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Law and Human Behavior explores the complex interactions between legal systems and human psychology. The course examines how laws are interpreted and applied in real-life situations, the psychological processes underlying legal decision-making, and the impact of legal institutions on individual and group behavior. Topics include the role of perception, memory, and cognition in witness testimony and jury decisions; the influence of social, cultural, and ethical factors on legal outcomes; and how individual differences affect compliance with laws. Through case studies and interdisciplinary research, students gain a deeper understanding of the relationship between law, society, and human conduct.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic Psychology 4th Edition by Joanna
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30 Chapters
927 Verified Questions
927 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2037 Page 2
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40501
Sample Questions
Q1) The "general acceptance test" relates to:
A)eyewitness recall
B)child witnesses
C)aggression and segregation in schools
D)suggestive questioning techniques
E)the admissibility of expert testimony
Answer: E
Q2) According to Hess (1987,1999),which of the following accurately represents a dimension along which law and psychology can be contrasted?
A)Law is idiographic while psychology is nomothetic.
B)Law is descriptive while psychology is prescriptive.
C)Law is proactive while psychology is reactive.
D)Law is academic while psychology is operational.
E)Law defines truth objectively while psychology defines truth subjectively.
Answer: A
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40502
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the Mohan criteria? Outline the four criteria and identify a potential problem with them.
Answer: a.The Mohan criteria are the Canadian criteria which outline factors that should be considered when determining the admissibility of expert testimony in court.The four criteria are:
-The evidence must be relevant.
-The evidence must be necessary for assisting the trier of fact (i.e.,it goes beyond the common understanding of court).
-The evidence must not violate any rules of exclusion (i.e.,it must not relate to whether a witness is telling the truth).
-The testimony must be provided by a qualified expert.
b.These criteria are potentially problematic as they are highly subject to the discretion of the judge and judges can sometimes be wrong (e.g.,the judge determines if the evidence actually goes beyond the common understanding of the jury).
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40503
Sample Questions
Q1) You are applying to be a police officer with the RCMP.Which of the following tests would you expect to be administered in order to measure your cognitive abilities?
A)IPI
B)the situational test
C)RPAT
D)KSA
E)MMPI
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is considered to be a serious problem with validation research in the area of police selection?
A)There is disagreement on how to best measure the performance of police officers.
B)There is no validity coefficient available for measuring predictive validity.
C)Indicators of on-the-job performance do not exist in the policing field.
D)Cognitive ability tests are characterised by relatively high validity coefficients.
E)Few police applicants have to go through the selection process.
Answer: A
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40504
Sample Questions
Q1) List four reasons why police discretion is necessary,as indicated by Sheehan and Cordner (1989).
Q2) In general,there are two stages involved in developing a valid police selection process.Name these stages and explain them briefly.
Q3) Name and describe two of the three most common types of police selection procedures.
Q4) Define "police discretion" and name three areas of policing in which discretion is often used.
Q5) What are the main conclusions from Butler and Hall's (2008)study of use of force using data from the Calgary Police Service?
Q6) Name four main sources of police stress and provide an example of each.
Q7) You are a police officer who has encountered a mentally ill person causing a disturbance.What are the three main options available to you in this situation? Identify a disadvantage associated with each.
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40505
Sample Questions
Q1) There are a number of potential problems with the Reid model of interrogation.These include which of the following?
A)The techniques included in the Reid model will rarely be approved of by the courts.
B)The Reid model incorrectly assumes that investigators can accurately detect when a suspect is lying.
C)The techniques used in the Reid model decrease the chance that people will falsely confess.
D)The Reid model increases the likelihood that interrogators will be biased when entering the interrogation stage of the process.
E)Both b and d
Q2) Which of the following is not part of the PEACE model of investigative interviewing used in England and Wales?
A)Planning and preparation
B)Engage and explain
C)Accuse
D)Closure
E)Evaluation
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40506
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the interrogation model that is most often taught to police officers in North America? Briefly describe the model's three stages.
Q2) What is the equation specified by Pinizzotto and Finkel (1990)that describes the process of criminal profiling? Define or explain each component of the equation.
Q3) Define what is meant by minimization and maximization techniques and provide one example of each technique.
Q4) What are the three main categories of false confessions proposed by Kassin and Wrightsman (1985)? Describe each and identify the circumstances under which each are likely to arise.
Q5) List five crime scene behaviours that are assumed to relate to organized offenders and five crime scene behaviours that are assumed to related to disorganized offenders.
Q6) List five background characteristics that are assumed to relate to organized offenders and five background characteristics that are assumed to related to disorganized offenders.
Q7) State four general criticisms of criminal profiling.
