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Law Enforcement Ethics explores the moral principles and values that guide the professional conduct of police officers and other law enforcement personnel. The course examines ethical theories, codes of conduct, and case studies to help students understand the complexities of decision-making in law enforcement situations. Topics include the use of discretion, corruption, accountability, the use of force, and the relationship between the police and the community. By analyzing real-world scenarios, students develop critical thinking skills and learn to navigate ethical dilemmas, promoting integrity, professionalism, and public trust within the field of law enforcement.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Evidence Principles and Cases 8th Edition by Thomas J. Gardner
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Q1) When originally ratified, the Bill of Rights limited the powers of the federal government, not the powers of the states.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The first form of jury in English history was the ____________ jury.
Answer: presentment
Q3) The U.S.Supreme Court holds that a suspect arrested without an arrest warrant must have a probable cause hearing before a judge or magistrate "promptly," of which is defined as being within 48 hours of the arrest, including weekends and holidays.If this 48 hour rule is violated, what is the burden placed on the prosecution and what may be the consequence of such an unwarranted delay?
Answer: The burden is on the government "to demonstrate the existence of a bona fide emergency or otherwise extraordinary circumstance." ." If that burden is not met, evidence obtained during the delay may be excluded from any resulting trial, if the delay in some way contributed to obtaining the evidence.
Q4) The First ten Amendments to the U.S.Constitution are called the ____________.
Answer: Bill of Rights

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Q1) In the adversary system, each side seeks to present evidence that is most favorable to its position.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Define and describe an adversary system of justice.What role do the rules of evidence play in such a system? Be sure to provide examples. Answer: In the American adversary system, the prosecutor and the defense attorney assume adversarial roles; that is, they do not seek to establish the facts in cooperation with each other, but in opposition.Each side has two goals: to present the facts most advantageous to their position, and to seek to prevent and make it difficult for their opponent to do the same.
Q3) "Competent evidence" is a catch-all term that included reliable and relevant evidence that is not rendered inadmissible by some other rule.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The purpose of _____ is to assure the defendant's appearance at trial.
A)bail
B)presentence investigation
C)a criminal history investigation
D)an employment check
Answer: A
Q2) A no contest plea is the same as a ____________ plea.
Answer: nolo contendere
Q3) In most jurisdictions, a defendant who is charged with a misdemeanor has a right to both a preliminary hearing and grand jury review.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) If a defendant wants to plead guilty, the defendant must
A)waive a number of rights.
B)prove to the judge that s/he is not insane.
C)be represented by an attorney.
D)have agreed to a plea bargain.
Answer: A
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Q1) Discuss U.S.v.Williams' PROTECT ACT section as it relates to child pornography and the internet.Does this provide enough protection? Why or why not?
Q2) In Holland v.U.S.(1954), the U.S.Supreme Court upheld an income tax evasion conviction on the basis of circumstantial evidence in the form of
A)eyewitness testimony.
B)impression of neighbors about the defendant's income.
C)the net worth method.
D)written confessions.
Q3) Direct evidence is evidence that proves a fact
A)without the need of inferences or presumptions.
B)by the drawing of inferences.
C)by the use of inductive or deductive reasoning.
D)by judicial notice.
Q4) A conviction cannot be valid if it is based solely on circumstantial evidence.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Congress has passed laws making it a crime to receive or possess ____________________ from the Internet.
Q6) Differentiate a presumption from an inference.
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Q1) At common law, no child under the age of fourteen was eligible or competent to testify as a witness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a party does not want a witness to answer a question, that party must object to the question.
A)True B)False
Q3) One of the purposes of the right to a jury trial is to protect people against overzealous prosecutors and biased judges
A)True
B)False
Q4) The use of falsehoods to ___________ key witnesses can reverse a conviction on Appeal
Q5) An ordinary witness may give an opinion about A)things which are in the common knowledge of most people. B)things they have been told by another C)their own competence to be a witness. D)whether their testimony is relevant.
Q6) Discuss the purposes of redirect examination.
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Q1) It has been held that courts should not take _______________of facts that are an element of the crime charged or serve as the basis for increased prison sentences.
A)judicial notice
B)presumption
C)bias opinion
D)omission
Q2) Every jurisdiction recognizes a parent-child privilege.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the police-informant privilege? What is its rationale, and what are some exceptions to this privilege?
