Laboratory Methods in Microbiology Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive introduction to fundamental laboratory techniques used in microbiology. Students will develop hands-on skills in aseptic technique, culturing, staining, and microscopic observation of microorganisms. Emphasis is placed on identification and characterization of bacteria, fungi, and other microbes based on morphological, physiological, and biochemical properties. Through supervised experiments, students gain experience in sample collection, media preparation, microbial quantification, and data analysis while learning about laboratory safety and proper documentation. This course prepares students for advanced microbiological research and clinical applications.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 14th Edition by Patricia Tille
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Which type of media is designed to support the growth of a wide range of microorganisms?
A)Selective
B)Nutritive
C)Differential
D)Definitive
Q2) The microbiologist receives a sputum specimen for culture in the microbiology laboratory.Upon receipt the microbiologist should:
A)complete the set-up of media for identification of pathogens.
B)complete a direct Gram stain and preliminary report.
C)complete an abbreviated work-up of the specimen.
D)complete a culture and definitive identification of pathogens.
Q3) Direct examinations such as the Gram stain serve what purpose?
A)To determine the organism's genetic makeup
B)To give the physician an early indication of what may be wrong with the patient
C)To determine the type of flora in the throat and stool specimens
D)To determine the organism's colonial morphologic features
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true concerning dark-field microscopy?
A)This type of microscopy uses specific stains to enhance the contrast of certain bacteria.
B)The condenser does not allow light to pass directly through the specimen but directs the light to hit the specimen at an oblique angle.
C)Dark-field microscopy allows the visualization of larger viruses.
D)Dark-field microscopy can differentiate various difficult-to-grow organisms by using immunofluorescence.
Q2) The most critical step in the Gram stain is the application of the:
A)safranin.
B)crystal violet.
C)Gram's iodine.
D)Gram's decolorizer.
Q3) Of the different types of staining and microscopic techniques,which one of the following is basically the most sensitive?
A)Chromogenic
B)Fluorescence
C)Phase contrast
D)Light field
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Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) Interpretation of biochemical tests requires that the microbiologist:
A)correlate the biochemical results with the suspect organism identification.
B)correlate the biochemical results with the preliminary direct smear and staining characteristics.
C)utilize quality control organisms during interpretation to insure proper functioning of the test protocol.
D)all of the above are required.
Q2) Which category of media can be described as containing some factor or factors that allow colonies of one bacterial species or type to exhibit certain metabolic or culture characteristics that can be used to distinguish them from other bacteria growing on the same agar plate?
A)Enrichment
B)Supportive
C)Selective
D)Differential
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) The enzyme that is commonly used for primer extensions in the PCR method works best at what temperature?
A)25°C
B)56°C
C)72°C
D)94°C
Q2) The probe in the hybridization assay can be described as:
A)originating from the unknown organism to be detected or identified.
B)a reporter molecule that chemically forms a complex with the single-stranded probe deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
C)originating from an organism of known identity with a known sequence. D)the enzyme needed to elongate the strand.
Q3) Which of the following steps are crucial for the success of a nucleic acid amplification test,such as PCR?
A)Nucleic acid purification
B)Fluorescent resonance energy transfer (FRET)
C)Melting temperature analysis
D)Nucleic acid sequencing
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Chapter 9: Overview of Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection
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Q1) The presence of which of the following antibodies usually indicates a recent or an active infection?
A)Immunoglobulin (Ig)G
B)IgA
C)IgM
D)IgE
Q2) The difference between latex agglutination and coagglutination is:
A)the type of particle used to carry the antibody.
B)the type of target organism involved.
C)that coagglutination is less specific but more sensitive.
D)that coagglutination,not latex agglutination,can be used for direct antigen detection.
Q3) The antibody that is predominantly found in tears,saliva,and intestinal secretions is:
A)IgG.
B)IgA.
C)IgM.
D)IgE.
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Chapter 10: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Q1) Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive organism that produces the enzyme -lactamase,which renders certain types of antibiotics inactive.The mode of action that is prevented in certain antibiotics sensitive to this enzyme is:
A)cell wall synthesis.
B)protein synthesis to the 30S ribosomal subunit.
C)protein synthesis to the 50S ribosomal subunit.
D)deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)synthesis.
Q2) Polymyxin B
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
Q3) Antimicrobial agents that usually kill target organisms are said to be:
A)bactericidal.
B)antibiotic.
C)bacteriostatic.
D)antagonistic.
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Chapter 11: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) As a result of the organism going through several doubling generations of growth before inhibition,a haze of bacterial growth occurs on the agar around the disk.This phenomenon,which should be ignored,can be observed when testing which class of antibiotics?
A)Aminoglycosides
B)Sulfonamides
C)Penicillins
D)Cephalosporins
Q2) The minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)result recorded in antimicrobial testing can be defined as the:
A)lowest concentration of antimicrobial agent that should be used for optimal therapy. B)highest concentration of antimicrobial agent that should be used for optimal therapy.
C)lowest antimicrobial agent concentration that completely inhibits visible bacterial growth.
D)highest antimicrobial agent concentration that completely inhibits visible bacterial growth.
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Chapter 12: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The resident human microbiota,staphylococcus,which is more likely to cause infections in compromised hosts such as patients with cancer,is:
A)Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
B)S.aureus.