Q8) Define criminal profiling in general terms and provide four main goals of criminal profiling.
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60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40507
Sample Questions
Q1) What self-report questionnaire has been most widely utilized in studies of malingering by examining validity scales (i.e.,faking bad)?
A)Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)
B)Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2)
C)Trauma Symptom Inventory (TSI-2)
D)Test of Memory Malingering (TOMM)
E)NEO Five Factor Personality Inventory Revised (NEO-PI-R)
Q2) In laboratory studies of the accuracy of polygraph tests,it has been found that the Comparison Question Test is _______ effective at detecting ________ suspects,whereas the Concealed Information Test is ______ effective at detecting ________ suspects.
A)more,guilty / more,innocent
B)less,guilty / more,guilty
C)more,innocent / less,guilty
D)less,innocent / less,guilty
E)more,guilty / less,innocent
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40508
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe how event-related brain potentials (ERPs)have been used to detect deception.
Q2) Rogers (1990)describes three explanatory models of malingering.Name and define these three models.Which model is most highly supported?
Q3) Provide two verbal and two nonverbal cues (variables)demonstrated to be reliable indicators of deception.
Q4) What are the eight strategies that a person may employ when malingering identified by the Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)?
Q5) Provide four criticisms of the Comparison Question Test (CQT).
Q6) According to your text,what are the two key components of malingering? List four reasons why an individual might be motivated to malinger.
Q7) Describe the four phases of a Comparison Question Test (CQT).Make sure you identify the purpose of each phase.
Q8) What concern has been raised regarding use of brain-imaging evidence in court? Discuss research that has examined this concern.
Q9) Give two explanations for poor performance in deception detection.
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40509
Sample Questions
Q1) Alice was stabbed multiple times and is in critical condition in the hospital.The police detained a suspect leaving from the scene of the crime,and take the suspect to the hospital to see if Alice can identify him as the man who stabbed her.The police also are concerned that Alice might not make it through the night and want to get an ID as soon as possible.What type of lineup procedure is being used here?
A)a simultaneous lineup
B)a sequential lineup
C)a show up
D)a walk-by
E)an elimination lineup
Q2) Which component is not part of the enhanced cognitive interview?
A)rapport building
B)transfer of control
C)focused retrieval
D)direct questioning
E)witness-compatible questioning
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40510
Sample Questions
Q1) Distinguish between the cue-utilization hypothesis and the unusualness hypothesis as explanations for the weapon focus effect.
Q2) Describe the three major types of biases that have been found to increase false positives in lineup identifications.
Q3) Distinguish between a simultaneous and a sequential lineup.
Q4) State two difficulties with the use of hypnosis in the eyewitness context.
Q5) Distinguish between a system variable and an estimator variable as related to eyewitness research.Provide one example of each.
Q6) On the basis of the research you have read in the textbook,list five recommendations that you would make to police forces regarding how they should conduct police lineups.
Q7) Distinguish between recall versus recognition tests of memory as dependent variables in research.Describe how recall and recognition responses made by witnesses can be examined.
Q8) Define the misinformation effect within the context of eyewitness research.In addition,fully describe the three most common explanations for this effect
Q9) List the five reasons why photo lineups are more common than live lineups.
Page 12
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40511
Q1) In Leichtman and Ceci's Sam Stone study (1995),which condition led to the highest level of accuracy and which condition led to the lowest level of accuracy?
A)control condition - stereotype plus suggestion condition
B)stereotype condition - control condition
C)suggestion condition - stereotype condition
D)stereotype plus suggestion - control condition
E)There were no differences between the groups in accuracy level.
Q2) In a study by Brown and Pipe (2003),approximately how much information was reported by 6- to 9-year-olds trained with the narrative elaboration technique compared to the control condition without training on the technique?
A)half as much
B)twice as much
C)three times as much
D)four times as much
E)no difference in amount of information reported
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Distinguish between the incidence and the prevalence of child maltreatment.Provide an example of each.
Q2) Name and briefly describe the two directions that have been taken to understand children's greater propensity toward suggestibility when recalling events (Bruck & Ceci,1999).
Q3) What is Criterion-Based Content Analysis (CBCA)? Specify the assumption that underlies the CBCA and identify two potential problems with this method.
Q4) What is the narrative elaboration interview procedure? Describe how this procedure works and what the research on this procedure suggests in terms of its usefulness in interviewing children?
Q5) Describe the changes made to the competency inquiry with the enactment of Bill C-2 (2006).
Q6) Discuss the prevailing view regarding child witnesses from the 1600-1900s.Identify the four factors outlined by Ceci and Bruck (1993)that led to the renewed interest in child witnesses.
