Law and Human Behavior Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the dynamic relationship between legal systems and human behavior, examining how laws influence individual and group actions and how psychological principles impact the creation, interpretation, and enforcement of laws. Students will investigate topics such as the psychological processes underlying decision-making in legal contexts, the reliability of eyewitness testimony, criminal responsibility, jury selection, and the role of expert witnesses. Through interdisciplinary analysis, the course provides insight into how social, cognitive, and behavioral sciences inform contemporary legal issues, policy-making, and judicial practices.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic and Legal Psychology Psychological Science Applied to Law 2nd Edition by Mark Costanzo
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Section 1: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) Compare and contrast the approaches of psychology and law. Which system is more open to change?
Answer: Main points:
Psychology and law represent two different cultures. They differ in goals (truth vs. justice), methods (data vs. rulings), and styles of inquiry (objectivity vs. advocacy).
Psychology as a science is based on relativism (of knowledge and theories).
Law as a system is rooted in the past (rulings, precedents).
Psychology is more egalitarian, law is a more hierarchical system.
Psychology is more open to change since science implies skepticism and new discoveries while law abides by past decisions (precedents).
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Chapter 1: Section 2: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) The knowledge and skills of clinical psychologists might be relevant for the legal system in which one of these cases?
A) When selecting jurors potentially sympathetic to the defendant.
B) When assessing a mentally ill defendant for potential risk of violence.
C) When deciding whether the eyewitness is able to remember the scene of crime.
D) When evaluating the state of mind of a teenager who brought guns to school.
Answer: B
Q2) Sam is a cognitive psychologist. What aspect of the legal process might he provide assistance with to the court?
A) Determining the general fairness of the legal system.
B) Advising at what age children are fully cognizant of their actions within the law.
C) Evaluating the defendant's competence to stand trial.
D) Clarifying whether jurors understand the instructions for deliberating a verdict.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 1: Section 3: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the four guidelines established by Daubert?
A) Falsifiability of the technique.
B) A known error rate.
C) General acceptance in the scientific community.
D) Review by appellate courts.
Answer: D
Q2) _____ tells us how people actually behave, whereas _____ tells us how people are supposed to behave.
A) Law; psychology
B) Psychology; law
C) Science; nature
D) Nature; science
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following scientists did NOT play a prominent role in the history of forensic psychology?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Alfred Adler
C) Hugo Münsterberg
D) Karl Llewellyn
Answer: B
Page 5
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Chapter 2: Section 1: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) Describe some common types of false confessions, reasons behind them, and police tactics that lead to a higher incidence of false confessions.
Q2) What has been the U.S. Supreme Court's position on the use of deception by police during interrogations? How does the use of this technique compare with the use of deception during interrogations in other countries, such as England and Wales? What are some worrisome moral implications of the use of deception by police during interrogations?
Q3) What are some possible reforms that can be implemented in police interrogation procedures to reduce the risk of false confessions?
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Chapter 2: Section 2: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) False confessions may occur as a result of:
A) intimidation.
B) deception.
C) fatigue.
D) All of these may lead to false confessions.
Q2) The purpose of exculpatory scenarios is to:
A) provide various possible reasons for the crime to have been committed.
B) increase probability of admission of guilt through offering a justification for actions.
C) reduce confusing circumstances, so an admission of guilt is easier to produce.
D) maximize the importance of the suspect's reason for committing the crime.
Q3) According to the textbook, police prefer a confession because:
A) interrogators have a chance to practice their skills.
B) confessions save time.
C) confessions guarantee a conviction in court.
D) suspects are relieved after admitting to crime.
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Chapter 2: Section 3: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) According to researchers, the most significant individual vulnerability in cases involving false confessions is:
A) mental illness.
B) youth.
C) old age.
D) physical disability.
Q2) In the United States, all of the following interrogation techniques are legal EXCEPT:
A) telling the suspect that he will get a reduced sentence if he confesses to the crime.
B) assembling a phony lineup and telling the suspect he was identified by a witness.
C) holding the suspect in a cell without visitors or phone calls for 16 days.
D) having an informant pose as an inmate to the suspect offering protection from other inmates for a confession.