C)S.epidermidis.
D)S.intermedius.
Q2) The first identification test performed on a clinical isolate of gram-positive,catalase-positive cocci would likely be the:
A)penicillin test.
B)Gram stain.
C)oxidase test.
D)coagulase test.
Q3) In clinical isolates,the most likely identification of coagulase-positive,catalase-positive,gram-positive cocci that are penicillin resistant would be:
A)S.aureus.
B)S.intermedius.
C)Stomatococcus luteus.
D)Micrococcus aureus.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Differentiation of the pleomorphic strains of streptococci and the similar corynebacteria or lactobacilli can be best accomplished by:
A)examination of Gram stain of the colony.
B)vancomycin-susceptibility testing.
C)serologic testing.
D)examination of the morphologic features after growth in thioglycollate broth.
Q2) S.pneumoniae can be described as:
A)resistant to bile and optochin.
B) -hemolytic on sheep blood agar
C)CAMP positive
D)often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.
Q3) The development of glomerulonephritis is a problem that may be encountered by patients infected with:
A)E.faecalis.
B)S.pneumoniae.
C)S.pyogenes.
D)S.agalactiae.
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Chapter 14: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A gram-positive Bacillus,which is -hemolytic on 5% sheep blood agar,produces a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar,is nonmotile,and was isolated from the stool of a patient with abdominal pain and watery diarrhea.Because of the patient's existing immunocompromised state,the physician administered penicillin as the antibiotic therapy.The patient's condition did not improve after 7 days of treatment.Which one of the following statements explains the reason for the antibiotic failure?
A)The course was too abbreviated and should be given for 14 days.
B)The patient may be allergic to penicillin and its therapeutic effects.
C)Penicillin is ineffective against gram-positive organisms.
D)The organism produces -lactamase,which renders the drug inactive.
Q2) A U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-cleared immunochromatographic test produces a red line on the cassette and can presumptively identify which gram-positive Bacillus that is g-hemolytic and morphologically has a "Medusa head" appearance when grown on 5% sheep blood agar?
A)Bacillus subtilis
B)B.cereus
C)B.mycoides
D)B.anthracis
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Chapter 15: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 13-year-old girl presented to her physician complaining of being tired,having a mild sore throat and fever.She appears to have a grey coating on her tonsils when examined by the physician.The most logical etiologic agent associated with the patient's illness is:
A)Streptococcal pharyngitis.
B)diphtheriae.
C)scarlet fever.
D)Tonsillitis.
Q2) A gram-positive bacillus,which grew on Tinsdale agar,is esculin hydrolysis-negative,urease-positive,and nonlipophilic.The organism can be identified as:
A)C.diphtheria.
B)Corynebacterium glucuronolyticum.
C)Corynebacterium xerosis.
D)Corynebacterium ulcerans.
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Chapter 16: Erysipelothrix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A farmer has a localized,painful skin infection.Cultures are set up,and -hemolytic,catalase-negative,and gram-positive bacilli are isolated.Based on this information,which of the following biochemical results are expected-urease,H S production in TSI,and nitrate reduction?
A)Positive urease,positive TSI,and positive nitrate
B)Positive urease,negative TSI,and negative nitrate
C)Negative urease,positive TSI,and negative nitrate
D)Negative urease,negative TSI,and negative nitrate
Q2) Clue cells are associated with which gram-positive bacilli?
A)G.vaginalis
B)Lactobacillus
C)Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D)A.haemolyticum
Q3) A gram-positive bacillus identified as Lactobacillus is isolated in large quantities from the urine of a 16-year-old female.Based on this information,the patient should receive which antibiotic?
A)Penicillin
B)Tetracycline
C)Vancomycin
D)No antibiotics should be administered.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Non-acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include:
A)Nocardia.
B)Rhodococcus.
C)Streptomyces.
D)Gordona.
Q2) Nocardia spp.cause which of the following types of infections in individuals who are immunocompromised?
A)Mycetoma
B)Lymphocutaneous infections
C)Skin abscesses or cellulites
D)Invasive pulmonary infections
Q3) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend along the agar surface,which are called _____ hyphae.
A)surface
B)substrate
C)aerial
D)topical
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Chapter 19: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following species,which are widely distributed in nature and hospital environments?
A)Pseudomonas luteola
B)Acinetobacter spp.
C)Pseudomonas oryzihabitans
D)Bordetella trematum
Q2) Which organism may be mistaken for a lactose fermenter on MacConkey agar because of colonies exhibiting a purple hue on the media?
A)Acinetobacter spp.
B)P.luteola
C)S.maltophilia
D)Bordetella holmesii
Q3) Plump coccobacilli that tend to resist alcohol decolorization and may be mistaken for Neisseria spp.are:
A)Bordetella spp.
B)S.maltophilia.
C)Acinetobacter spp.
D)P.oryzihabitans.
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Chapter 21: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar
Organisms
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Q1) Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A)Ochrobactrum and Alcaligenes
B)Psychrobacter and Rhizobium
C)CDC group Ic and CDC group O-3
D)CDC group OFBA-1c and Shewanella
Q2) Which organism is a nonlactose-fermenter that oxidizes glucose and xylose and also morphologically resembles colonies of Enterobacteriaceae?
