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Introduction
This course explores the intersection of law and forensic science, providing students with an in-depth understanding of how scientific principles and techniques are applied in the criminal justice system. Topics include the foundation and admissibility of forensic evidence, the roles of expert witnesses, and the impact of forensic methods such as DNA analysis, fingerprinting, toxicology, and digital forensics on legal proceedings. The course also addresses ethical considerations, challenges in interpreting scientific findings, and landmark cases that have shaped the practice and perception of forensic science in the courtroom. Through case studies and practical exercises, students will gain critical skills in evaluating and presenting forensic evidence in legal contexts.
Recommended Textbook Forensic Science An Introduction 2nd Edition by Saferstein Richard
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Q1) The _______________ unit applies principles and techniques of chemistry, physics, and geology to the identification and comparison of crime-scene evidence.
A) physical science
B) toxicology
C) biology
D) forensic geology
E) none of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Approximately how many operating crime labs are there in the United States (federal, state and country) ?
A) 200
B) 300+
C) 250
D) 75
E) 150
Answer: B
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Q1) The most basic methods of crime scene recording include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) infrared analysis.
B) narrated videotape.
C) sketches.
D) photographs.
E) note taking.
Answer: A
Q2) The systematic collection, organization, and analysis of information is a process known as:
A) criminal profiling.
B) forensic science.
C) crime scene investigation.
D) the scientific method.
E) crime scene reconstruction.
Answer: D
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Q1) Explain the difference between the identification and comparison of physical evidence. Cite one example.
Answer: The identification of physical evidence involves determining the nature or origin of an item, while the comparison of physical evidence involves examining the similarities or differences between two or more items.
For example, in a crime scene investigation, the identification of a blood stain would involve determining whether it is human or animal blood. Once identified, the blood stain could then be compared to a sample taken from a suspect to see if they match. This comparison would help determine if the suspect was present at the crime scene. So, identification would be determining that the stain is blood, while comparison would be seeing if the stain matches the suspect's blood sample.
Q2) Physical evidence is considered to have ________ as that of eyewitness (testimonial) evidence.
A) greater value
B) the same value
C) less value
Answer: A
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Q1) Explain the application of density and refractive index as it pertains to glass evidence.
Q2) One milliliter of a liquid is ________ 1 cc of the same liquid.
A) greater than
B) less than
C) the same as
Q3) A hot-stage microscope and the GRIM 3 are used to determine the ________ of glass fragments.
A) weight
B) refractive index
C) relative density
D) metallic oxide content
E) temperature
Q4) The effect of gravity on the weight of an object is ________ the effect of gravity on the mass of the same object.
A) less than
B) the same as
C) greater than
Q5) Define and explain the difference between the physical and chemical properties of matter.
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Q1) The administration of which drug eliminates an addict's desire for heroin?
A) methadone
B) methamphetamine
C) OxyContin
D) codeine
E) morphine
Q2) What is the most widely used illicit drug in the United States today?
A) marijuana
B) cocaine
C) alcohol
D) heroin
E) methadone
Q3) Spectrophotometry utilizes which light source?
A) visible
B) infrared
C) UV
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) Compare and contrast the clinical aspects of psychological and physical drug dependency.
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Q1) A breath test may be used to analyze:
A) amphetamines.
B) barbiturates.
C) ethyl alcohol.
D) marijuana.
E) all of the above.
Q2) Which test is NOT a widely used screening tool in the toxicology lab?
A) immunoassay
B) GC-MS
C) GC
D) TLC
E) none of the above
Q3) The DOT set the maximum allowable blood alcohol concentration for commercial truck and bus drivers at:
A) .04%.
B) .05%.
C) .08%.
D) .02%.
E) .10%.
Q4) Briefly describe how a toxicologist finds a drug in human tissue or organs.
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Q1) A transparent specimen is viewed through a microscope using ___________ light while an opaque object requires ___________ illumination.