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Chapter 3: Section 1: Lie Detection
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Q1) Discuss the limitations of fMRI studies in the detection of deception.
Q2) Discuss the scientific validity of the polygraph.
Q3) Compare and contrast the relevant-irrelevant test (RIT), the comparison question test (CQT), and the guilty knowledge test (GKT).
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Chapter 3: Section 2: Lie Detection
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Q1) According to the text, the "_____ hypothesis" posits that human intelligence was accelerated by the need for humans to develop social skills related to manipulation, pretense, and deception.
A) crystallized intelligence
B) fluid intelligence
C) Goleman's emotional intelligence
D) Machiavellian intelligence
Q2) The _____ shows a video image of the brain in action.
A) fMRI
B) MRI
C) CBCA
D) EEG
Q3) The comparison question test (CQT) posits that guilty individuals react more strongly to _____ questions, whereas innocent individuals react more strongly to _____ questions.
A) relevant; comparison
B) comparison; relevant
C) known; unknown
D) unknown; known
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Page 10
Chapter 3: Section 3: Lie Detection
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Q1) Police investigators who were surveyed believed they detect lies _____, whereas their actual lie-detecting ability compared with that of students was _____.
A) much better than average; worse
B) no better than average; higher
C) worse than most people; higher
D) at an average level; much worse
Q2) What type of error is committed when a guilty suspect is misclassified as innocent?
A) false negative
B) false positive
C) true negative
D) true positive
Q3) According to several studies available on the effect of polygraph evidence on jurors, they tend to:
A) disregard this evidence.
B) take this evidence seriously.
C) only trust this evidence if backed up by expert testimony.
D) only trust this evidence if two of more polygraph tests are in agreement.
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Q1) What type of influence do the CSI TV dramas have on jurors?
Q2) How does reliability differ from validity? Use examples to illustrate both.
Q3) How can error rate be reduced in forensic investigations?
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Chapter 4: Section 2: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace
Evidence
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Q1) A "simple match" statement:
A) uses statistical analysis.
B) applies probability categories.
C) defines specific features and their likelihood.
D) does not use statistical terms.
Q2) If the imprint came from an Adidas sneaker, it reflects _____; when the imprint has a unique pattern of wear and tear, it reflects _____.
A) individual characteristics; group characteristics
B) group characteristics; individual characteristics
C) a particular source; an origin source
D) an origin source; a particular source
Q3) Shelly testifies in court that the DNA recovered at the crime scene is likely to come from the suspect because less than 0.0001% of population have this specific genetic marker. This type of identification is called:
A) simple match.
B) match plus statistics.
C) qualitative statement.
D) inconclusive.
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Chapter 4: Section 3: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace Evidence
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Q1) Which of the following types of forensic identification evidence are ranked from the strongest to the weakest?
A) DNA, ballistic analysis, fingerprints.
B) Fingerprints, DNA, ballistic analysis.
C) DNA, fingerprints, ballistic analysis.
D) Ballistic analysis, DNA, fingerprints.
Q2) The largest DNA database system in the world is maintained by the:
A) INTERPOL.
B) FBI.
C) CIA.
D) Secret Service.
Q3) Which of the following refers to whether a technique measures what it is supposed to measure?
A) Validity.
B) Reliability.
C) Practicality.
D) Consistency.
14
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Chapter 5: Section 1: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) What is the purpose of a psychological autopsy and when would it be used?
Q2) Compare and contrast criminal profiling, geographic profiling, and behavioral investigative advice (BIA).
Q3) How is profiling used in criminal investigations? Is it effective?
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Chapter 5: Section 2: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) Alex is trying to figure out whether murders in three different states were committed by the same person. This process is referred to as:
A) case linkage.
B) psychological autopsy.
C) random speculation.
D) probative evidence.
Q2) The characteristics of serial killers seem to have _____ though there _____ common to all serial killers.
A) little similarity; are a few traits
B) some recurring patterns; are only two characteristics
C) a lot of similarities; are only two characteristics
D) some recurring patterns; are no characteristics
Q3) Most serial killers are _____ males of _____ intelligence.
