Law and Human Behavior Pre-Test Questions - 866 Verified Questions

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Law and Human Behavior Pre-Test

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Course Introduction

Law and Human Behavior explores the intricate relationship between legal systems and human psychological processes. This course examines how individual and group behavior influences, and is influenced by, legal rules, court decisions, and law enforcement practices. Topics include the psychological foundations of legal concepts such as responsibility, intent, and justice; the impact of cognitive biases on juror decision-making; the reliability of eyewitness testimony; issues surrounding criminal profiling; and the role of expert testimony in trials. Students will also consider the implications of psychological research for legal policy and reform, fostering a deeper understanding of how human behavior shapes, and is shaped by, the law.

Recommended Textbook

Forensic and Legal Psychology Psychological Science Applied to Law 2nd Edition by Mark Costanzo

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Chapter 1: Section 1: Psychology and Law: a Cautious

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Q1) Discuss why it might be difficult for a psychologist to maintain her impartiality as a scientist and still successfully fulfill her role as an expert testifying in court.

Answer: Main points:

The U.S. legal system is adversarial.

Often, experts are hired by either defense or prosecution, with the expectation of helping one side of the trial.

Lawyers tend to "shop around" for an expert who would testify the way the lawyer needs.

Expert herself may have ideals or convictions she wants to advocate for.

Being effective as an expert in court requires presenting a clear-cut, easy-to-understand picture.

At the same time, science is rarely clear-cut or simple, it requires objectivity and skepticism about your own findings; conflicting explanations for the same facts are not uncommon.

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Chapter 1: Section 2: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance

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Q1) The primary goal of psychological science is to:

A) provide guidelines for behavior.

B) regulate human behavior.

C) demonstrate how punishment works.

D) provide accurate explanations of human behavior.

Answer: D

Q2) According to the textbook, when writing amicus curiae briefs, it may be hard for psychologists to balance the goals of:

A) science translation and advocacy.

B) authoritativeness and leniency.

C) speculation and deliberation.

D) reflectivity and action orientation.

Answer: A

Q3) The knowledge and skills of clinical psychologists might be relevant for the legal system in which one of these cases?

A) When selecting jurors potentially sympathetic to the defendant.

B) When assessing a mentally ill defendant for potential risk of violence.

C) When deciding whether the eyewitness is able to remember the scene of crime.

D) When evaluating the state of mind of a teenager who brought guns to school.

Answer: B

Page 4

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Chapter 1: Section 3: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance

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Q1) _____ tells us how people actually behave, whereas _____ tells us how people are supposed to behave.

A) Law; psychology

B) Psychology; law

C) Science; nature

D) Nature; science

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following scientists did NOT play a prominent role in the history of forensic psychology?

A) Sigmund Freud

B) Alfred Adler

C) Hugo Münsterberg

D) Karl Llewellyn

Answer: B

Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the four guidelines established by Daubert?

A) Falsifiability of the technique.

B) A known error rate.

C) General acceptance in the scientific community.

D) Review by appellate courts.

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Section 1: Interrogations and Confessions

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Q1) Describe some common types of false confessions, reasons behind them, and police tactics that lead to a higher incidence of false confessions.

Q2) What are some possible reforms that can be implemented in police interrogation procedures to reduce the risk of false confessions?

Q3) What has been the U.S. Supreme Court's position on the use of deception by police during interrogations? How does the use of this technique compare with the use of deception during interrogations in other countries, such as England and Wales? What are some worrisome moral implications of the use of deception by police during interrogations?

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Chapter 2: Section 2: Interrogations and Confessions

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Q1) The tendency to attribute others' behavior to dispositional causes such as personality is referred to as:

A) fundamental attribution error.

B) functional fixedness.

C) frustration-aggression hypothesis.

D) false memory syndrome.

Q2) Even though a _____ may rule that a confession is inadmissible because it was coerced, such rulings are _____.