A)CDC group Ic
B)O.anthropi
C)S.putrefaciens
D)A.xylosoxidans
Q3) Although validated susceptibility testing methods do not exist for this group of organisms,in vitro data suggest that certain cephalosporins and aminoglycosides are effective against which one of the following groups of organisms?
A)O.anthropi
B)S.putrefaciens
C)P.yeei
D)R.radiobacter
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A patient with a bacteremia identified as E.meningoseptica infection was placed on intravenous penicillin;however,the patient did not improve after 5 days.Which one of the following statements explains these findings?
A)The dose was abbreviated and therefore did not have time to work.
B)The patient is most likely allergic to penicillin and is not responding.
C)Penicillin is ineffective against this organism.
D)An aminoglycoside should be given along with the penicillin to increase its effects.
Q2) This organism is often associated with infections in patients with leukemia or lymphoma,as well as preterm infants:
A)S.multivorum
B)C.indologenes
C)E.meningoseptica
D)Bergevella zoohelicum
Q3) The natural habitat of Chryseobacterium sp.can best be described as the:
A)mucous membranes of animals.
B)gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)natural environment.
D)genitourinary tract of animals.
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Chapter 23: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Quality control is set up to determine the validity of cetrimide agar.Which two organisms should be used?
A)B.bronchiseptica and Cupriavidus pauculus
B)A.denitrificans and Alcaligenes faecalis
C)Achromobacter piechaudii and B.bronchiseptica
D)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)Alcaligenes-like group 1 and C.pauculus
Q2) Gram-stain morphologic features,motility,and flagellar placement are important identifying characteristics of:
A)Chryseobacterium.
B)Flavobacterium.
C)Pseudomonas.
D)Bordetella.
Q3) The mode of transmission of A.denitrificans can best be described as:
A)person-to-person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)contaminated fluids or medical solutions.
D)close contact with animals.
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Chapter 24: Vibrio, aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) Which of the following species of Aeromonas is oxidase-positive,sucrose-positive,and can decarboxylate ornithine?
A) A.caviae
B)Allium schubertii
C)Aeromonas hydrophila
D)A.veronii biovar veronii
Q2) The reagent used in the "string test" is:
A)bile solubility.
B)sodium deoxycholate.
C)bile esculin.
D)0/129 (2,4-diamino-6,7-diisopropylpteridine).
Q3) Profuse watery diarrhea (i.e. ,"rice water stools"),leading to dramatic fluid loss,severe dehydration,and hypotension that frequently leads to death,is the hallmark of which toxin activity?
A)Cholera toxin (CT)
B)Enteric endotoxin
C)Shiga toxin
D)Toxin A
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Chapter 25: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A yellow-pigmented,gram-negative rod on blood agar that is oxidase-positive,motile by wet mount,and has the ability to oxidize glucose,xylose,and sucrose is most likely which of the following?
A)Treponema
B)Leptospira
C)Borrelia
D)Sphingomonas
Q2) When performing quality control on motility media,which of the following organisms should be used?
A)Acidovorax facilis and Sphingomonas spp.
B)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)group IIc and CDC group IIe
C)CDC group Iii and Sphingobacterium mizutaii
D)CDC group IIh and A.facilis
Q3) Although no definitive guidelines are available for the treatment of Sphingomonas paucimobilis infections,which antibiotic appears to have potential activity against this organism?
A)Penicillin
B)Ttrimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
C)Amoxicillin and Flagyl
D)Isoniazid and Imipenem
Page 27
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Chapter 28: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin,it is the drug of choice for infections involving:
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Weeksella virosa.
Q2) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A)Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis
B)M.haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica
C)P.multocida and Suttonella indologenes
D)Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae
Q3) Which test is used to differentiate P.multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?
A)Indole
B)Catalase
C)Nitrate
D)Sucrose
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Chapter 29: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) To test the validity of catalase reagent,which two organisms should be used?
A)A.actinomycetemcomitans and Kingella kingae
B)C.hominis and A.aphrophilus
C)K.denitrificans and K.kingae
D)Actinobacillus suis and Actinobacillus ureae
Q2) Which of the following biochemical reactions identifies an organism associated with blood,bone,and joint infections in young children?
A)Positive catalase,positive nitrate reduction,and positive indole
B)Negative catalase,positive nitrate reduction,and positive indole
C)Negative catalase,negative nitrate reduction,and positive indole
D)Negative catalase,negative nitrate reduction,and negative indole
Q3) Which organism is slightly a-hemolytic after 48 hours and is commonly associated with individuals with anatomic heart defects?
A)K.kingae
B)C.hominis
C)A.suis
D)Capnocytophaga spp.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Haemophilus
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Q1) Which of the following opportunistic organisms is associated with slowly progressive subacute bacterial endocarditis?
A)H.ducreyi
B)H.influenzae
C)Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
D)H.parahaemolyticus
Q2) Which of the following media provides the factors necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?
A)5% sheep blood agar
B)Brain-heart infusion agar
C)Chocolate agar
D)Nutrient agar
Q3) Growth of most Haemophilus species in culture is enhanced by:
A)incubation at 33°C to 35°C.
B)high humidity.
C)5% to 10% carbon dioxide (CO ).
D)enriched special media.
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Chapter 31: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Although molecular methods are available,such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR)for identifying the Bartonella species,limitations exist.One limitation to testing is the specificity of:
A)probes.