A) African American; above average
B) African American; average
C) White; above average
D) White; average
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Page 16
Chapter 5: Section 3: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) Somebody has murdered a dark-haired pre-pubescent girl in the area last year and left her mutilated body near the train tracks. This year, another dark-haired girl of about the same age was murdered and her body left near the train tracks in the same general area. According to the textbook, can it be a serial killer's job?
A) Yes because there are enough similarities between the two cases.
B) Not conclusive because there were less than 3 cases with similarities.
C) Only if there is DNA evidence left on the scene of both crimes.
D) It is either a serial killer or a mass murderer.
Q2) A British study found that police detectives found profiling _____, and the profiles helped catch a perpetrator in _____ of the cases where profiles were developed.
A) helpful; the majority
B) not useful; none
C) helpful; a very small proportion
D) not useful; very few
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Chapter 6: Section 1: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) How effective is scientific jury selection?
Q2) Explain the voir dire process.
Q3) Explain how the role of money in trial consulting may affect trial outcomes. Are there any possible solutions to the problems you have identified?
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) In a high profile case, trial consultants are often hired. Trial consultants use a(n) _____ approach to jury selection.
A) data-driven
B) intuitive
C) experiential
D) parapsychological
Q2) Automatic exemptions, for such things as being the primary caretaker for a child or having a serious health condition, might be granted, because serving on a jury would cause the potential juror:
A) undue hardship or inconvenience.
B) too much stress.
C) loss of salary.
D) undue hardship as a result of employment.
Q3) According to the Jury Selection and Service Act of 1968, the voter registration list is the "__________ source" of eligible jurors.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) only
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Studies testing the effectiveness of judge's instructions to the jury to disregard pretrial publicity have found:
A) no effect of such instructions on jurors' decision-making in passing a guilty verdict.
B) that jurors were able to completely ignore the media accounts they had been exposed to.
C) jurors able to disregard pretrial publicity in civil cases only.
D) jurors able to disregard pretrial publicity in murder cases only.
Q2) Iris works as a trial consultant. The majority of cases she is likely to be hired for are:
A) criminal trials.
B) civil trials.
C) capital trials.
D) cases involving the government.
Q3) An attorney may use a peremptory challenge to:
A) dismiss a potential juror because of bias or prejudice.
B) dismiss a potential juror without giving a reason.
C) request a change of venue or a retrial.
D) find evidence inadmissible at trial.
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Page 20
Chapter 7: Section 1: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) How does human memory operate? How is it different from a video recording? If people are sure they remember the situation well, does it mean their memories are more accurate than memories of those who are not as sure?
Q2) Describe three research findings regarding improving eyewitness accuracy.
Q3) Describe the post-identification feedback effect and give an example. What is the role of cognitive dissonance in this process?
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) _____ is the part of the memory process that involves accessing and pulling out stored information at a later time.
A) Storage
B) Retrieval
C) Encoding
D) Priming
Q2) Wrongful convictions have been shown to result from faulty eyewitness testimony _____ from any other type of evidence.
A) less frequently than B) as often as
C) more often than
D) None of the above is correct.
Q3) According to psychologists, memory is a _____-part component process.
A) two
B) three C) four
D) five
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Page 22
Chapter 7: Section 3: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Elizabeth Loftus (1984) examined 347 cases in which _____ was eyewitness testimony and found that the defendant was _____.
A) the only evidence; acquitted in most cases
B) the only evidence missing; convicted in most cases
C) the only evidence; convicted in most cases
D) the only evidence missing; acquitted in most cases
Q2) Cutler, Penrod, and Dexter (1990) conducted several experiments exposing mock jurors to expert testimony about the accuracy of eyewitnesses. The authors of this study found that participants who were NOT exposed to the expert testimony:
A) underestimated the accuracy of eyewitnesses.
B) tended to side with the prosecution.
C) overestimated the accuracy of eyewitnesses.
D) tended to side with the defense.
Q3) To improve eyewitness accuracy, social scientists can assist the legal system in improving _____ variables.
A) dependent
B) system
C) predictor
D) estimator
Page 23
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Chapter 8: Section 1: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) What does research show about the competencies of children and adolescents? Should there be specific requirements for competency to stand trial for juveniles as different from the ones for adults?
Q2) Explain what is malingering and why some defendants might be compelled to resort to it. Would it be in their best interests? Why or why not?