A) jury; common

B) judge; common

C) jury; rare

D) judge; rare

Q3) Research in the field of social psychology has discovered that people tend to _____ the impact of situational forces, and this process is responsible for believing that suspects in police custody would _____ to the crime they did not commit.

A) overestimate; confess

B) overestimate; not confess

C) disregard; confess

D) disregard; not confess

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Chapter 2: Section 3: Interrogations and Confessions

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Q1) If a man falsely claims to have committed a crime to cover up an affair, he would be making an:

A) instrumental-coerced confession.

B) instrumental-voluntary confession.

C) authentic-coerced confession.

D) authentic-voluntary confession.

Q2) All of the following are valid reasons for police to prefer confessions to other types of evidence. The only EXCEPTION is that:

A) confessions make gathering other evidence less critical.

B) juries almost always convict defendants who have confessed to committing a crime.

C) confessions mean the person is guilty of the crime they confessed to committing.

D) lengthy trials can be avoided because a confession is likely to lead to a plea deal.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of an exculpatory scenario?

A) "Did you plan this, or did it just happen on the spur of the moment?"

B) "Was this your own idea or did someone talk you into it?"

C) "I'm sure you took the money to help your family."

D) "Have you done this type of thing before?"

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Chapter 3: Section 1: Lie Detection

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Q1) Discuss the limitations of fMRI studies in the detection of deception.

Q2) Compare and contrast the relevant-irrelevant test (RIT), the comparison question test (CQT), and the guilty knowledge test (GKT).

Q3) Discuss the scientific validity of the polygraph.

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Chapter 3: Section 2: Lie Detection

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Q1) According to a study by Kassin and his colleagues (2005), police detectives were _____ to evaluate false confessions as true.

A) more likely than college students

B) less likely than college students

C) reluctant

D) just as likely as college students

Q2) If a person is lying, the polygraph can pick up the following changes in his or her physiological functions EXCEPT:

A) breathing.

B) perspiration.

C) heart rate.

D) brain activity.

Q3) Unlike other polygraph tests, the guilty knowledge test (GKT):

A) relies heavily on the expertise of polygraph examiners.

B) reduces polygraph examiners to mere technicians.

C) places the burden of proof on the polygraph machine.

D) is accepted in court in almost all states.

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Chapter 3: Section 3: Lie Detection

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a limitation of the fMRI technology as it currently exists?

A) It is expensive.

B) It is highly portable.

C) It requires a person to lie motionless inside the fMRI machine.

D) It requires a person to stay silent inside the fMRI machine.

Q2) What type of error is committed when a guilty suspect is misclassified as innocent?

A) false negative

B) false positive

C) true negative

D) true positive

Q3) The 1993 U.S. Supreme Court decision in Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals:

A) ruled the polygraph inadmissible in all federal cases.

B) ruled the polygraph admissible in all federal cases.

C) ruled that polygraph admissibility could be determined on a case-by-case basis.

D) refused to hear arguments on the admissibility of the polygraph all together.

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Q1) How can error rate be reduced in forensic investigations?

Q2) What type of influence do the CSI TV dramas have on jurors?

Q3) How does reliability differ from validity? Use examples to illustrate both.

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Chapter 4: Section 2: The Psychology of Forensic

Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace Evidence

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Q1) Biometrics is the:

A) study of facial features.

B) study of skull shapes.

C) identification of anomalies for the purpose of matching.

D) identification based on measurable anatomical traits.

Q2) Research noted in the text reveals that jurors:

A) have difficulty interpreting statistical statements.

B) understand statistical information reasonably well.

C) rely on qualitative results only.

D) rely on quantitative results only.

Q3) A "simple match" statement:

A) uses statistical analysis.

B) applies probability categories.

C) defines specific features and their likelihood.

D) does not use statistical terms.

Q4) Class characteristics can best be described as:

A) unique to a particular object.

B) common to a general group of objects.

C) unique to a particular person.