B)polymerases.
C)primers.
D)restriction enzymes.
Q2) Bacteremia,endocarditis,bacillary angiomatosis,cat-scratch disease,and peliosis hepatis can all be caused by:
A)Afipia felis.
B)Bartonella quintana.
C)B.clarridgeiae.
D)B.henselae.
Q3) Of the clinically significant Bartonella species,which is transmitted via a fleabite with the reservoir being rats?
A)B.bacilliformis
B)B.henselae
C)B.elizabethae
D)B.clarridgeiae
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Page 33
Chapter 33: Legionella
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Q1) A febrile and pneumonic illness first named in 1976 by scientists at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)who were investigating an epidemic of pneumonia among Pennsylvania State American Legion members attending a convention in Philadelphia is known as:
A)Philadelphia pneumonia.
B)legionnaires' disease.
C)tuberculosis.
D)rheumatic fever.
Q2) The medium or media of choice used to recover Legionella is:
A)buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE).
B)Regan-Lowe agar.
C)Löwenstein-Jensen medium.
D)blood and chocolate agars.
Q3) Who is at most risk to develop legionnaires' disease?
A)65-year-old transplant recipient
B)14 year old swimming in a lake
C)90 year old living in an apartment complex
D)Newborn baby to a mother infected with hepatitis
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Chapter 34: Brucella
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Q1) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:
A)dairy farmers.
B)fishermen.
C)prison guards.
D)those working with exotic birds.
Q2) Facultative,intracellular parasitic bacteria are those that are able to:
A)be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B)exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C)be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D)be cultured only inside living organisms such as mice.
Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are:
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
Q4) The animal reservoir for Brucella melitensis is:
A)cattle.
B)sheep or goats.
C)swine.
D)dogs.
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Q1) During the catarrhal stage of pertussis,symptoms are:
A)runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)vomiting and "whooping" as air is rapidly inspired into the lungs past a swollen glottis.
D)lymphocytosis and fever.
Q2) B.pertussis colonies growing on Regan-Lowe medium yields which of the following colonial morphologic appearances?
A)Star-shaped colonies
B)Mercury-drop colonies
C)Yellow-pigmented colonies
D)Shiny black-pigmented colonies
Q3) Pertussis (whooping cough)is an epidemic disease that is a highly contagious,acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the:
A)Brucella spp.
B)Bordetella spp.
C)Pasteurella spp.
D)Francisella spp.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Francisella
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Q1) Which assay is available to identify F.tularensis serologically?
A)Complement fixation
B)Direct fluorescent antibody test
C)Immunodiffusion assays
D)Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)
Q2) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory,a medium supplemented with which of the following ingredient(s)is necessary?
A)Cysteine and cystine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
Q3) Tularemia,characterized by glandular,ulceroglandular,oculoglandular,oropharyngeal,systemic,and pneumonic presentations,is caused by which of the following species?
A)Brucella
B)Bordetella
C)Pasteurella
D)Francisella
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Chapter 37: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Which of the following causes sodoku,which is characterized by swollen lymph nodes,chills,fever,headache,vomiting,and often severe joint pains,a rash on the palms,soles of the feet,and other extremities,and a granulomatous lesion?
A)S.moniliformis
B)S.minus
C)Bordetella spp.
D)Pasteurella spp.
Q2) Which of the following cause rat-bite fever,or Haverhill fever,which is characterized by acute onset of chills,fever,headache,vomiting,and severe joint pains,as well as a rash on the palms,soles of the feet,and other extremities?
A)Streptobacillus moniliformis
B)Brucella abortus
C)Bordetella spp.
D)Pasteurella spp.
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Chapter 38: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) Which one of the following statements is true regarding antimicrobial therapy and susceptibility testing?
A)Cephalosporins and macrolides are ineffective against M.catarrhalis.
B)Resistance to quinolones is emerging in strains of N.gonorrhoeae.
C)Most Neisseria spp.are resistant to penicillin.
D)Most strains of N.meningitidis are resistant to penicillin.
Q2) M.catarrhalis may be differentiated from gonococci and meningococci on the basis of its:
A)growth on blood agar at 35°C.
B)growth on nutrient agar at 22°C.
C)reduction of nitrite to nitrate.
D)production of DNase.
Q3) MTM,Martin-Lewis (ML),and New York City (NYC)media were all developed for the selective isolation of which organism?
A)M.catarrhalis
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)N.gonorrhoeae
D)N.mucosa
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Chapter 39: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Bronchial washing collected with a double lumen-plugged catheter is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
Q2) Nasopharyngeal swab is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
Q3) An anaerobic media,which contains ferric ammonium citrate and hemin,bile salts,and gentamicin,is used to isolate which group of organisms?
A)Bacteroides spp.
B)Clostridia spp.
C)Actinomyces spp.
D)Veillonella spp.
Q4) An acceptable specimen for anaerobic culture is:
A)nasopharyngeal swab.
B)tissue obtained at biopsy.
C)small bowel contents.
D)catheterized urine.
Q5) Urine via catheter is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
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Chapter 40: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) Nonpigmented Prevotella
A)Are kanamycin-resistant,colistin-resistant,and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)Are bile-sensitive,kanamycin-resistant,catalase-negative,and indole-negative
C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment
D)Reduces nitrate,and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)Are sensitive to kanamycin,and fluoresce a chartreuse color
Q2) Optimal recovery and identification of anaerobic bacteria in clinical specimens occurs when:
A)the initial incubation period is at 35°C to 37°C for 48 hours.