Q7) A number of changes were made to improve courtroom accommodations for child witnesses in Canada.List four of these changes.
Q8) Name and briefly explain the first five steps of the Step-Wise Interview.
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40513
Sample Questions
Q1) Research on the effects of pretrial publicity and juror decision-making by Ruva and colleagues has revealed that
A)only negative pretrial publicity influences verdicts
B)only positive pretrial publicity influences verdicts
C)both negative and positive pretrial publicity influences verdicts
D)verdicts are not influenced by this publicity as it is disregarded by jurors.
E)jurors are only selected if they have not been exposed to any publicity about the defendant.
Q2) In most Canadian trials,the defence and Crown are each allowed ___ peremptory challenges.
A)6
B)10
C)12
D)16
E)20
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40514
Sample Questions
Q1) List four functions of a jury.
Q2) List two proposed advantages and two proposed disadvantages associated with the asking of questions by jurors as a courtroom comprehension aid.
Q3) Besides the method of placing a ban on pretrial publicity,name and explain two other methods that courts can employ to increase the likelihood of jury impartiality.
Q4) What is meant by the juror characteristic of impartiality? What are two of the issues surrounding impartiality?
Q5) List four proposed reforms for judges' instructions aimed at facilitating juror understanding.
Q6) In the context of jury decision making,distinguish between the terms polarization,leniency bias,and black sheep effect.
Q7) List one advantage and one disadvantage of using simulation studies to investigate jury decision making.Briefly outline a simulation study to study the effects of victim characteristics in a sexual assault case on juror decision making.Make sure you clearly identify your independent variables (and/or person characteristics)and dependent variables.
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40515
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fitness instruments involves uncompleted sentences that the defendant must finish?
A)Fitness Interview Test-Revised (FIT-R)
B)Competency Screening Test (CST)
C)Competency to Stand Trial Assessment Instrument (CAI)
D)Interdisciplinary Fitness Interview (IFI)
E)MacArthur Competence Assessment Tool-Criminal Adjudication (MacCAT-CA)
Q2) According to research by Pirelli,Gottdiener,and Zapf (2011),defendants found unfit to stand trial are eight times more likely than fit defendants to:
A)have been previously incarcerated
B)have an extensive criminal background
C)suffer from a substance abuse disorder
D)meet the criteria for a psychotic disorder
E)all of the above
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40516
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the relationship between recidivism rates and offenders with mental disorders,as studied by Rice and Harris (1992)?
Q2) What are the three dispositions that can be made following a finding of NCRMD?
Q3) Distinguish between noninsane automatism and insane automatism.Discuss what dispositions are associated with each,and what circumstances have been recognized by Canadian courts in cases of noninsane automatism.
Q4) Name two of the three changes to legislation resulting from Brian's Law (Bill 68).
Q5) What are three explanations proposed by Bland et al.(1990)for the high rates of mental illness in offender populations in Canada?
Q6) In the context of a defendant found NCRMD,what are the four main criteria considered by courts and review boards when deciding a disposition? Explain the term capping and specify the consequence of capping for mentally ill offenders with respect to their dispositions.
Q7) What changes to how defendants found NCRMD are dealt with were proposed in Bill C-54 early in 2013?
Q8) What are the four main objectives of mental health courts?
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53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40517
Sample Questions
Q1) According to your textbook,which of the following is not a goal of sentencing in Canada?
A)providing reparations to victims
B)denouncing the act to society
C)aiding in the rehabilitation of the offender
D)ensuring that retribution is achieved
E)promoting a sense of responsibility in offenders
Q2) What is the most common procedure used to study sentencing disparity?
A)field studies
B)archival studies
C)simulation studies
D)use of official sentencing statistics
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not true concerning results found from public opinion surveys examining public attitudes toward sentencing and parole?
A)Canadians believe offenders are treated too harshly.
B)Canadians support alternatives to prison under certain circumstances.
C)Canadians have more confidence in the courts than they do in the police.
D)both a and c
E)both a and b
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40518
Sample Questions
Q1) Define the need principle,risk principle,and responsivity principle.
Q2) Discuss the difference in success rates and parole failures across offenders released on day and full parole relative to those granted statutory release.
Q3) Provide at least six of the factors that are available to be considered when the Parole Board of Canada assesses risk and parole options.
Q4) What is the Aboriginal overrepresentation problem in Canadian corrections? What factors contribute to this overrepresentation,and what measures have been taken in Canada to reduce this problem?
Q5) Many purposes of sentencing exist,including specific and general deterrence.State four additional purposes of sentencing.
Q6) What is unwarranted sentencing disparity? List and describe the two major sources of unwarranted sentencing disparity.