D) common to a general group of fingerprint examiners. Page 13

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Chapter 4: Section 3: The Psychology of Forensic

Trace

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Q1) If a measure or observation consistently produces similar results through repeated measurements, it is known as:

A) validity.

B) reliability.

C) practicality.

D) accuracy.

Q2) The degree to which two or more observers or analysts independently arrive at the same measurement result is called:

A) inter-rater validity.

B) match reliability.

C) test-retest reliability.

D) inter-rater reliability.

Q3) The largest DNA database system in the world is maintained by the:

A) INTERPOL.

B) FBI.

C) CIA.

D) Secret Service.

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Chapter 5: Section 1: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies

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Q1) Compare and contrast criminal profiling, geographic profiling, and behavioral investigative advice (BIA).

Q2) What is the purpose of a psychological autopsy and when would it be used?

Q3) How is profiling used in criminal investigations? Is it effective?

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Chapter 5: Section 2: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies

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Q1) Profiles are created primarily for the purpose of:

A) aiding in understanding human nature.

B) developing some leads in the ongoing investigation.

C) studying criminal investigation techniques.

D) embarrassing investigators for pursuing wrong suspects.

Q2) According to the text, _____ is considered to be the first individual to develop a criminal profile when working on the Jack the Ripper case.

A) Dr. Thomas Brussel

B) Dr. Thomas Bond

C) Dr. James Bond

D) Dr. James Heeley

Q3) The process of drawing inferences about a suspect's personality, behavior, motivation, and demographic characteristics based on crime scene information is referred to as:

A) profiling.

B) characterization.

C) development of personality.

D) visionary types.

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Chapter 5: Section 3: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies

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Q1) Psychological autopsies are typically used in cases involving:

A) serial murder.

B) equivocal death.

C) mass murder.

D) unequivocal death.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of an organized murderer as hypothesized by the organized/disorganized distinction?

A) Average or above average intelligence.

B) Sexually incompetent.

C) Controlled mood during crime.

D) Geographic mobility.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of most serial killers?

A) A history of childhood abuse.

B) Brain injury that impairs rational thinking.

C) The use of firearms in killing.

D) The use of alcohol or drugs before killing.

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Chapter 6: Section 1: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing

Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults

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Q1) How effective is scientific jury selection?

Q2) Explain how the role of money in trial consulting may affect trial outcomes. Are there any possible solutions to the problems you have identified?

Q3) Explain the voir dire process.

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Chapter 6: Section 2: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing

Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults

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Q1) Among the traits noted as being associated with jurors' verdicts is how people tend to explain what happens to them, or how they answer the question: Are you mostly responsible for what happens to you? This trait is referred to as:

A) locus of control.

B) belief in a just world.

C) authoritarianism.

D) an alternative hypothesis.

Q2) According to the text, when an attorney takes the opportunity to remove a potential juror, it is referred to as:

A) a challenge.

B) venire.

C) an obstacle to equality.

D) recross.

Q3) Lawyers have two types of challenges they can pose to remove a potential juror: challenges for cause and:

A) challenges for bias.

B) challenges for prejudice.

C) peremptory challenges.

D) predisposition challenges.

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Chapter 6: Section 3: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing

Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults

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Q1) Voir dire allows attorneys:

A) to question the veracity of a witness's testimony in criminal cases.

B) and judges to examine potential jurors to determine their acceptability to serve on a jury.

C) to subpoena important witnesses who may not otherwise be willing to appear in court.

D) and judges to question witnesses on the stand in civil cases.

Q2) Venire refers to:

A) a group of inmates who are requesting a trial by jury.

B) a group of prospective jurors who came to court.

C) an attorney who is conducting voir dire.

D) a judge who presides over a jury trial.

Q3) The last opportunity for questioning a witness occurs during _______ examination.

A) cross

B) direct

C) redirect

D) recross

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Chapter 7: Section 1: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony

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Q1) Describe the post-identification feedback effect and give an example. What is the role of cognitive dissonance in this process?