B)plates are incubated for at least 3 days before discarding as negative.
C)the initial incubation period is at 35°C to 37°C for 24 hours.
D)thioglycollate broth can be inspected daily for 3 days.
Q3) B.fragilis group
A)Are kanamycin-resistant,colistin-resistant,and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)Are bile-sensitive,kanamycin-resistant,catalase-negative,and indole-negative
C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment
D)Reduces nitrate,and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)Are sensitive to kanamycin,and fluoresce a chartreuse color
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Chapter 41: Mycobacteria
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Q1) The stain that requires heating the slide for better penetration of stain into the mycobacterial cell wall is known as the:
A)Kinyoun's.
B)Ziehl-Neelsen.
C)fluorochrome.
D)carbolfuchsin.
Q2) The specimens of choice for detecting nontuberculous mycobacterial disease are:
A)spontaneously produced sputa.
B)gastric lavages.
C)transtracheal aspirations.
D)bronchial lavages,washings,and brushings.
Q3) The specimens of choice for detecting urinary tract mycobacterial disease are:
A)single clean-catch midstream urine samples.
B)24-hour timed urine samples.
C)three daily clean-catch midstream urine samples.
D)biopsies of the suspected site.
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Chapter 42: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) A prokaryote that differs from most other bacteria with respect to its very small size and obligates intracellular parasitism is:
A)Rickettsia.
B)Bartonella.
C)Calymmatobacterium.
D)Coxiella.
Q2) Tropheryma whipplei is characterized by the presence of periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-staining macrophages,which indicates mucopolysaccharide or glycoprotein,in almost every organ system.Without treatment,this disease is uniformly fatal.Identification is achieved using:
A)enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
B)IFA.
C)immunoblotting.
D)real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Q3) Which of the following vectors transmit scrub typhus?
A)Lice
B)Ticks
C)Fleas
D)Chiggers
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) The definitive identification of which of the following organisms is accomplished by hemadsorption techniques?
A)Chlamydia trachomatis
B)Mycoplasma hominis
C)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D)Mycoplasma genitalium
Q2) Quality control is set up to test urea agar.M.genitalium and M.hominis are used;however,both organisms are negative for urease activity.Which one of the following statements explains these findings?
A)The urea agar is most likely expired.
B)The incubation time is most likely abbreviated.
C)A technical error has occurred.
D)These two organisms are poor choices for quality control of urea agar.
Q3) The laboratory method of choice to identify Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma infections is:
A)enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
B)direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
C)latex agglutination.
D)real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Page 45
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Chapter 44: The Spirochetes
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Q1) A test that uses gelatin particles sensitized with T.pallidum subsp.pallidum antigens to detect specific antitreponemal antibodies in patient serum is called the __________ test.
A)RPR
B)FTA-ABS
C)VDRL
D)TP-PA
Q2) The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is associated with the clearance of organism from the bloodstream and the release of cytokines within hours of antibiotic treatment.With which spirochete is this condition associated?
A)Treponema
B)Borrelia
C)Leptospira
D)Brachyspira
Q3) Gelatin particles
A)TP-PA
B)MHA-TP
C)PaGIA
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E)Magnetic beads
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Chapter 45: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Parasitology
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Q1) Which of the following intestinal parasites is found in humans and also in pigs?
A)G.lamblia
B)D.fragilis
C)Cryptosporidium spp.
D)Balantidium coli
Q2) The eggs of which of the following intestinal parasites are not commonly found in feces and must be detected by other diagnostic techniques?
A)Giardia lamblia
B)Cryptosporidium parvum
C)Clonorchis sinensis
D)Enterobius vermicularis
Q3) A 17-year-old male with a severe eye infection admits that he does not clean his contact lenses as often as he should.His eye infection is most likely the result of which parasite?
A)Toxoplasma gondii
B)Isospora belli
C)Strongyloides stercoralis
D)Acanthamoeba spp.
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Chapter 46: Intestinal Protozoa
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Q1) This flagellate is pear-shaped with "falling leaf" motility.It contains variant-specific surface proteins (VSPs)on its surface,which provide a mechanism for the organism to survive in the small intestine as a result of its ability to resist intestinal proteases.The organism is:
A)G.duodenalis.
B)C.mesnili.
C)D.fragilis.
D)E.hominis.
Q2) A tissue sample is sent to the laboratory and microscopically examined for the presence of amebae.To differentiate between the host cells and the organism,_______ stain is used to allow the organisms to appear bright pink with a green-blue background.
A)Trichrome
B)Giemsa
C)Wright's
D)periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
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Chapter 47: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
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Q1) Humans contract Chagas disease when the reduviid bug defecates while taking a blood meal and the parasites in the feces are rubbed or scratched into the bite wound or onto mucosal surfaces.Which stage in the blood infects the host cells?
A)Amastigote
B)Epimastigote
C)Trypomastigote
D)Promastigote
Q2) A thick ring,large nucleus,and bands across the cell and 6 to 12 merozoites in a mature schizont are all characteristics of which Plasmodium spp.?
