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Law and Society examines the complex relationships between legal systems, social norms, and institutions across different cultures and historical periods. The course explores how laws both shape and reflect societal values, addressing issues such as inequality, justice, power dynamics, and social change. By analyzing case studies, theoretical frameworks, and contemporary legal controversies, students gain a deeper understanding of how legal mechanisms influence daily life and how social forces drive the evolution of laws. This interdisciplinary course draws on perspectives from sociology, political science, history, and anthropology to critically assess the role of law in promoting or challenging social order and justice.
Recommended Textbook Criminal Procedure 3rd Edition by Matthew Lippman
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Q1) The American criminal trial process, in which two opposing sides argue against one another, is known as a/an _____ process.
Answer: adversarial
Q2) A decision is made by the State Supreme Court of New York, located in New York City. The precedent established by that court applies to _____.
A)New York City
B)New York state
C)the circuit in which New York is located
D)the entire country
Answer: D
Q3) A criminal trial not held before a jury is known as a/an _____.
A)petty trial
B)statutory trial
C)bench trial
D)unconstitutional trial
Answer: C
Q4) The motion for postconviction relief, requesting information on why a person is being held in incarceration, is known as _____.
Answer: habeas corpus
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Q1) Each of the following amendments have been incorporated at least partially except which?
A)Second
B)Third
C)Sixth
D)Eighth
Answer: B
Q2) Explain the basic arguments for those on both sides of debate over the nationalization/constitutionalization of criminal procedure. Then pick one side of the argument and support it.
Answer: Students should mention some advantages and disadvantages to having a uniform system.
Q3) The U.S. Supreme Court traditionally acted in a very narrow, limited capacity so as to prevent itself from becoming or being seen as a "super legislator."
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The first 10 amendments to the U.S. Constitution are known as the _____. Answer: Bill of Rights
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Q1) In old England, general warrants were used to search _____.
A)certain places regarding a certain crime
B)certain places and people regarding a certain crime
C)any place regarding a certain crime
D)any place for any reason at any time
Answer: D
Q2) For an officer to seize an item via the plain view doctrine, it must be _____ that the object is evidence of criminality.
A)"immediately apparent"
B)"readily apparent"
C)"patently obvious"
D)"reasonably obvious"
Answer: A
Q3) Overturning the old standard, the U.S. Supreme Court adopted which new Fourth Amendment test in Katz v. United States?
A)Two-pronged "reasonableness test"
B)Expectation of privacy test
C)Physical trespass test
D)The average reasonable person (TARP) test
Answer: B
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Q1) Profiles tend to be based on careful analyses of the behavior of known criminals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Secondhand information, such as that from an informant, eyewitness, or victim, is also known as a _____ report.
Q3) In addition to weapons, what other type of item can be seized during a frisk?
A)Contraband
B)Narcotics
C)Wallets
D)Electronics
Q4) Police are required to corroborate at least some of the information provided by an informant before acting on the tip.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the role of ethnicity and religion in reasonable suspicion.
Q6) What is a major limitation to the seizure of narcotics under the plain feel doctrine?
Q7) The level of proof necessary to conduct a stop and frisk is _____.
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Q1) Several state legislatures have passed laws loosening the requirements for warrantless arrests for misdemeanors, allowing a warrantless arrest even the officer did not necessarily observe the offense. Which of the following offenses is most likely to fall into this category of exceptions?
A)Jaywalking
B)Shoplifting
C)Vagrancy
D)Public urination
Q2) Which of the following is not one form (or classification) of an arrest?
A)Formal arrest
B)Informal arrest
C)Custodial arrest
D)De facto arrest
Q3) The original standard in the U.S. regarding deadly force was known as the _____.
A)reasonable force rule
B)fleeing-felon rule
C)dangerous felon rule
D)public safety rule
Q4) When/why is a warrant unnecessary for the public arrest of individuals?
Q5) It is that the magistrate issues a warrant be both _____ and _____.
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Q1) What is the purpose of an inventory, and why is warrant not required in order for one to be conducted?
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the standard justifications for allowing a warrantless search incident to arrest?
A)Maintain the safety of the officer
B)Maintain the safety of the suspect
C)Prevent the suspect from fleeing
D)Prevent the concealment of evidence
Q3) When arresting a suspect for a misdemeanor, the officer must have reasonable suspicion to believe the suspect is dangerous to conduct a search incident to arrest.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Inventories often are categorized as "_____" searches, as they are undertaken for an administrative purpose and not to investigate a criminal offense.
Q5) Explain when it is reasonable for the police to break down the door to a home.
Q6) Explain the concept and justifications for warrantless searches incident to arrest. How does this concept apply to automobiles? What can and cannot be searched in an automobile? Why?
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Q1) Explain the evolution of the Court's approach to the rights of prisoners in correctional institutions ranging from the "hands-off" approach to Holt v. Hobbs.
Q2) Prisoners retain only those constitutional rights that are not "incompatible with the objectives of incarceration."
A)True
B)False
Q3) Students are allowed their _____ Amendment rights as long as they do not substantially disrupt the learning environment.
Q4) What is the level of proof required for workplace drug testing of police officers?
A)A preponderance of the evidence
B)Reasonable suspicion
C)Mere indication
D)None of the above
Q5) The U.S. Supreme Court has held that administrative warrants to search a house may be based on "_____."
Q6) Explain the various factors taken into consideration when courts evaluate the reasonableness of special-needs airline screening.
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Q1) The U.S. Supreme Court has held that when reading a suspect his/her Miranda rights, it is important that _____.
A)the police use the proper terminology as outline in Miranda
B)the police clearly inform the suspect of his/her rights
C)the police verify that the suspect completely understands these rights
D)the police at least attempt to convey the suspect his/her rights
Q2) Once a suspect has invoked his/her Miranda rights, police may continue questioning the suspect _____.