Q3) Explain why competency to stand trial (CST) is a legal and not a psychological term. What are the key elements of CST?
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Chapter 8: Section 2: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) When requested to perform assessment of competence, clinicians:
A) are bound by law to use the same methods of evaluation on everyone they assess.
B) generally utilize techniques familiar to them based on training and experience.
C) utilize the most recent assessment techniques.
D) only use those assessments that opposing experts use.
Q2) If restoration to competence cannot be accomplished, proceedings may be held to issue a(n):
A) voluntary civil commitment.
B) involuntary criminal commitment.
C) voluntary criminal commitment.
D) involuntary civil commitment.
Q3) According to research (Grisso et al., 2003), when it comes to competency to stand trial, at approximately age _____, the differences between young offenders and those aged 18 to 24 disappear.
A) 12
B) 14
C) 15
D) 16
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Chapter 8: Section 3: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) In the case of Indiana v. Edwards (2008), the Supreme Court held that:
A) incompetent defendants could not be held without trial more than a reasonable amount of time.
B) a defendant could be medicated against his or her will without a court hearing.
C) there is a higher standard for a mentally ill individual to waive counsel than the CST standard.
D) the presence of mental disorder or intellectual disability is equated with incompetence.
Q2) Competency to stand trial refers to the psychological state of the defendant:
A) at the time of the crime.
B) during pre-trial proceedings.
C) at the time of sentencing.
D) at the time of trial.
Q3) Regarding defendants judged to be incompetent to stand trial, which of the following is FALSE?
A) They tend to be charged with more serious crimes.
B) They have a history of drug abuse.
C) They show symptoms of current mental illness.
D) They have a history of mental health treatment.
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Page 26
Chapter 9: Section 1: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) How do jurors view the insanity defense?
Q2) Why is it difficult to evaluate insanity? What factors make it different from the evaluation of competency to stand trial?
Q3) What major changes were instituted to the insanity defense after the trial of John Hinckley?
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) Research completed by Rita Simon (1967) found that, when different sets of jurors were given different definitions of insanity based on legal terminology, there was:
A) no impact on their verdicts.
B) some impact on their verdicts.
C) a great deal of difference in their verdicts.
D) None of the above have happened.
Q2) Today, there is general agreement that committing a criminal act without a guilty mind is:
A) enough to convict.
B) not enough to convict.
C) a way to deter crime.
D) retribution.
Q3) The psychiatric illnesses most commonly associated with successful insanity pleas include:
A) intellectual disability and neuroses.
B) psychosis and anxiety disorders.
C) psychosis and intellectual disability.
D) mood disorders and gender confusion disorder.
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Chapter 9: Section 3: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) In legal terminology, the guilty mind that must accompany the wrongful behavior is known as:
A) actus reas.
B) habeas corpus.
C) mens rea.
D) the Magna Carta.
Q2) Which definition of insanity includes both a cognitive prong and a volitional prong?
A) Durham test
B) "wild beast" test
C) M'Naghten rule
D) ALI standard
Q3) Which famous case prompted shifting the burden of proof of insanity from prosecution to defense?
A) Durham
B) Hinckley
C) M'Naghten
D) Smith
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Chapter 10: Section 1: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) What are the advantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q2) What are the disadvantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q3) What are rape shield laws and when do they not apply in court? Can expert testimony be problematic in this regard?
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Chapter 10: Section 2: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) The text indicates that one possible useful application of batterer typology is to:
A) develop targeted interventions.
B) engage victim advocacy groups.
C) write a self-help manual for victims.
D) None of the above are useful applications.
Q2) Judicial nullification instruction can best be described as an instruction that lets jurors know that they can _____ a strict interpretation of the law if that legal interpretation would result in an unjust verdict.
A) only follow
B) disregard
C) pursue
D) summarize
Q3) Hypervigilance can best be described as:
A) heightened attentiveness to the abuser's subtle behaviors.
B) lessened attentiveness to the victim's needs.
C) heightened sense of urgency to take action against the abuser.
D) lessened sense of self-worth.
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Chapter 10: Section 3: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) According to the text, the original study of battered women by Dr. Walker was criticized for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:
A) not all women in her sample experienced all the hypothesized stages of the cycle of abuse.