Q7) Identify and describe the five main sentencing options utilized in Canada.
Q8) Identify and describe the four major types of parole in Canada.
Q9) State the fundamental principle of sentencing as defined in Canada's Criminal Code.In addition,specify four other principles of sentencing.
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40519
Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately ________ of female offenders report experiencing severe physical abuse as a child or adolescent.
A)10%
B)40%
C)50%
D)70%
E)95%
Q2) In predicting violent acts,a ______________ is an incorrect prediction in which a person is predicted to be nonviolent but acts violently.
A)false positive
B)base rate
C)true positive
D)false negative
E)true negative
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the coping-relapse model of criminal recidivism proposed by Zamble and Quinsey (1997),including the four levels of the model that can lead to criminal behaviour.
Q2) Name at least four ways in which female offenders differ from male offenders.
Q3) Name and define the two components of the risk assessment process.
Q4) What is desistance and why is age related to declines in criminal offending? What interpersonal moderators also have been proposed to aid in the transition between criminal offending and desistance?
Q5) What was the main issue raised in the Baxstrom and Dixon cases/studies? What are the two key findings to emerge from this research?
Q6) Within the context of violence prediction,distinguish between a static risk factor,a dynamic risk factor,and a protective factor.Provide an example of each.
Q7) Using structured professional judgment,you wish to predict an offender's risk of violent recidivism (and not general recidivism).Of the assessment instruments described in your textbook,which one would you likely use? Provide a brief description of your chosen instrument.
Q8) Identify and explain the three main weaknesses of research on the prediction of violence.
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55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40521
Sample Questions
Q1) Several studies have found that offenders who engage in ___________ violence score significantly higher on measures of psychopathy than do offenders who engage in ___________ violence.
A)reactive; premeditated
B)impulsive; reactive
C)instrumental; premeditated
D)reactive; instrumental
E)instrumental; reactive
Q2) Gerald is classified as a sexual offender and is considered to be a part of the sex offender group that has been found to have the lowest psychopathy scores.What type of sex offender is Gerald?
A)Sexual homicide offender
B)Mixed sexual offender
C)Child molester
D)Rapist
E)Exhibitionist
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Q1) Define psychopathy,Antisocial Personality Disorder,and sociopathy and give three examples of differences between these disorders.
Q2) Explain why most researchers believe psychopaths cannot be treated.Describe one well-known study that lends support for this notion.
Q3) Identify the ten myths associated with psychopathy.
Q4) Name and describe the most widely used assessment tool for measuring psychopathic traits in adults.
Q5) Describe the cognitive and affective models of psychopathy in terms of the two predominant theories about the development of psychopathy.
Q6) Explain how psychopaths differ from nonpsychopaths and more specifically how psychopaths' use of violence differs from nonpychopathic offenders.
Q7) List the five recommendations identified by Quayle (2008)to use when interviewing a psychopathic suspect.
Q8) Name and describe different study designs used involving twins and siblings when trying to isolate the effect of genes or environment on psychopathic traits.
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55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40523
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered one of the greatest school and social factors in risk for reoffending amongst youth?
A)Having trouble reading
B)Children with early CD symptoms
C)Social rejection
D)Being a member of a gang
E)Low intelligence
Q2) Prior to commencing a court-ordered assessment of a child or adolescent,a clinician must legally:
A)obtain consent from the youth's parents or guardians
B)obtain consent from the youth
C)obtain assent from the youth
D)obtain consent from the youth's lawyer
E)court-ordered assessments do not legally require consent or assent.
Q3) Which diagnosis is often a precursor to antisocial personality disorder?
A)attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
B)oppositional defiant disorder
C)conduct disorder
D)depression
E)anxiety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name the two types of adolescent offenders described by Moffitt.Provide two characteristics associated with each type of adolescent offender.
Q2) State three main objectives of the Youth Criminal Justice Act.
Q3) Name the three childhood psychiatric disorders that occur with frequency in young offenders.Provide two characteristics of each.
Q4) Describe the Offender Risk Assessment and Management System,including the two scales that are used within this system to assess risk with young offenders.
Q5) Describe primary,secondary,and tertiary intervention strategies.Describe an example of each strategy.
Q6) Three childhood psychiatric diagnoses occur with some frequency in young offenders.Identify the three disorders,describe each,and discuss the relationship between these disorders (i.e.,is diagnosis with one type likely to result in the diagnosis with another?).
Q7) Describe the difference between internalizing problems and externalizing problems.Provide examples of each and identify which is more difficult to treat.
Q8) Define "resilient" and identify four ways that protective factors are effective.