A)after 24 hours have passed
B)if the suspect initiates contact with the police
C)if the suspect's attorney refuses to meet with the suspect
D)only once an attorney is present
Q3) What is the difference between testimonial and nontestimonial evidence? Give examples of each.
Q4) In order to invoke the right to silence, a suspect must convey this to the officers _____.
A)in a "clear and unambiguous" manner
B)in a "manner reasonably understood" by officers
C)by refusing to speak at all
D)by requesting the presence of an attorney
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Q1) The Frye test is used to determine _____.
A)how well a scientific technique meshes with the defendant's rights
B)whether a scientific technique has been carried out by a sufficiently trained individual
C)whether a scientific technique is explained clearly enough to a jury
D)whether a scientific technique is sufficiently established and accepted
Q2) Which of the following is the primary cause of false convictions?
A)Blood-type tests from 1982 and earlier
B)Eyewitness misidentification
C)Jury racial bias
D)Faulty DNA tests
Q3) A suspect is to be granted the right to counsel at any "critical stage" of the criminal process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In order to educate jurors on the pitfalls of eyewitness identification, the courts have ruled to allow the defense to call expert witnesses to explain these concerns during a trial.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) According to the text, the exclusionary rule has led police departments to better train their officers and stress the importance of _____.
A)duty
B)oversight
C)professionalism
D)responsibility
Q2) Evidence obtained resulting from an unlawful search may be used if it can be shown more likely than not that the police would have eventually discovered the evidence in a similar condition by means of the _____ rule.
A)assured finding
B)imminent domain
C)inevitable discovery
D)unavoidable determination
Q3) The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that police may assume legislation to be constitutional unless there is probable cause to believe it is unconstitutional.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the process one might use to invoke the exclusionary rule.
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Q1) The mechanism by which widespread patterns of police misconduct are addressed is known as a/an _____.
A)arrangement for improved conduct
B)federal oversight commission
C)injunctive relief
D)pattern-or-practice decree
Q2) By what level of proof must the plaintiff demonstrate that the law enforcement officer committed the tort in a "willful or malicious fashion"?
A)Modified probable cause
B)Probable suspicion
C)By a preponderance of the evidence
D)Reasonable suspicion
Q3) Parole officers and probation officers are granted _____ from § 1983 suits.
Q4) What is the difference between absolute immunity and qualified immunity?
Q5) Prosecutors and judges are granted _____ from § 1983 suits.
Q6) The text discusses the 2015 Justice Department investigation of the Ferguson, MO, police force. What was found in the report? How do you think we can protect our communities from these types of activities in the future?
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Q1) The provision barring "excessive bail" is found in the _____.
A)Equal Protection Clause
B)Sixth Amendment
C)Seventh Amendment
D)Eighth Amendment
Q2) Supreme Court Justice Jackson observed that the _____ is likely the most powerful person in the criminal justice system.
Q3) While a defendant does have a right to counsel, he may not choose a specific lawyer. Why do you think this is? Do you think there would be fewer ineffective-assistance-of-counsel claims if defendants were able to choose specific counsel?
Q4) Explore the positives and negatives of the bail system and preventative detention. Do you agree or disagree that preventative detention should be utilized for individuals who pose flight risks? Who should determine which individuals are flight risks and what constitutes a flight risk?
Q5) An individual not held in pretrial detainment yet not required to post any monetary bail is said to have been released on _____.
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Q6) Explain what the presumption of regularity is and explore whether you feel it is accurate or antiquated.

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Q1) The text mentions four basic guidelines for jury venire: randomly select individuals, do not discriminate, obtain a fair cross-section, and exempt certain individuals. Explain why each of these steps is important. Does the final suggestion of exempting some not go against the policy of equality? Why or why not?
Q2) A grand jury indictment is required to possess all but which of the following?
A)The essential legal elements of the crime
B)Defendant's criminal intent
C)Defendant's criminal acts
D)Exculpatory evidence
Q3) If a grand jury agrees that there is sufficient evidence to charge a suspect, they return a _____.
A)criminal charge
B)positive indictment
C)true bill
D)verified account
Q4) What is the history of the double jeopardy clause and which three constitutional protections are involved? When does jeopardy attach in a jury trial, in a bench trial, and when a defendant enters a plea?
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Q1) An offender is convicted of burglary and sentenced to a facility where he is confined from society but also receives counseling and job training in an attempt to prevent him from committing the offense again. This is an example of which purpose of punishment?
A)Incapacitation
B)Rehabilitation
C)Restitution
D)Retribution
Q2) _____ is the purpose of punishment where punishment is used to remove offenders from society.
Q3) In order to order a new trial, an appellate court must have probable cause to suspect that the harm inflicted on the defendant adversely affected the verdict.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Defendants possess a due process right to a criminal appeal.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _____ is the purpose of punishment based on the concept of just deserts.
Q6) Explain the Three Strikes and You're Out Law and its unintended consequences.
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Q1) In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court hold that a U.S. citizen held abroad possessed the right to challenge his/her classification as an enemy combatant?
A)Boumediene v. Bush
B)Hamdan v. Rumsfeld
C)Hamdi v. Rumsfeld
D)Rasul v. Bush
Q2) In Hamdan v. Rumsfeld, the Supreme Court held that the military commissions possessed several flaws. What were they and why were they problematic?
Q3) The primary purpose of a FISA warrant must be to investigate a threat to national security or _____.
A)a threat of espionage
B)a threat of sedition
C)a threat of terrorism
D)a threat of treason
Q4) In order to issue a material witness warrant, the government must establish evidence of the subject's flight risk to a "near certainty."
A)True
B)False
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