B) a comparison group of non-battered women was absent from her study.
C) the experimenters who collected the data knew about the study hypotheses and could inadvertently influence the results.
D) the sample in her study was too small.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the common rape myths?
A) Most rapes are committed when both parties are drunk.
B) Most rapes are committed by strangers.
C) If a woman says she doesn't want to have sex, she doesn't really mean it.
D) It is impossible to rape a woman who is unwilling.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT commonly associated with rape trauma syndrome?
A) Depression.
B) Anxiety.
C) Self-blame.
D) Impulsivity.
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Chapter 11: Section 1: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which allegations of recovered memories should be suspect?
Q2) How are child witnesses perceived by jurors? What kind of measures do the courts take to protect child witnesses?
Q3) Should anatomically detailed dolls be admissible in court? Why or why not?
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) There are good reasons why most states allow hearsay testimony when a child is the alleged victim. Which of the following is NOT one of these reasons?
A) To shield jurors from the biasing impact of young children's cuteness.
B) To protect the victim from being questioned in unusual and formal settings.
C) To spare young children the intimidating atmosphere of the courtroom.
D) To avoid the traumatic experience for the victim of facing the alleged abuser.
Q2) In a subsequent series of experiments, Hyman and his colleagues set out to create "memories" of even more unusual false events than "being lost in the mall". The results of this study showed that _____ of the participants developing false recollections.
A) 9%
B) 13%
C) 27%
D) 54%
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Chapter 11: Section 3: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) The notion that traumatic memories can be pushed out of conscious awareness is called:
A) oppression.
B) regression.
C) repression.
D) confabulation.
Q2) In sexual abuse cases, jurors are more likely to believe _____ because younger children _____.
A) younger children than adolescents; are less likely to lie or make things up
B) younger children than adolescents; seem unsophisticated about sexual matters
C) adolescents than younger children; tend to easily mix reality and fantasy
D) adolescents than younger children; could have been easily misled by adults
Q3) Loftus (1997) was able to "implant" memories of being "lost in the mall" in what percentage of participants?
A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 25%
D) 15%
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Chapter
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Q1) How do the best interest of the child standard (BICS) and the tender years doctrine differ?
Q2) How does legal custody differ from physical custody? Which custody arrangement are common and which are not?
Q3) What are the advantages of mediation over litigation? Who is more likely to seek litigation?
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Juries and Judges As Decision
Makers
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Q1) When there is a history of spousal abuse, the abuser may use the mediation process to have access to the victim. In this case, mediation:
A) may not be the best approach.
B) would help both people to work out their issues. C) is not offered as an alternative. D) is the most recommended approach.
Q2) Kathryn's parents recently divorced. During the hearing for custody, it was determined that her mother would have legal and physical custody. This type of custody is known as:
A) sole custody.
B) joint legal custody.
C) shared custody.
D) physical custody.
Q3) Shared legal custody is also known as:
A) physical custody.
B) child custody.
C) joint legal custody.
D) parental competence.
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Chapter 12: Section 3 Juries and Judges As Decision Makers
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Q1) To circumvent the vagueness of the best interest of the child standard, many states have adopted:
A) the joint legal custody standard.
B) the primary caretaker rule.
C) preferred custody arrangements.
D) the approximation rule.
Q2) A majority of children whose parents divorce:
A) show serious adjustment problems throughout life.
B) manage to adapt and to grow into psychologically healthy adults.
C) show externalizing problems throughout life.
D) have difficulty in forming relationships throughout life.
Q3) Which custody arrangement is most common?
A) Sole physical custody by the mother.
B) Sole physical custody by the father.
C) Joint physical custody.
D) Joint physical and legal custody.
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Chapter 13: Section 1: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) What kind of reforms would you suggest to improve the jury trial process?
Q2) How does the mathematical model of jury decision making differ from the story model of jury decision making?
Q3) How does inadmissible evidence influence juror decision making?
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Preinstructions given to a jury before the beginning of a trial appear to provide a useful schema that makes jurors:
A) evaluate evidence differently.
B) deliberate more slowly.
C) experience more confusion during deliberations.
