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Law and Society explores the complex relationship between legal systems and the social environments in which they operate. The course examines how laws are shaped by cultural, political, and economic forces, and in turn, how legal institutions influence social behavior and address issues such as inequality, justice, and social change. Students will engage with key theoretical perspectives, analyze real-world case studies, and consider the roles of actors such as judges, lawmakers, and citizens in producing and interpreting law. Through interdisciplinary approaches, the course encourages critical thinking about the impact of law on societal development and the ongoing debates surrounding legal reform.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Law 5th Edition by Joanne B. Hames
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Q1) The philosophical theory of law that holds that law reflects the moral and unchangeable laws of nature is known as the _____ theory of law.
Answer: natural
Q2) What is a type of law that regulates many religious organizations?
A) Statutory law
B) Canon law
C) Constitutional law
D) Case law
Answer: B
Q3) Whether a law is criminal or civil is one way that laws are categorized.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) In a criminal case, the plaintiff is usually the victim of a crime.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) The legal system based primarily on written constitutions and written laws or codes is known as a _____ system.
Answer: civil law
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Q1) Explain the concept of federalism.
Answer: In the United States, government operates under a principle called federalism. Two separate governments, federal and state, regulate citizens. The federal government has limited power over all fifty states. State governments have power to regulate within their state boundaries. State powers are also limited in the sense that states cannot make laws that conflict with the laws of the federal government.
Q2) The federal government consists of three branches-executive, legislative, and _____- with each branch having separate and distinct powers.
Answer: judicial
Q3) In the United States, government operates under federalism where both the federal and state regulate citizens.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) When both state and federal governments have the right to regulate an area, those governments have _____jurisdiction.
Answer: concurrent
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Q1) The court employee who assists the court and the judge by filing documents, marking and safeguarding evidence, reviewing documents that are submitted to the judge, and performing other similar tasks is known as a court _____.
Answer: clerk
Q2) To request a hearing in the U.S. Supreme Court, a party often files:
A) a complaint.
B) an appeal.
C) a petition for a writ of certiorari.
D) a petition for a hearing.
E) None of the above Answer: C
Q3) U.S. District Courts handle all bankruptcy court proceedings.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The U.S. Court of Appeals is primarily a court of original jurisdiction.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Q1) Case law is a collection of reported cases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cases published by Thomson-Reuters/West (Westlaw) have _____ numbers that can be looked up in a digest to locate other cases that involve the same topic.
Q3) The Pacific Reporter, a set of published volumes of cases by courts in a specific region of the United States, is known as a regional ______.
Q4) Statutes are laws enacted by the legislature.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A legal encyclopedia is arranged _____.
Q6) Case law contains each of the following components: facts, judicial history, issues, and ______.
Q7) Secondary sources explain the law and aid in finding the law.
A)True
B)False
Q8) State court cases are published in state and regional reporters.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Trial briefs, points and authorities in support of motions, declarations, and demand letters are examples of documents that must be _______.
Q2) Which section of a legal memorandum contains a short and concise answer to the question raised in the issue statement?
A) Facts
B) Issue statement
C) Discussion/analysis
D) Conclusion
Q3) In preparing a first draft of a legal document, you should:
A) reread the directions.
B) begin in a logical fashion.
C) complete one section before moving on to another section.
D) periodically go back and reread directions.
E) All of the above
Q4) A legal ____ is an informal interoffice document written to communicate the results of legal research and the resulting legal analysis.
Q5) When assigned to draft a case brief, what questions would you ask the supervising attorney at the outset of the project?
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Q1) Freedom of speech protects only political speech; it does not include speech such as advertising.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Equal Protection Clause:
A) has always been held to prohibit the practice of separate but equal.
B) prohibits a school from considering race in its admissions policies.
C) is found in the 14th Amendment.
D) All of the above
Q3) The power of judicial review:
A) is part of the system of separation of powers.
B) was first recognized in the case of Marbury v. Madison.
C) is expressly found in the original articles of the Constitution.
D) was first recognized in the case of Brown v. Board. of Education.
Q4) What did the U.S. Supreme Court decide in Griswold v. Connecticut (1965)?
Q5) The original U.S. Constitution ratified in 1789 included the power to impose an individual income.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The first ten amendments to the U.S. Constitution are known as the ______.
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Q1) Vicarious liability is also known as respondeat superior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Punitive damages are always recovered in negligence cases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which government agency created in the early 1970s works to protect health and safeguard the natural environment and sets and enforces national standards that must be met by businesses that impact the environment?
A) Environmental Protection Act
B) U.S. Department of State
C) Occupational Safety and Health Administration
D) U.S. Department of Justice
Q4) Defamation involves the unprivileged publication of a factual statement that is untrue and injurious or defamatory to a person's reputation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) ______ is an intentional harmful or offensive contact or touching of another.
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Q1) Once a court determines that a parent-child relationship exists, it must consider:
A) child support.
B) spousal support.
C) property issues.
D) whether restraining orders are needed.
E) income and expense situation for each party.
Q2) A premarital agreement may help to protect the assets of persons who plan to marry.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of discovery tool would a party use to request copies of W-2s and retirement account statements?
A) Deposition
B) Interrogatories
C) Request for production of documents
D) Request for admissions
Q4) Property acquired by gift or inheritance is considered _______ property.
Q5) The person whose testimony is given under oath during a deposition is known as the
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Q1) An addition or change to a will that does not contain the entire will is called a(n)
Q2) Which clause in a will comes just before the testator's signature and the date?
A) Disinheritance clause
B) Testimonium clause
C) Opening clause
D) Exordium clause
Q3) The settlor is the person who creates an express trust.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An implied trust is often called an involuntary trust.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most common types of express trusts are living trusts and _______ trusts.