Q2) How does human memory operate? How is it different from a video recording? If people are sure they remember the situation well, does it mean their memories are more accurate than memories of those who are not as sure?

Q3) Describe three research findings regarding improving eyewitness accuracy.

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Chapter 7: Section 2: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony

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Q1) Individuals often _____ the duration of a brief event, especially if it is a(n) _____ event.

A) underestimate; stressful

B) overestimate; stressful

C) underestimate; interesting

D) overestimate; interesting

Q2) When the eyewitness is a child, it is likely that the accuracy of information they can provide is _____ that provided by an adult.

A) more accurate compared to B) less accurate compared to C) as accurate as.

D) more likely to be impacted by retrieval inhibition than

Q3) The term _____ is part of memory processing. It entails gathering information and putting it into a form that can be retrieved later on.

A) storage

B) retrieval

C) encoding

D) heuristics

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Chapter 7: Section 3: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a system variable in eyewitness identification?

A) How a witness is questioned.

B) How lineups are administered.

C) The order of questions asked by the police.

D) The race of the victim.

Q2) The three component processes in memory are:

A) recall, recognition, and cognition.

B) encoding, storage, and retrieval.

C) acoustic, semantic, and sensory.

D) sensation, perception, and cognition.

Q3) According to research studies on eye witness identification that are described in the text, which of the following is FALSE?

A) People tend to overestimate the duration of a brief event.

B) It is more difficult for people to recognize the faces of others outside of their racial group.

C) High-stress conditions usually increase the rate of correct identifications.

D) Seeing the perpetrator hold a weapon impairs the witnesses' ability to recognize the assailant.

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Chapter 8: Section 1: Competency to Stand Trial

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Q1) Explain what is malingering and why some defendants might be compelled to resort to it. Would it be in their best interests? Why or why not?

Q2) What does research show about the competencies of children and adolescents? Should there be specific requirements for competency to stand trial for juveniles as different from the ones for adults?

Q3) Explain why competency to stand trial (CST) is a legal and not a psychological term. What are the key elements of CST?

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Chapter 8: Section 2: Competency to Stand Trial

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Q1) According to research completed by Grisso and his colleagues (2003), the differences between adolescents (ages 11 to 17) and young adults (ages 18 to 24) in terms of their functioning on CST-related abilities were:

A) minimal.

B) moderate.

C) significant.

D) not present.

Q2) Eric was scheduled for trial as a result of a felony offense. It was soon discovered that he was certain that the light fixtures throughout his city were purposely set there by aliens trying to learn how to "fit in." He was found incompetent to stand trial, but not because of his alien theory. He was found incompetent because:

A) his delusions hampered his ability to assist in his own defense because he believed that the judge and jury were aliens as well.

B) his delusions hampered his ability to understand that aliens don't exist and, even if they did, they wouldn't tamper with the trial.

C) his ability to see aliens interfered with his sense of right and wrong.

D) aliens had obviously committed the crime.

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Chapter 8: Section 3: Competency to Stand Trial

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Q1) CST refers to several types of functions a defendant should be able to perform. Which of the following is NOT one of these functions?

A) Understanding the charges against you.

B) Acting appropriately during the trial.

C) Ability to trust your prosecutor.

D) Ability to trust and communicate with your defense counsel.

Q2) The Court's decision in the case of Morrow v. Maryland (1982) was:

A) a defendant found to be malingering may be given a longer sentence.

B) severe memory loss does not mean that a defendant should be ruled incompetent.

C) a defendant with a serious mental illness must be given multiple evaluations.

D) medications can be administered to a defendant against his will if he is malingering.

Q3) Competency to stand trial refers to the psychological state of the defendant:

A) at the time of the crime.

B) during pre-trial proceedings.

C) at the time of sentencing.

D) at the time of trial.

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Chapter 9: Section 1: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure

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Q1) What major changes were instituted to the insanity defense after the trial of John Hinckley?