D) more likely to end up in a hung jury.
Q2) According to extensive research, the best predictor of what the verdict will be is the _____ of relevant evidence.
A) strength
B) description
C) review
D) discussion
Q3) Contrary to popular opinion, a survey administered to jurors after a verdict was reached, revealed that _____ agreed that the deliberation process was rigorous and demonstrated both equality and mutual respect.
A) only 50%
B) about 75%
C) over 90%
D) less than 25%
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Page 40
Chapter 13: Section 3: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Which of the following represents the leniency bias in jury decision making?
A) All-female juries are more lenient.
B) All-minority juries are more lenient.
C) More diverse juries are likely to acquit.
D) Evenly split juries are more likely to acquit.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a factor likely to lead to a hung jury?
A) Unanimous decision rules.
B) Ambiguity of evidence.
C) Length of trial.
D) Attorney skills.
Q3) In court, all of the following pieces of information can be considered impeachment evidence EXCEPT the defendant's:
A) past conviction(s) for a similar crime or crimes.
B) past conviction(s) for other kinds of crimes.
C) history of documented dishonest behavior at work.
D) history of multiple premarital affairs.
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Q1) What are the ethical issues involved in risk assessment?
Q2) How does clinical risk assessment differ from actuarial risk assessment?
Q3) What criteria must an individual meet to be involuntarily civilly committed? Do these criteria differ for sexually violent predators?
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) Cathy is incarcerated because she has a history of physical and mental abuse of her stepchildren. She has been held in custody for an extended period because she has the possibility of becoming violent, which is also known as:
A) extended detention.
B) preventative detention.
C) overzealous sentencing.
D) legitimate sentencing.
Q2) To hospitalize someone against his or her will, most states now require that certain conditions be met. Which of the following is NOT one of these conditions?
A) Presence of a severe mental disorder.
B) A severe mental disorder affects the person's functioning.
C) Substantial possibility of causing significant harm to self or others.
D) A documented history of recent dangerous behaviors.
Q3) Involuntary civil commitment is based on what:
A) a person might do in the future.
B) a person has done.
C) the community expects.
D) is available in terms beds in institutions.
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Chapter 14: Section 3: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) What three states have been responsible for over half the total executions in the United States since 1976?
A) Florida, Georgia, and Alabama
B) California, Mississippi, and Nevada
C) South Carolina, Arkansas, and Florida
D) Texas, Oklahoma, and Virginia
Q2) Beliefs that other people or forces are controlling one's thoughts or implanting thoughts in one's mind are referred to as:
A) threat/control-override symptoms.
B) diathesis/stress symptoms.
C) anger/impulse symptoms.
D) anosognosia.
Q3) The movement to release mentally ill patients from hospitals is called:
A) humanitarian advocacy.
B) dehospitalization.
C) deinstitutionalization.
D) legislative reforms.
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Page 44
Chapter 15: Section 1: Predicting Violent Behavior: the
Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) What steps can be taken to reduce prejudice?
Q2) What do studies show about racism in the United States? How does the modern-era racism differ from the older forms of racism?
Q3) What is psychological injury as it applies to sexual harassment? Which standards of injury are currently applied in sexual harassment cases?
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Chapter 15: Section 2: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) The Supreme Court decision in Brown v. Board of Education resulted in _____, which led to a(n) _____, according to a comprehensive review of research.
A) desegregation of black and white students; increase in prejudice
B) desegregation of black and white students; decrease in prejudice
C) mainstreaming of disabled students; decrease in prejudice
D) mainstreaming of disabled students; widely positive response from both blacks and whites
Q2) How people actually think and behave is of utmost importance to psychologists. This is particularly true when considering how fairness is assessed. For example, Francisco worked twice as many hours as Ben did and so Francisco got paid twice what Ben got paid. This type of relationship between contributions to an effort and the obtained rewards refers to:
A) distributive justice.
B) procedural justice.
C) interpersonal justice.
D) equal-status contact.
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Chapter 15: Section 3: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) Studies show that in-person interviews _____ are often systematically biased against minorities, women, and the elderly. A better approach, and a more predictive one, is _____.