A) confocal; transmitted
B) transmitted; vertical
C) vertical; horizontal
D) transmitted; stereoscopic
E) vertical; reflected
Q2) A compound microscope is equipped with two objectives lenses (10x and 45x) and has a 10x ocular lens. The highest magnification attainable with this instrument is:
A) 100x.
B) 650x.
C) 4500x.
D) 65x.
E) 450x.
Q4) As the magnification of the compound microscope is increased, the field of view: A) remains the same.
B) increases.
C) decreases.
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Q1) A gene pair made up of two similar alleles-for example, AA and BB-is said to be:
A) homozygous.
B) complementary.
C) monoclonal.
D) polyclonal.
E) heterozygous.
Q2) List the lab tests that are used to characterize seminal stains.
Q3) Create a table showing the four blood types, their antigens and their antibodies.
Q4) Which blood components are directly pertinent to the forensic aspects of blood identification?
A) white blood cells
B) blood serum
C) red blood cells
D) platelets
E) both B and C
Q5) List and describe the presumptive tests used to determine if a stain is blood.
Q6) Describe how blood and semen are to be properly preserved.
Q7) Diagram and describe the antibody antigen reaction.
Q8) Explain the difference between monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies.
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Q1) List and briefly describe the process of PCR.
Q2) Radioactive probes are used:
A) to visualize RFLPs.
B) as molecular scissors.
C) to hold DNA in helical shape.
D) as primers for DNA polymerase.
E) as restriction enzymes.
Q3) Explain the forensic value of VNTR's.
Q4) The specific proteins produced by a cell are directly related to the:
A) number of mitochondria in the cell.
B) length of the chromosomes.
C) sequence of sugars and phosphates in the cell.
D) sequence of nucleotides in the DNA of the cell.
E) size of the cell.
Q5) Recombinant DNA technology is useful in producing:
A) artificial hearts and kidneys.
B) insulin and growth hormone.
C) new organs for transplant.
D) livestock.
E) clones.

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Q1) List and briefly describe the information that can be gained from bloodstain pattern analysis.
Q2) Explain how the texture of a surface, directionality and the angle of impact can impact the shape of the individual bloodstains.
Q3) The velocity classification of an impact spatter pattern: A) cannot illuminate the specific events that produced pattern. B) can determine the kind of action that produced the pattern. C) can only be determined by a trained bloodstain pattern analyst. D) is never used for descriptive purposes. E) all of the above
Q4) The amount of spatter from a blood droplet falling on a hard, non-porous surface is ________ that of a drop of blood of equal size, falling from the same distance, onto a softer, porous surface. A) less than B) the same as C) equal to D) greater than
Q5) Using the following diagrams, calculate the angle of impact of each individual bloodstain.
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Q1) Which is NOT a synthetic fiber?
A) nylon
B) acrylic
C) rayon
D) polyester
E) all of the above
Q2) In what stage can a hair most readily be removed from the scalp?
A) generic
B) analgesic
C) catagenic
D) telogenic
E) anagenic
Q3) Which type of crime is LEAST likely to be solved with the use of fiber evidence?
A) breaking and entering
B) hit-and-run
C) kidnapping
D) sexual assault
E) bombing
Q4) Explain how a forensic scientist would correctly collect, package and preserve a hair sample.
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Q1) Which property imparts paint with its most distinctive forensic characteristics?
A) color-layer sequence
B) color
C) pigment particles
D) gloss
E) texture
Q2) Which would be LEAST useful in identifying a mineral crystal?
A) size
B) refractive index
C) geometric shape
D) location of origin
E) color
Q3) Paint as physical evidence is most frequently encountered in:
A) burglary.
B) a hit-and-run.
C) assault.
D) car theft.
E) both A and B
Q4) Describe the proper collection and preservation techniques for paint evidence.
Q5) Explain the difference between continuous and line emission spectra.