A)P.vivax
B)P.ovale
C)P.falciparum
D)P.malariae
Q3) P.falciparum
A)Normal shape and size
B)Normal shape;size may be normal or slightly smaller
C)1.5 to 2.0 times larger than normal;oval to normal
D)60% of cells are larger than normal and oval
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Chapter 48: Protozoa From Other Body Sites
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Q1) The CSF would reveal which of the following results in infections caused by N.fowleri?
A)Increased glucose,increased protein,and positive Gram stain
B)Decreased glucose,decreased protein,and negative Gram stain
C)Decreased glucose,increased protein,and negative Gram stain
D)Increased glucose,decreased protein,and positive Gram stain
Q2) Sporozoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
Q3) Tissues suspected of containing Acanthamoeba cysts can be observed using various stains.A cyst that stains black has most likely been stained with the __________ stain.
A)methenamine silver
B)periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
C)Giemsa
D)Wright's
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Chapter 49: Intestinal Nematodes
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Q1) A 4-year-old boy attended day care 3 days per week.He was irritable,and his parents noticed that he had persistent perianal itching.A sticky paddle was pressed against the perianal region and sent to the laboratory for testing.The eggs microscopically observed would most likely have which one of the following morphologic features?
A)Long with a short buccal cavity
B)Thin shell with internal granules
C)Bipolar plugs
D)Flat-sided,football-shaped
Q2) Löffler syndrome is associated with which roundworm infection?
A)S.stercoralis
B)Ancylostoma duodenale
C)Trichostrongylus spp.
D)A.lumbricoides
Q3) A short buccal capsule,large bulb on the esophagus,and prominent genital primordium are all characteristics of which worm?
A)T.trichiura
B)Capillaria philippinensis
C)S.stercoralis
D)A.lumbricoides
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Tissue Nematodes
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Q1) Snails
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q2) Copepods
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q3) Crabs
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q4) Swine
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
52
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Chapter 51: Blood Nematodes
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Q1) Mansonella spp.
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
Q2) W.bancrofti
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
Q3) A Giemsa stain is performed on an eye exudate on a patient with calabar swelling,eosinophilia,and a recent travel history to Africa.L.loa is suspected;however,the sheath in the adult worm recovered does not stain.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The worm recovered is not L.loa.
B)The specimen should have been stained with trichrome stain.
C)The Giemsa stain is most likely expired.
D)No discrepancy is present.The sheath does not stain with Giemsa stain.
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Chapter 52: Intestinal Cestodes
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Q1) The T.solium organism,which causes cysticercosis and can grow to be 1.5 to 8 meters long,contains 7 to 13 lateral uterine branches along the proglottid.The intermediate host is:
A)dogs.
B)cats.
C)pigs.
D)cattle.
Q2) The mode of infection for which of the following organisms is the ingestion of cysticercoid in an infected arthropod or by the direct ingestion of the egg? Autoinfection may also occur.
A)D.latum
B)Hymenolepis nana
C)Taenia saginata
D)Taenia solium
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Chapter 53: Tissue Cestodes
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Q1) Epileptic seizures,headaches,and mental disturbances all result from infection with the Taenia solium organism.The definitive diagnosis is based on:
A)positive direct fluorescent antibody test.
B)observance of eggs in the stool.
C)positive India ink stain.
D)identification of cysts in tissue.
Q2) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?
A)T.solium
B)Echinococcus granulosus
C)Spirometra mansonoides
D)Echinococcus multilocularis
Q3) The Taenia multiceps tapeworm is 5 to 6 cm long and consists of 200 to 250 segments.It has four suckers in its scolex and a proboscis with 22 to 32 hooks arranged in two rows.This organism causes which condition?
A)Coenurosis
B)Cysticercosis
C)Hydatid disease
D)Sparganosis
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Chapter 54: Intestinal Trematodes
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Q1) The adult form of the fluke,Fasciolopsis buski,is elongated in shape and ranges from 20 to 75 mm long and 8 to 20 mm wide with an oral sucker at the anterior and a ventral sucker approximately midway to the posterior.The reservoir host for the fluke is: A)snails.
B)birds.
C)rodents. D)dogs.
Q2) A 36-year-old man who has traveled for several weeks in the orient is experiencing abdominal pain and diarrhea with a large amount of mucus.A H.heterophyes egg measuring 28 by 15 µm is identified in the stool.The treatment of choice for this intestinal trematode is:
A)metronidazole.
B)chloroquine.
C)albendazole. D)praziquantel.
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Chapter 55: Liver and Lung Trematodes
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Q1) Southeast Asian liver fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
Q2) Charcot-Leyden crystals are often observed in specimens infected with which one of the following trematodes?
A)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis)sinensis
B)Opisthorchis viverrini
C)Fasciola hepatica
D)Paragonimus westermani
Q3) The eggs of Paragonimus mexicanus measure approximately 80 µm by 40 µm,are unembryonated and operculated,and have thick shells that are brownish-yellow.An individual with this infection has most likely traveled to which endemic area?
A)Japan
B)Africa
C)New Guinea
D)South America
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Chapter 56: Blood Trematodes
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Q1) The only intermediate host required in the life cycle of blood flukes is a:
A)copepod.
B)crustacean.
C)freshwater snail.
D)freshwater fish.