A) that are structured interviews with a set list of questions; interviews conducted in a free-form manner
B) that are structured interviews with a set list of questions; interviews conducted over the phone using a computerized voice
C) conducted in a free-form manner; structured interviews with a set list of questions
D) conducted in a free-form manner; interviews conducted over the phone using a computerized voice
Q2) It is difficult to obtain exact estimates of how often harassment in the workplace occurs. All of the following are valid reasons for this EXCEPT:
A) there are no uniform questionnaires asking about workplace harassment.
B) people's memories about their workplace experiences may be inaccurate. C) people often refuse to disclose information about workplace harassment. D) rates of harassment vary across work settings.
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Chapter 16: Section 1: Corrections: Sentencing,
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Q1) Describe the four goals of imprisonment.
Q2) What was the goal of determinate sentencing and how does it work? What are the main problems with mandatory sentencing in general and with one of its versionsthree-strikes laws - in particular?
Q3) Discuss three alternatives to prison.
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Chapter 16: Section 2: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) Early in the history of America, crimes ran the gamut in terms of transgressions. In addition to assault, rape, and murder, to name a few, certain moral transgressions could be punishable by law. The criminalized moral transgressions included all of the following EXCEPT:
A) witchcraft.
B) laziness.
C) adultery.
D) blasphemy.
Q2) Since the 1980s, the United States has incarcerated people at a rate approximately _____ times higher than that of other industrialized societies.
A) two
B) three
C) five
D) ten
Q3) Prisons generally hold criminals:
A) for a long period of time.
B) for a short period of time. C) until they receive a hearing. D) while they await trial.
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Chapter 16: Section 3: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) The rate of HIV/AIDS among state and federal prisoners is about _____ times higher than the rate for the general population.
A) 2
B) 5
C) 7
D) 12
Q2) A lot of prisoners come from disadvantaged backgrounds: _____ of prisoners have at least one family member who has been incarcerated, and about _____ of prisoners have been regular drug users before incarceration.
A) 10%; 25%
B) 40%; 60%
C) 25%; 90%
D) 50%; 10%
Q3) Sentencing guidelines intended to do all of the following EXCEPT:
A) restrain judges' discretion.
B) reduce inequalities in sentencing.
C) take into account the past criminal history of the defendant.
D) increase the severity of sentences.
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Chapter 17: Section 1: The Death Penalty
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Q1) What are Americans' views on the death penalty? Why is it important to consider public opinion on this issue?
Q2) Is the death penalty an effective deterrent to murder?
Q3) Discuss the racial disparities in administering the death penalty.
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Chapter 17: Section 2: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Constitutional challenges regarding the death penalty have taken place in many states. In Furman v. Georgia, the Supreme Court ruled that capital punishment was unconstitutional. Although the decision handed down did not _____ the death penalty, it _____ how it was carried it out.
A) abolish; modified
B) strongly support; encouraged
C) abolish; couldn't put any restrictions on
D) carry out; affirmed
Q2) In Roper v. Simmons (2005), the Court ruled against juveniles being executed because they are inherently:
A) more impulsive than adults.
B) less impulsive than adults.
C) more culpable than adults.
D) less culpable than adults.
Q3) A defendant is deemed "guilty" or "not guilty" during _____ of a capital murder trial.
A) phase one
B) phase two
C) the early part
D) the final days
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Chapter 17: Section 3: The Death Penalty
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Q1) The two parts of a bifurcated trial are:
A) defense arguments and prosecution arguments.
B) aggravating factor presentation and mitigating factor presentation.
C) trial presentation and jury deliberation.
D) guilt phase and penalty phase.
Q2) Liebman, Fagan, and West (2000) examined every capital case in the United States over a 22-year period and found that _____ of death sentences were reversed because of serious error at trial, with the most frequent cause of error being _____.
A) 68%; incompetent defense lawyers
B) 52%; faulty or misleading jury instructions
C) 37%; prosecutorial misconduct
D) 78%; prosecutorial misconduct
Q3) In 1972, the Supreme Court ruled the death penalty unconstitutional in _____. However, executions resumed in _____.
A) Atkins v. Virginia; 1977
B) Furman v. Georgia; 1977
C) Furman v. Georgia; 2000
D) Atkins v. Virginia; 2000
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