only after the suspect has had a chance to consult with an attorney.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The corpus _____________ rule requires that confessions be corroborated.

Q4) Miranda is based on the _____________ Amendment.

Q5) After a suspect is charged with a crime, his/her _____Amendment right to an attorney must be observed.

A)Fourth

B)Fifth

C)Sixth

D)Eighth

Q6) Brutality and violence are not consistent with due process.

A)True

B)False

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Q7) Discuss the application of the Totality of the Circumstances test when it comes to juveniles.

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Chapter 13: The Law Governing Identification Evidence

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Q1) If a criminal prosecution has begun, the defendant has a constitutional right to ____________ at a lineup.

A)have an attorney present

B)cross-examine the witnesses

C)select the other participants

D)have the lineup videotaped

Q2) Lineups should be conducted to test recognition in a manner that avoids ____________.

Q3) Police should always attempt to find additional evidence to corroborate the identification made by an eyewitness.

A)True

B)False

Q4) If a witness is shown only a single photograph and identifies the person in the photo as the perpetrator, the identification

A)may be suppressed because it is too suggestive.

B)will always be suppressed unless the defendant's attorney was present.

C)will not have to be suppressed if the defendant waives the privilege against self-incrimination.

D)cannot be admitted.

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Chapter 14: Obtaining Physical and Other Evidence

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Q1) Under Michigan v._____________, the U.S.Supreme Court authorized detention of the occupants of a place while a valid search warrant was being executed.

A)Moseley

B)Witherspoon

C)Summers

D)Johnson

Q2) In order to be lawful, a traffic stop must be temporary, ______ and in public.

Q3) Discuss the automobile exception and how if differs from entering a residence in terms of probable cause.

Q4) Warrantless searches and seizures inside a __________ are presumptively (generally) unreasonable under the Fourth Amendment.

Q5) An anonymous phone call alone cannot create reasonable suspicion or probable cause.

A)True

B)False

Q6) A Terry stop is a brief, investigative detention (short of an arrest).

A)True

B)False

Q7) Search and seizure protections are found in the ____________ Amendment.

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Chapter 15: Obtaining Evidence From Computers or by Use

of Search Warrants, Wiretapping, or Dogs Trained to

Indicate an Alert

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Q1) The statutory exclusionary rule for unlawfully intercepted telephone conversations does not apply to _______.

Q2) The Fourth Amendment requires that warrants be based on reasonable suspicion.

A)True

B)False

Q3) If police fear violence or destruction of evidence when executing a search warrant, they can request a ____________ warrant.

A)general

B)anticipatory

C)no-knock

D)participatory

Q4) Courts require search warrants aimed at computer _______to tailor the search towards files likely to include the information identified in the warrant.

Q5) Discuss e-mail in terms of evidence collection.

Q6) The USA PATRIOT Act modified prior law on electronic eavesdropping. A)True

B)False

Q7) Define administrative search warrants and the requirements of these types of Page 18

warrants.

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Chapter 16: The Crime Scene, The Chain of Custody

Requirement, and the Use of Fingerprints and Trace Evidence

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Q1) Proof of chain of custody is usually not required in ____________ and theft cases.

Q2) Discuss facts of holding of the U.S.Supreme Court's decision in Mincey v.Arizona.Do you agree or disagree with the Court's decision? Explain your position.

Q3) According to Brendlin v.CA, a passenger in a vehicle could not object to the lawfulness of a traffic stop.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Law enforcement officers may stay in a crime scene for a ______period of time to perform whatever tasks they are obligated to do.

A)allowed

B)minimal

C)reasonable

D)objective

Q5) Discuss what a trained dog can use scent evidence to perform.

Q6) To use bite-mark evidence, a chain of custody must be shown and an expert witness must be used, such as a dentist with training and experience as a forensic

Q7) Minute or microscopic evidence is referred to as ____________ evidence. Page 20

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Chapter 17: Videotapes, Photographs, Documents, and Writings As Evidence

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Q1) The privilege against self-incrimination adheres to the suspect, not the information. A)True

B)False

Q2) Individuals have no expectation of privacy for original checks and deposit slips.

A)True

B)False

Q3) As a general rule, a search warrant is ______ necessary to search a public employee's workplace (desk, files, and so on) to investigate work-related misconduct.

A)not

B)always

C)sometimes D)federally

Q4) The following types of circumstantial evidence may be used to show that documents are authentic and genuine.

Q5) Thousands of people carry ___________ equipped as cameras.

Q6) The ____________ Amendment contains a privilege against self-incrimination.

Q7) _________________ evidence is important in civil personal injury trials.

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Chapter 18: Scientific Evidence

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Q1) Describe the Federal DNA Act.

Q2) In the case of United States v.Crisp, the court concluded that ________ analysis was reliable scientific knowledge and admissible. A)blood.

B)handwriting

C)DNA

D)fingerprints.

Q3) Since the Daubert decision, ____________ states have adopted a similar rule. A)none of the B)a few C)a substantial minority of D)a majority of

Q4) In some cases, court may take ________________ of the validity of underlying scientific theories and techniques.

Q5) The federal DNA act was amended in 2006 to require persons arrested for _________to submit DNA samples, and 24 states have passed similar laws.

Q6) Discuss, describe, compare, and contrast the Frye rule with its successor, the Daubert rule.

Q7) Of the two DNA tests, courts have shown greater acceptance of the _______ test.

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