Q2) Rodents,marsupials,and nonhuman primates are all reservoirs for which Schistosoma species?
A)S.japonicum
B)S.haematobium
C)S.mansoni
D)Schistosoma intercalatum
Q3) The eggs of the blood fluke Schistosoma haematobium range from 110 to 170 µm long by 40 to 70 µm wide and have a sharp,pointed terminal spine.In which specimen is this organism most likely found?
A)Ascites fluid
B)Sputum
C)Bile
D)Urine
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Chapter 57: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
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Q1) Colonies are isolated 4 days after incubation from a skin infection that disseminated in a burn victim.A fungal infection is suspected.Which of the following is a possible organism that may be identified?
A)Epidermophyton floccosum
B)Fusarium spp.
C)Cladosporium spp.
D)Microsporum audouinii
Q2) An example of a dimorphic fungus is:
A)Candida albicans.
B)Coccidioides immitis.
C)Cryptococcus neoformans.
D)Aspergillus fumigatus.
Q3) If a fungal colony is described as rugose,then it means that the colony:
A)is furrowed or convoluted.
B)is slightly raised in the center.
C)furrows radiate out from the center.
D)has a smooth surface with no aerial mycelium.
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Page 59
Chapter 58:
Hyaline Molds, Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and Opportunistic and Systemic Mycoses
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Q1) Which two assays should be used together for detecting antibodies toward B.dermatitidis,H.capsulatum,and C.immitis?
A)Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)and direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
B)Complement fixation and immunodiffusion
C)Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA)and Western blot
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)and latex agglutination
Q2) Which rapidly growing Aspergillus spp.(2 to 6 days)best describes a mold that produces a fluffy-to-granular,white-to-blue green colony?
A)A.niger
B)A.flavus
C)A.fumigatus
D)A.terreus
Q3) Which of the following Trichophyton spp.grows slowly (14 to 30 days)and best at 35°C to 37°C? In addition,enriched media with thiamine and inositol enhance its growth.
A)Trichophyton verrucosum
B)Trichophyton tonsurans
C)T.rubrum
D)T.mentagrophytes
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Chapter 59: Dematiaceious Molds
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Q1) White grain mycetoma
A)E.jeanselmei
B)P.boydii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)H.werneckii
E)Alternaria
Q2) Black-grain mycetoma
A)E.jeanselmei
B)P.boydii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)H.werneckii
E)Alternaria
Q3) This fundus exhibits cup- or flask-shaped collarette.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladophialophora
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
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Chapter 60: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pjirovecii
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Q1) In patients who do not have HIV,which underlying condition is considered a risk factor for acquiring PCP?
A)Malaria
B)Cystic fibrosis
C)Cytomegalovirus
D)Myasthenia gravis
Q2) Which type of molecular assay has been developed to identify P.jirovecii?
A)Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)
B)Strand displacement amplification (SDA)
C)Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
D)Real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Q3) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A)Bradyzoite
B)Trophozoite
C)Sporocyte
D)Cyst
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Chapter 61: The Yeasts
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Q1) A fungal infection found mostly in the tropics and temperate regions is characterized by the development of soft,yellow or pale-brown aggregations around hair shafts in the axillary,facial,genital,and scalp regions.The fungus that would most likely be isolated is:
A)Candida.
B)Malassezia.
C)Cryptococcus.
D)Trichosporon.
Q2) Encapsulated yeast is identified in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)of a patient with AIDS.The most likely stain or reagent used to identify this organism is:
A)potassium hydroxide (KOH).
B)calcofluor white.
C)lactophenol cotton blue.
D)India ink.
Q3) Agar medium overlaid with olive oil will enhance the growth of which organism?
A)Malassezia
B)Candida
C)Trichosporon
D)Cryptococcus
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Chapter 62: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing,
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Q1) A patient is diagnosed with an invasive Aspergillosis infection.The antifungal therapy that should be administered is:
A)nystatin.
B)griseofulvin.
C)amphotericin B.
D)fluconazole.
Q2) A patient who is positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)is diagnosed with a Cryptococcus neoformans infection.The attending resident prescribed Griseofulvin;however,the patient's condition did not seem to improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The dose should be increased to penetrate the blood-brain barrier.
B)Nystatin,which would have been more effective,should have been prescribed.
C)Griseofulvin is not effective against C.neoformans;therefore the therapy should be changed.
D)Potassium iodide is the therapy of choice,not griseofulvin.
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Chapter 63: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
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Q1) A 2-year-old girl is suspected of having a rotavirus infection.The specimen of choice to collect to identify the agent is:
A)stool.
B)blood.
C)urine.
D)throat.
Q2) Skin and mucous membranes
A)Varicella-zoster virus
B)Enterovirus
C)Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D)Parainfluenza virus
E)CMV
Q3) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)antibody
A)Adenovirus
B)HSV
C)HBV
D)Arbovirus
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Chapter 64: Viruses in Human Disease
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Q1) This hemorrhagic fever causes disease in humans and nonhuman primates such as chimpanzees,gorillas,and monkeys.It is identified in the laboratory using which type of assay?
A)Immunodiffusion
B)Peptide nucleic acid fluorescence in situ hybridization (PNA-FISH)
C)Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
D)Reverse-transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Q2) Adenoviruses are responsible for causing diseases such as keratoconjunctivitis,pneumonia,hemorrhagic cystitis,and gastroenteritis in children.Transmission is usually via:
A)contact with rodent urine.