Q4) People can assert the privilege against self-incrimination only for ___________ evidence.
A)physical or scientific evidence
B)testimonial or communicative
C)bodily
D)exculpatory
Q5) The _________ against self-incrimination is seen as crucial to our adversarial and accusatorial system of justice.
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Q1) One famous scholar stated that the development of the hearsay rule was the second greatest contribution of the English legal system next to A)the grand jury.
B)the jury trial.
C)the right to notice of the charges.
D)the right to an attorney.
Q2) The hearsay rule forbids only statements offered to prove the ______of the matter asserted.
Q3) A conspiracy is an agreement between two or more people to commit an illegal act.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In hearsay testimony, the person on the witness stand is A)the out-of-court declarant (or declarant).
B)not under oath.
C)immune from perjury
D)not the person who personally witnessed or heard the evidence.
Q5) Discuss the co-conspirator rule and provide an example.
Q6) The Federal Rules of Evidence contain ___________ exceptions to the hearsay rule.
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Q1) To qualify as an exception to the hearsay rule, the statement must have some indicia of reliability.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There is a hearsay exception for statements about then existing mental, emotional, or physical ____________.
Q3) The _______Rules of Evidence list 27 exceptions to the exclusionary rule.
Q4) Explain and discuss how exceptions to the hearsay rule endanger the Sixth Amendment right to confrontation.Be sure to provide examples.
Q5) There is a hearsay exception for ____________ utterances.
Q6) A long delay in reporting a sexual assault could be a factor considered by a jury in determining whether there was _______to the sexual act.
Q7) For "testimonial" statements, Washington v.Crawford
A)aligns the hearsay rule and the Confrontation Clause.
B)creates divergence between hearsay exception and the Confrontation Clause.
C)changes nothing about the traditional relationship between the confrontation clause and hearsay exceptions.
D)will have no impact on hearsay exceptions in state evidence codes.
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Q1) Violations of the ____________ Amendment privilege against self-incrimination can result in exclusion of the confession.
Q2) In _______v.United States, the U.S.Supreme Court described the scope of the exclusionary rule and its application to indirect evidence.
Q3) The fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine is also known as the ____________ rule.
A)attenuation of the taint
B)inevitable discovery
C)derivative evidence
D)independent source
Q4) The doctrine making the exclusionary rule applicable to evidence obtained indirectly from unconstitutional police conduct is termed the ___________ doctrine.
A)dissipation of the taint
B)attenuation
C)fruit of the poisonous tree
D)inevitable discovery
Q5) Define and discuss three exceptions to the exclusionary rule and/or fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine.Be sure to provide examples.
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Q1) What are the four factors the U.S.Supreme Court listed in U.S.v.Dunn to help distinguish open fields from the curtilage? Give examples of each.What difference does it make whether property is open fields of curtilage?
Q2) When does an individual lose their expectation of privacy in rental property?
Q3) Whether consent is voluntary is a question of fact to be determined by the _____________________.
A)mental state at the time
B)time of day or night
C)totality of the circumstances
D)credibility of the person in control of the property
Q4) Denial of ____________ can result in abandonment.
Q5) If a person validly and voluntarily _____________ their property, they give up all Fourth Amendment protection for that property.
Q6) ____________ fields have less Fourth Amendment protection than the home.
Q7) The area directly around the home (e.g.yard) is called the
A)interior open field.
B)home extension.
C)curtilage.
D)home exterior.

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Q1) To validly search vehicles at border crossings, federal agents
A)must have probable cause.
B)must have reasonable suspicion.
C)must have a search warrant.
D)are not required to have any warrants or individualized suspicion.
Q2) Searches of public school students by school officials on school grounds usually only require _____________ suspicion.
Q3) Security screenings and seizures of items cannot occur without warrants or probable cause at A)airports.
B)courthouses.
C)public buildings.
D)private functions.
Q4) Public schools may randomly drug test student _____________.
Q5) ____________ roadblocks, which encourage people to throw drugs out of their vehicles, have been upheld by the courts.
Q6) The courts have approved both ___________ and reasonable suspicion drug testing of peace officers.
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Q1) Miranda rights can be validly waived only after the suspect has had a chance to consult with an attorney.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Define and discuss the "14 day Rule".
Q3) Miranda v._________requirements were added to the law regardin interrogation.
A)Illinois.