Q2) Why is it difficult to evaluate insanity? What factors make it different from the evaluation of competency to stand trial?

Q3) How do jurors view the insanity defense?

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Chapter 9: Section 2: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure

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Q1) Legal definitions of insanity are crafted by:

A) legislators and psychologists.

B) judges and psychiatrists.

C) social workers and psychologists.

D) legislators and judges.

Q2) The Insanity Defense Reform Act (IDRA) of 1984 required that _____ prove _____ the insanity of the defendant at the time of the crime.

A) the defense; beyond a reasonable doubt

B) prosecution; beyond a reasonable doubt

C) prosecution; by clear and convincing evidence

D) the defense; by clear and convincing evidence

Q3) The Durham standard took into consideration:

A) mental disease or mental defect in a person.

B) the presumption that defendants are sane at the time of their alleged crime.

C) whether the defendant knew the nature and quality of their actions.

D) the defendant's criminal history.

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Chapter 9: Section 3: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure

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Q1) Andrea Yates was diagnosed with:

A) schizophrenia.

B) dissociative identity disorder.

C) postpartum mental illness.

D) bipolar disorder.

Q2) Which famous case prompted shifting the burden of proof of insanity from prosecution to defense?

A) Durham

B) Hinckley

C) M'Naghten

D) Smith

Q3) Which definition of insanity includes both a cognitive prong and a volitional prong?

A) Durham test

B) "wild beast" test

C) M'Naghten rule

D) ALI standard

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Chapter 10: Section 1: The Insanity Defense

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Q1) What are the advantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?

Q2) What are rape shield laws and when do they not apply in court? Can expert testimony be problematic in this regard?

Q3) What are the disadvantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?

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Chapter 10: Section 2: The Insanity Defense

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Q1) Men are _____ women to seriously injure/kill their intimate partners.

A) more likely than

B) less likely than

C) equally as likely as

D) rarely able compared with

Q2) The DSM-5 contains _____ among its classifications of mental disorders.

A) the rape trauma syndrome (RTS)

B) the battered women syndrome (BWS)

C) the battered spouse syndrome (BSS)

D) It contains none of these.

Q3) Self-defense can be used in a court of law, when a defendant is facing charges as a result of killing her batterer. However, specific circumstances need to be introduced. Which of the following does NOT meet the requirements of self-defense?

A) The victim was in danger of imminent bodily harm.

B) No reasonable avenue of escape existed.

C) The force used to repel the abuser's attack was reasonable and proportional to the danger.

D) The abuse was relentless, and the victim was scared even when the abuser was asleep.

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Chapter 10: Section 3: The Insanity Defense

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Q1) Ibn-Tamas v. United States (1979) was one of the first cases in which:

A) expert testimony was offered on rape trauma syndrome (RTS).

B) expert testimony was offered on battered woman syndrome (BWS).

C) a battered woman was acquitted for killing her husband.

D) expert testimony was offered on posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).

Q2) Researchers have identified several types of male batterers. Which type is the most common one, according to these studies?

A) Batterer with borderline personality disorder.

B) Generally violent antisocial batterer.

C) Batterer with poor self-image.

D) Relationship/family-only batterer.

Q3) Lenore Walker has identified several characteristics that she thought most battered women shared. Which one is NOT among these characteristics?

A) Belief that women should be submissive to their husbands.

B) Tendency to accept responsibility for the abuse.

C) Poor self-image.

D) Poor family upbringing.

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Chapter 11: Section 1: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape

Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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Q1) How are child witnesses perceived by jurors? What kind of measures do the courts take to protect child witnesses?

Q2) Should anatomically detailed dolls be admissible in court? Why or why not?

Q3) Which allegations of recovered memories should be suspect?

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Chapter 11: Section 2: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape

Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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Q1) According to the text, children who supposedly suffer from child sexual abuse accommodation syndrome (CSAAS) are likely to show behavioral symptoms that could also be evident in children misled into admitting such abuse. These symptoms include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) delayed disclosure of the abuse.