Q9) Provide three criticisms of the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA).
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Q1) The most recent Canadian survey on intimate partner violence conducted by Statistics Canada reported that:
A)men experienced more acts of forced sexual assault than women
B)women were more likely to have been pushed or shoved than men
C)women were more likely to have been kicked,bit,or hit than men
D)men were more likely to be threatened with a weapon than women
E)men were more likely to have been hit with an object than women
Q2) In evaluating the Family Violence Prevention Programs,Stewart,Gabora,Kropp,and Lee (2005)found that:
A)the programs did not affect participants' level of jealousy
B)treatment completers had more negative attitudes about relationships
C)treatment completers had lower levels of empathy
D)participants felt that the programs were useless
E)treatment completers were less likely to be arrested for spousal assault after six months
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Q1) Kropp,Hart,and Lyon (2002)have formulated a typology that classifies stalkers into four categories based on their relationships with their victims.Name and describe the key characteristics of all four categories.
Q2) The National Family Violence Prevention Programs developed by the Correctional Service of Canada contain 6 components.Name and briefly describe each of these,and discuss which component has been associated with the best treatment outcomes in research.
Q3) Name and briefly describe the three-phase cycle of abuse proposed by Lenore Walker (1979).Discuss what happens at each phase.
Q4) Name and briefly describe the levels that influence intimate violence in the nested ecological model proposed by Dutton (1995).Provide one example for each level.
Q5) Holtzworth-Munroe and Stuart (1994)developed a typology of male batterers based on the severity of violence,generality of violence,and personality disorder characteristics.Name and define each of the three types of batterers.
Q6) Identify and explain the two most common forms of intervention for male batterers.According to the meta-analysis conducted by Babcock,Green,and Robie (2004),which is the most effective in terms of recidivism?
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40527
Sample Questions
Q1) With her husband Peter,Paula has engaged in sexual abuse against their own children as well as children that she provides daycare services for.Paula would most likely be classified as what type of female sexual offender?
A)male-accompanied
B)male-coerced
C)predisposed
D)teacher/lover
E)borderline/dysphoric
Q2) In a study by Olver,Stockdale,and Wormith (2011),treatment attrition in sexual offenders is related to all of the following variables except:
A)Denial
B)Negative treatment attitudes
C)Number of prior offences
D)Level of motivation
E)Affective disorders
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Q1) Describe the two main components of relapse prevention programs aimed at sexual offenders.In addition,distinguish between the terms lapse,relapse,and abstinence violation effect in the context of relapse prevention programs.
Q2) Describe the primary method used to assess deviant sexual interests,as well as two approaches used to treat deviant sexual interests.
Q3) List the four types of female sexual offenders identified by Atkinson (1996).Describe each in terms of their offending behaviour and their backgrounds.
Q4) Knight and Prentky (1990)developed the Revised Rapist Typology (MTC: R3)which consists of five primary subtypes of rapists.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's motivational differences.
Q5) According to Finkelhor's (1984)theory of child molesting,what are the four preconditions in order for sexual abuse to occur?
Q6) Groth (1979)proposed a threefold rapist typology.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's goals,the amount of force used,and the primary motivations.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40529
Sample Questions
Q1) Jared believes that he is going to lose his job,his family will be unable to afford to live their current lifestyle,doesn't see another way out,and doesn't want his family to suffer.After a particularly bad day at work,he goes home,kills his wife and 3 children,and then shoots himself.What type of murderer would Jared most accurately be classified as?
A)Instrumental killer
B)Despondent non-hostile killer
C)Reactive killer
D)Hostile accusatory killer
E)Goal oriented killer
Q2) In general,homicide represents approximately ____ percent of all crimes in Canada.
A)27
B)19
C)8
D)4
E)1
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Sample Questions
Q1) Holmes and Holmes (1998)proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers,with one being a hedonistic serial murderer.What motivates a hedonistic serial murderer? List the three subtypes of the hedonistic serial murderer and distinguish between them.
Q2) Describe the General Aggression Model (GAM),including the inputs,the internal states they influence,and behavioural outcomes.
Q3) Holmes and Holmes (1998)proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers.Describe the four major types of serial murderers and their motivations.
Q4) Distinguish between serial,mass,and spree murderers.Discuss the key elements that distinguish these types of multiple murderers from one another.
Q5) List four of the six key differences that were identified by Hickey (2006)between female and male serial murderers.
Q6) What are the four main types of homicide recognized by Canadian criminal law? Discuss the features of each including the definitions and penalties.
Q7) Differentiate between filicide,familicide,femicide,and mariticide.
Q8) Distinguish between a reactive and an instrumental homicide.
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