Q6) What type of will is oral will be made by one on his or her deathbed?
A) Formal
B) Holographic
C) Nuncupative
D) Statutory will
Q7) Wills fall into three broad categories: formal,_____, and nuncupative.
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Q1) What is a court order requiring one party to fulfill his or her obligations under a contract?
A) Specific performance
B) Mirror image rule
C) Delegation
D) Unlawful detainer
Q2) The parol evidence rule limits the types of evidence that be used to prove terms of an agreement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Co-ownership of property characterized by a right of survivorship is called
Q4) Certain types of intellectual property have fixed duration while other types of intellectual property, such as trademarks and trade secrets, can receive protection indefinitely while still in use and efforts are made to protect the rights. Why do you think that some types of intellectual property have a fixed duration while others have perpetual duration?
Q5) The most common remedy for breach of contract is an injunction.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Equity securities are:
A) loans taken out by the corporation.
B) only owned by shareholders in public corporations.
C) only owned by shareholders in close corporations.
D) usually in the form of shares of stock for a corporation.
E) always regulated by the federal government.
Q2) A non-profit corporation:
A) cannot generate any income.
B) always has tax exempt status.
C) cannot distribute any profit to its members.
D) Both b and c
E) All of the above
Q3) In a limited liability company the individuals who own the company are generally not personally liable for the company debts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A general partnership always has a managing partner.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ______ are the internal rules and regulations for a corporation.
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Q1) Disclosure requires that each party disclose the following information to the other after filing a lawsuit:
A) identity of persons who have relevant information.
B) description of relevant documents.
C) computation of damages.
D) identity and qualifications of potential expert witnesses.
E) All of the above
Q2) Why do think so few civil lawsuits end up going to trial?
Q3) Plaintiffs are required to use licensed process servers to serve complaints.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The authority of the federal courts to hear trials is known as original jurisdiction. A)True B)False
Q5) Diversity of citizenship means that one party is not a resident of the United States. A)True
B)False
Q6) The two most common pleadings are the complaint and the ______.
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Q1) Early neutral ________ is a proceeding that takes place early in a civil case in which the disputing parties meet with a neutral person who evaluates the case in an attempt to settle the dispute.
Q2) What is the process in which the parties discuss and negotiate the issues in dispute with the assistance of a neutral person?
A) Mediation
B) Arbitration
C) Mini-trial
D) Summary trial
Q3) All arbitrators and mediators must have ______ and not have any bias.
Q4) What is the name of the uniform law authorizing the enforceability of arbitration agreements and describing procedures to be used?
A) Uniform Arbitration Act
B) Federal Arbitration Act
C) Federal Alternative Dispute Resolution Act
D) Federal Mediation Act
Q5) The form of arbitration in which the parties are not obligated to accept the arbitrator's decision is ________ arbitration.
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Q1) What crime is the placing of another in apprehension or fear of an imminent battery?
A) Assault
B) Battery
C) False imprisonment
D) Invasion of privacy
Q2) In California, the equivalent of a sentencing in criminal court for adults is a _______ hearing in juvenile court.
Q3) In the 2002 film Minority Report starring Tom Cruise, a specialized police department apprehends criminals based on foreknowledge provided by three psychics called "precogs" before the persons actually commit crimes. What problems exist with a police department that focuses on apprehending individuals before they actually commit crimes?
Q4) Double jeopardy prevents a juvenile from being tried as an adult, after going through a jurisdictional hearing in juvenile court.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The mental element of a crime is known as the _________.
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Q6) Compare and contrast assault and battery.
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Q1) The purpose of the initial appearance is to establish that probable cause exists.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What must be established before a warrant may be issued?
A) Guilt
B) Witnesses exist
C) Evidence exists
D) An informant exists
E) Probable cause
Q3) The Fifth Amendment contains the due process clause.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An affidavit is:
A) a sworn statement by a police office.
B) a sworn statement by the defendant.
C) a statement made in open court and then printed for the record.
D) a non-oral statement of facts that is confirmed by oath or affirmation.
E) None of the above
Q5) Explain the purpose of the initial appearance of a defendant.
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Q1) Hearsay is admissible as long as the truth of the statement can be determined.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Circumstantial evidence provides the jury with information from which _______ may be drawn.
Q3) There are four types of witnesses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A common tool used to attack the credibility of a witness is ________.
Q5) Hearsay is only admissible when:
A) two or more persons heard the statement.
B) the witness is credible.
C) the prosecutor asks the court to allow the statements.
D) there were no exigent circumstances.
E) None of the above
Q6) Evidence is either direct or circumstantial.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Martha saw a woman slip and fall at a grocery store. Martha testified what she saw in court for the plaintiff. Martha is a(n) __________ witness.
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Q1) If it appears that there is a bias or other legitimate reason that a person cannot sit as a juror:
A) that person will be excused for cause.
B) that person will be excused with a peremptory challenge.
C) the judge will ask the potential juror to leave the courtroom.
D) the attorneys will discuss the person and make a recommendation to the court.
Q2) What is the purpose of a closing argument?
Q3) The court ________ assigns exhibit numbers, labels the evidence, and assists the judge as the need arises during the trial.
Q4) The _________ argument is given just prior to the judge instructing the jury.
Q5) The process of questioning the jury to determine their suitability to serve on a jury panel is known as _________.
Q6) Who has the burden of proof in a civil case?
A) The plaintiff
B) The defendant
C) The judge
D) The jury
Q7) The civil standard of a preponderance of the evidence is a ______ standard of proof than beyond a reasonable doubt.
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