B) only mentioning abuse to peers.

C) denial that sexual abuse ever occurred.

D) recantation of allegations of abuse later on.

Q2) The concept of repression was developed by:

A) John Watson.

B) Albert Bandura.

C) Sigmund Freud.

D) Elizabeth Loftus.

Q3) Testifying about what someone else said outside of court is called:

A) unsubstantiated rumor.

B) hearsay testimony.

C) always non-admissible evidence.

D) admissible evidence.

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Chapter 11: Section 3: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape

Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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Q1) The notion that traumatic memories can be pushed out of conscious awareness is called:

A) oppression.

B) regression.

C) repression.

D) confabulation.

Q2) Extensive research shows that the use of anatomically detailed dolls:

A) tends to have no effect on children's accounts in sexual abuse investigations.

B) increases the number of false allegations of children in sexual abuse cases.

C) decreases the number of true allegations by children in sexual abuse cases.

D) only has an effect on girls but not on boys in recalling sexual abuse.

Q3) Substantial research now shows that the interviewers in many of the preschool cases ____, and this made the interviewers question children more _____ to confirm their preexisting suspicions.

A) strongly believed that children were sexually abused; coercively

B) strongly believed that children were sexually abused; gently

C) did not believe that children were sexually abused; gently

D) did not believe that children were sexually abused; coercively

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Q1) What are the advantages of mediation over litigation? Who is more likely to seek litigation?

Q2) How does legal custody differ from physical custody? Which custody arrangement are common and which are not?

Q3) How do the best interest of the child standard (BICS) and the tender years doctrine differ?

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Chapter 12: Section 2: Juries and Judges As Decision

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Q1) Jennifer's parents are contemplating divorce and have not been able to agree on custody issues. The fight for custody has already impacted Jennifer, as her dropping grades demonstrate. Unfortunately, the state where the family lives does not have:

A) good legal counseling.

B) psychologists to rely on for opinions.

C) mandatory counseling.

D) mandatory mediation laws.

Q2) Research has demonstrated that sexism or gender bias is more likely to influence decision making in custody cases when the guidelines for custody are:

A) vague.

B) short.

C) disparate.

D) strict.

Q3) A projective test measures an individual's response to:

A) well-defined stimuli.

B) objective material.

C) ambiguous stimuli.

D) an interview.

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Chapter 12: Section 3 Juries and Judges As Decision Makers

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Q1) Under the doctrine Pater familias used in English common law prior to the nineteenth century:

A) fathers were automatically granted custody of their children.

B) mothers were automatically granted custody of their children.

C) the children of the divorcing parents decided what parent they preferred to live with.

D) best interests of the child were taken into account when deciding custody.

Q2) The case of Painter v. Bannister (1966) illustrates:

A) the doctrine Pater familias.

B) the wide discretion the courts have in awarding custody.

C) the tender years doctrine.

D) the reasonable parent standard.

Q3) Under the tender years doctrine, unless there were extenuating circumstances, _____ were placed in the custody of the mother.

A) all children

B) only young children

C) young children and female children

D) only female children

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Chapter 13: Section 1: Child Custody Disputes

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Q1) What kind of reforms would you suggest to improve the jury trial process?

Q2) How does the mathematical model of jury decision making differ from the story model of jury decision making?

Q3) How does inadmissible evidence influence juror decision making?

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Chapter 13: Section 2: Child Custody Disputes

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Q1) Preinstructions given to a jury before the beginning of a trial appear to provide a useful schema that makes jurors:

A) evaluate evidence differently.

B) deliberate more slowly.

C) experience more confusion during deliberations.

D) more likely to end up in a hung jury.

Q2) According to the text, in civil trials, corporations are held to a different standard than individuals. This difference may be as a result of the notion that corporations _____, whereas individuals _____.