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Q1) Which of the following cannot be determined from a laboratory examination of evidence recovered from an arson?
A) Origin of liquid gasolines.
B) The ignition mechanism used by the arsonist.
C) The brand name of gasoline used to start the fire.
D) The presence of gasoline, kerosene, or turpentine in debris.
E) All of the above are possible to accomplish.
Q2) Describe the three mechanisms of heat transfer.
Q3) Heat energy can ignite distant objects through the transmission of:
A) electrons.
B) electromagnetic energy.
C) streamers.
D) oxidizing agents.
E) none of the above
Q4) Gasoline residues are best characterized by:
A) emission spectroscopy.
B) ultraviolet analysis.
C) infrared spectrophotometry.
D) gas chromatography.
E) atomic absorption.

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Q1) A chemical used to synthesize the explosive TATP is:
A) aluminum.
B) magnesium.
C) potassium chlorate.
D) hydrogen peroxide.
E) none of the above
Q2) Which is NOT a high explosive?
A) dynamite
B) RDX
C) black powder
D) tetryl
E) TNT
Q3) High explosives can be classified as either ___________ or ___________ explosives.
A) initial; secondary
B) military grade; non-military grade
C) civilian; military
D) primary; secondary
E) low impact; high impact
Q4) Briefly explain the classification of explosives.
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Q1) Dusting to visualize a latent print on finished leather and rough plastic is best done with a:
A) fiberglass brush.
B) camel's hair brush.
C) Magna brush.
D) all of the above
E) A and C only.
Q2) Will West was the man who:
A) had a virtual "double" with a similar name.
B) invented Superglue.
C) was identified generations later by DNA analysis.
D) mutilated his fingerprints with acid.
E) devised the fingerprint classification system used in Spanish-speaking countries.
Q3) Fingerprints are formed:
A) during fetal development.
B) by the time a child is two years old.
C) at birth.
D) during first six months after birth.
E) at conception.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) The diameter of the bore of a rifled firearm is its gauge.
B) Carbonaceous smoke or soot deposited around a bullet hole is normally indicative of a discharge 12 to 18 feet or less from the target.
C) The comparison microscope is an indispensable tool of the firearm examiner.
D) A bullet can be individualized to a weapon by the number and twist of its lands and grooves.
E) All of the above statements are true.
Q2) Discharged evidence bullets must be carefully handled to avoid damage to the:
A) striation markings.
B) manufacturer's imprint.
C) ejection pattern.
D) caliber markings.
E) investigator's initials.
Q3) Which is NOT a class characteristic of a suspect's sneaker?
A) color
B) style
C) brand
D) size
E) wear marks
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Q1) Which of the following statements is false?
A) Writings on a charred document may be revealed by reflecting light off the paper's surface at different angles.
B) Any object that contains handwritten or typewritten markings whose source or authenticity is in doubt is a questioned document.
C) In the case of Gilbert v. California the court held that the taking of handwriting exemplars was not prohibited by the Fifth Amendment.
D) Once adulthood is reached, an individual's handwriting generally will not change with age.
E) An inconclusive finding by a document examiner may be due to an insufficient number of known writings available for comparison.
Q2) List and describe some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers.
Q3) What guidelines should an investigator use when collecting known writing samples for comparison to a questioned document?
Q4) What are the common individual characteristics that are associated with handwriting?
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Q1) One should not look for "latent" data in:
A) RAM slack.
B) temporary files.
C) unallocated space.
D) file slack.
E) deleted files.
Q2) The primary form of data storage within a personal computer is:
A) the CD-ROM.
B) a zip drive.
C) the hard disk drive.
D) a thumb drive.
E) the recycle bin.
Q3) Evidentiary data may be recovered from which of the following?
A) RAM swap files
B) unallocated space on the HDD
C) slack space on the HDD
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) Explain the various areas found on the computer where a user's Internet activities can be investigated.
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