B)Pennsylvania.
C)Montana.
D)Arizona.
Q4) Any statement or conduct from which guilt of the crime can be inferred is called a/an?
A)perjury
B)confession
C)incriminating statement
D)accomplice
Q5) Miranda requires that suspects be informed of the subject of the interrogation before the interrogation begins.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The National Institute of Justice reports that over 75,000 individuals annually go to trial based on eyewitness testimony.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to the 2008 Columbia Law Review article entitled "Judging Innocence", the leading cause of wrongful convictions was due to:
A)Jury nullification
B)Mistakes made by judges.
C)Public defenders being unprepared.
D)Erroneous identification by eyewitnesses.
Q3) The New Jersey Court established procedures to be followed at a pre-trial hearing to determine if eyewitness identifications are admissible.List these procedures.
Q4) If a criminal prosecution has begun, the defendant has a constitutional right to ____________ at a lineup.
A)have an attorney present
B)cross-examine the witnesses
C)select the other participants
D)have the lineup videotaped
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Q1) Law officers cannot focus on a specific neighbourhood only because of its _______ makeup.
Q2) In a suppression hearing brought by the defendant, the ________ has the burden of demonstrating that an exception to the warrant requirement covers any particular warrantless search or seizure.
Q3) Warrantless searches and seizures inside a home are presumptively (generally) unreasonable under the Fourth Amendment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An arrest warrant confers a limited authority to enter the dwelling in which the suspect resides when there is reason to believe the suspect is inside.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Fourth Amendment only prohibits ____________ searches and seizures.
A)unreasonable
B)evidence-gathering
C)searches on less than a compelling necessity
D)warrantless
Q6) At a minimum, stop and frisk require that the officer have __________ suspicion.
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Q1) In general, a person's computer has the least Fourth Amendment protection
A)if it is a government owned computer in a government workplace.
B)if the computer is used for commercial purposes.(if the computer is in a home and in plain view)
C)if the computer is portable.
D)if the computer is used in a movable vehicle.
Q2) Although illegal child pornography is one of the fastest-growing businesses on the Internet, most of the illegal websites are _________.
A)run by hackers
B)overseas
C)secured by firewalls
D)free
Q3) Most cyber evidence is used to help reveal crimes against A)children.
B)elderly.
C)businesses.
D)homeowners.

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Q4) A warrant that excuses the usual knock, announce, and wait requirements for execution is called a _____________ warrant.
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Q1) Using bite marks as evidence is most often done in cases of A)homicide.
B)fighting.
C)kidnapping. D)robbery.
Q2) If police arrive at the scene and detect a murder, they may make a quick sweep through the building to see if the offenders could be hiding there. A)True
B)False
Q3) To have standing and challenge the manner in which police obtained evidence from a crime scene, a ________must show that he or she had a legitimate expectation of privacy in the crime scene.
Q4) Discuss hot pursuit entry into private premises.Incorporate Warden, MD.Penitentiary v.Hayden and U.S.v Santana in your discussion.Do you agree with the court decisions? Why or why not?
Q5) The USA _______ACT of 2001 expanded the authority of government to use many of these measures in combating terrorism.
Q6) Fingerprints are ____________ (rather than direct) evidence of guilt. Page 18
Q7) The term "__________" means having a legal right to raise a legal issue.
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Q1) A copy of a document is never admissible, only the original is.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The U.S.Supreme Court has stated that the privilege against self-incrimination adheres to the ___________ and not to the information.
A)person
B)prosecution
C)victim
D)witness
Q3) The best evidence rule is also known as the ____________ document rule.
Q4) The privilege against self-incrimination adheres to the suspect, not the information.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ancient documents rule applies only to documents 100 years of age or older.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Videotaping may be conducted in places where the people being filmed do not have a _____________expectation of privacy.
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Q1) Rule ___ has already resulted in changes in how scientific evidence is received.
A)702
B)609
C)100
D)169
Q2) DNA is an acronym for Disulfide acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the Supreme Court in the Daubert decision, what are the five factors trial courts should assess to determine scientific validity of a scientific theory or technique?
Q4) CODIS is the FBI's national DNA database.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Requiring convicted felons to give blood samples for DNA databases violates the Fourth Amendment.
A)True B)False
Q6) In some cases, court may take ________________ of the validity of underlying scientific theories and techniques.
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