A) pay lower awards; pay higher awards

B) pay higher awards; go to jail

C) are held to a higher standard of decision-making; may have a lapse in judgment

D) may have a lapse in judgment; are expected to be better trained to guard against bad judgments

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Chapter 13: Section 3: Child Custody Disputes

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Q1) Which of the following is most strongly correlated with jury verdicts?

A) The severity of filed charges.

B) Pretrial publicity against the defendant.

C) The strength of evidence.

D) The complexity of instructions to the jury.

Q2) At times, juries deliberately decide to ignore, disregard, or go beyond the law because to do otherwise would violate the moral conscience of the community. This action is known as:

A) judicial immunity.

B) jury nullification.

C) jury deliberation.

D) jury injunction.

Q3) Compared with 12-person juries, 6-person juries:

A) deliberate longer.

B) generate more arguments.

C) are less predictable.

D) recall evidence more accurately.

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Q1) What are the ethical issues involved in risk assessment?

Q2) What criteria must an individual meet to be involuntarily civilly committed? Do these criteria differ for sexually violent predators?

Q3) How does clinical risk assessment differ from actuarial risk assessment?

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Chapter 14: Section 2: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness

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Q1) According to the text, research studies find that the rate of sexual reoffense is _____ than that of other crimes.

A) slightly higher

B) significantly higher

C) lower

D) not different

Q2) According to the text, as of 2013, _____ states and the federal government adopted sexually violent predator civil commitment laws (SVP laws).

A)10

B)20

C)40

D)all 50

Q3) According to the text, rates of antisocial personality disorder in the general population are _____, whereas the incidence of antisocial personality disorder in prison inmates is _____.

A) approximately 70%; 1.8%-3.3%

B) approximately 50%; over 50%

C) 3-3.3%; up to 70%

D) 33%; over 90%

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Chapter 14: Section 3: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness

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Q1) In which of the following cases did the Court extend the Tarasoff requirement by deciding that information provided by a family member of an adult client and not by the client could trigger the "duty to protect" requirement?

A) O'Connor v. Donaldson

B) Ewing v. Goldstein

C) Kansas v. Hendricks

D) Kansas v. Crane

Q2) The rate at which an event occurs in a given population is called the _____ rate.

A) actuarial

B) statistical

C) base

D) occurrence

Q3) The movement to release mentally ill patients from hospitals is called:

A) humanitarian advocacy.

B) dehospitalization.

C) deinstitutionalization.

D) legislative reforms.

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Chapter 15: Section 1: Predicting Violent Behavior: the

Psychology of Risk Assessment

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Q1) What do studies show about racism in the United States? How does the modern-era racism differ from the older forms of racism?

Q2) What is psychological injury as it applies to sexual harassment? Which standards of injury are currently applied in sexual harassment cases?

Q3) What steps can be taken to reduce prejudice?

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Chapter 15: Section 2: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment

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Q1) The majority of harassment cases do not make it to court. Of those that go forward to court and are litigated, only about one _____ of decisions are made in favor of the plaintiff, or the alleged victim.

A) tenth

B) quarter

C) third

D) half

Q2) Ben felt that he should have received more money for his efforts and he followed an established procedure to appeal his case to the supervisor, detailing the amount of work done and his contributions to the final product. Ben's ability to participate in the process of reward distribution decisions is an example of:

A) distributive justice.

B) procedural justice.

C) interpersonal justice.

D) equal-status contact.

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Chapter 15: Section 3: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment

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Q1) The Supreme Court ruled that same-sex harassment could be grounds for a lawsuit in:

A) Harris v. Forklift Systems (1993).

B) Ellison v. Brady (1991).

C) Oncale v. Sundowner Offshore Services, Inc. (1998).

D) Burlington Industries, Inc. v. Ellerth (1998).

Q2) The Supreme Court has instructed lower courts to use which standard to gauge whether the conduct in question created an unlawful hostile environment?

A) The reasonable woman standard.

B) The totality of circumstances test.

C) The reasonable person standard.

D) The Griggs test.

Q3) Studies conducted on desegregation after the Brown v. Board of Education ruling in 1954 found that:

A) desegregation had no effect on prejudice.

B) desegregation led to an increase in prejudice of Whites toward Blacks.

C) desegregation led to a decrease in prejudice of Whites toward Blacks.

D) desegregation only decreased prejudice in schools but not in the workplace.

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Q1) What was the goal of determinate sentencing and how does it work? What are the main problems with mandatory sentencing in general and with one of its versionsthree-strikes laws - in particular?

Q2) Describe the four goals of imprisonment.

Q3) Discuss three alternatives to prison.

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Chapter 16: Section 2: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives

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Q1) Prisons generally hold criminals:

A) for a long period of time.

B) for a short period of time.

C) until they receive a hearing.

D) while they await trial.

Q2) After the American Revolution, a movement to change how criminals were punished began in an attempt to move away from laws that had been established in England. Instead of beating and killing, the new country decided to rely on:

A) incarceration.

B) public shaming.

C) rehabilitation.

D) hanging.

Q3) It was not until the _____ that prisons began to reflect the influence of medicine and social sciences.

A) 1800s

B) 1850s

C) 1900s

D) 2000s

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Chapter 16: Section 3: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives

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Q1) Criminal behaviors that are attributed to _____ causes evoke the strongest punitive response.

A) internal, controllable, and stable

B) external, less controllable, and unstable

C) external, controllable, and unstable

D) internal, less controllable, and unstable

Q2) A rather radical approach to sentencing guidelines involves mandatory, or determinate sentencing, which requires judges to:

A) implement the three strikes laws.

B) hand down sentences within a prescribed range.

C) defer the sentencing decision to the jury.

D) consider the defendant's personality characteristics.

Q3) After being released from prison, approximately _____ of inmates will be rearrested and sent back to prison within 3 years.

A) 20%

B) 33%

C) 51%

D) 67%

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Chapter 17: Section 1: The Death Penalty

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Q1) Is the death penalty an effective deterrent to murder?

Q2) What are Americans' views on the death penalty? Why is it important to consider public opinion on this issue?

Q3) Discuss the racial disparities in administering the death penalty.

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Chapter 17: Section 2: The Death Penalty

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Q1) Research by Lynch and Haney (2000) using identical cases but varying the race of the victim and the offender, found the following. When the defendant was black and the victim was white, _____ of mock jurors recommended a death sentence. When the defendant was white and the victim was black, _____ of mock jurors recommended a death sentence.

A) 34%; 5%

B) 44%; 60%

C) 54%; 40%

D) 64%; 80%

Q2) A defendant is deemed "guilty" or "not guilty" during _____ of a capital murder trial.

A) phase one

B) phase two

C) the early part

D) the final days

Q3) Excluding federal crimes, the only crime punishable by death is:

A) incest.

B) manslaughter.

C) aggravated murder.

D) aggravated rape.

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Chapter 17: Section 3: The Death Penalty

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Q1) In Lockhart v. McCree (1986), the Supreme Court reviewed the research on death qualification and:

A) dismissed it as irrelevant and outlawed the use of death-qualified juries.

B) dismissed it as irrelevant and upheld the use of death-qualified juries.

C) agreed with the findings and outlawed the use of death-qualified juries.

D) disagreed with the validity of the findings and upheld the use of death-qualified juries.

Q2) Since the abolition of slavery, there has been an enduring effect of race on how the defendant was sentenced. Evidence of racial discrimination in administering the death penalty is clearest in cases involving:

A) rape.

B) treason.

C) gang-related murder.

D) aggravated incest.

Q3) In Roper v. Simmons (2005), the Supreme Court abolished the death penalty for:

A) the severely mentally ill.

B) the mentally disabled.

C) women.

D) juvenile offenders.

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