B)respiratory secretions.
C)arthropod vector.
D)sexual contact.
Q3) Hantavirus classified in the Bunyaviridae family is transmitted via:
A)sandfly vector.
B)mosquito vector.
C)rodent excreta.
D)fecal-oral route.
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Page 66
Chapter 65: Antiviral Therapy Susceptibility Testing and Prevention
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Q1) Acyclovir
A)HSV
B)Influenza A
C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
E)HIV
Q2) Lamivudine
A)HSV
B)Influenza A
C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
E)HIV
Q3) Ribavirin
A)HSV
B)Influenza A
C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
E)HIV
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Chapter 66: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) In the case of infants and small children,how much blood is usually drawn for bacterial culture?
A)0.5 mL
B)1 mL
C)1 to 5 mL
D)No more than 10 mL
Q2) Patients receiving lipid-supplemented parenteral nutrition are at risk for developing fungemia caused by which organism?
A)Histoplasma capsulatum
B)Malassezia furfur
C)Coccidioides immitis
D)Candida albicans
Q3) Saponin,polypropylene glycol,SPS,and ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)are all components in which blood culture system?
A)BACTEC system
B)BacT/ALERT system
C)ESP system
D)Lysis centrifugation system
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68
Chapter 67: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) M.pneumoniae is detected as the most common agent of lower respiratory tract infection among:
A)previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.
B)adults younger than 30 years of age.
C)community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D)school-age children.
Q2) The sputum of a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)is stained with Kinyoun's carbolfuchsin stain.Which organism would test positive using this stain?
A)Streptomyces spp.
B)Pneumocystis jiroveci
C)S.aureus
D)Cryptosporidium spp.
Q3) Of the various types of specimens collected to diagnose respiratory infections,which one is acceptable for the detection of anaerobic agents?
A)Tracheostomy aspirates
B)Bronchial washings
C)Gastric aspirates
D)Transtracheal aspirates (TTA)
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69
Chapter 68: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) Epiglottitis
A)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,rhinovirus,and other viruses
B)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,Mycoplasma
C)H.influenza
D)S.pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium,Bacteroides,and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q2) Pharyngitis
A)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,rhinovirus,and other viruses
B)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,Mycoplasma
C)H.influenza
D)S.pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium,Bacteroides,and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
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Chapter 69: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
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Q1) The middle layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the: A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
Q2) The large,fluid-filled spaces within the brain are called the: A)choroid plexus.
B)ventricles.
C)meninges.
D)pia mater.
Q3) A collective term used for the three layers of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the: A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
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Chapter 70: Infections of the Eyes ears and Sinuses
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Q1) Keratitis
A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
Q2) Blepharitis
A)H.influenzae and S.pneumoniae
B)Bacteria,viruses,and occasionally lice
C)S.aureus,S.pneumoniae,and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Any bacterium,including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S.aureus and S.pyogenes
Q3) The organism that can be encountered in the conjunctival sac and that exists as indigenous flora is:
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B)Bacteroides fragilis.
C)Staphylococcus aureus.
D)Moraxella lacunata.
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Chapter 71: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) The most common etiologic agent in uncomplicated community-acquired urinary tract infection is:
A)Escherichia coli.
B)Klebsiella spp.
C)Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
D)Streptococcus pyogenes.
Q2) The most frequent cause of uncomplicated community-acquired urinary tract infections is:
A)S.saprophyticus.
B)Klebsiella spp.
C)E.coli.
D)Proteus.
Q3) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract are:
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)yeast.
C)Propionibacterium acnes.
D)Corynebacteria.
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Chapter 72: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) Epididymitis
A)Anaerobic and polymicrobic infections originating from normal genital flora
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)Gardnerella,Prevotella spp. ,Porphyromonas spp. ,Peptostreptococcus spp. ,Mobiluncus spp.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E)N.gonorrhoeae and C.trachomatis
F)E.coli and other enteric organisms
G)Mumps virus
Q2) Bartholinitis
A)Anaerobic and polymicrobic infections originating from normal genital flora
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)Gardnerella,Prevotella spp. ,Porphyromonas spp. ,Peptostreptococcus spp. ,Mobiluncus spp.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E)N.gonorrhoeae and C.trachomatis
F)E.coli and other enteric organisms
G)Mumps virus
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Chapter 73: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Stool received for routine culture in most clinical laboratories in the United States should be examined for the presence of at least:
A)Campylobacter,Salmonella,and Shigella spp.
B)Salmonella and Shigella spp.
C)Campylobacter and Vibrio spp.
D)Salmonella,Shigella,and Vibrio spp.
Q2) Gram-negative broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) XLD agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
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Chapter 74: Skin soft Tissue and Wound Infections
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Q1) A patient is diagnosed with gas gangrene in the skin as a result of bullous lesions associated with sepsis.The Gram-stain reaction and morphologic features of the most probable pathogen causing this infection is:
A)gram-positive cocci.
B)gram-positive bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) An abnormal passage between two organs or leading from an internal organ to the body surface is known as a:
A)fistula.
B)sinus tract.
C)necrotizing fascia.
D)decubitus.
Q3) An abscess that begins as a red nodule in a hair follicle that ultimately becomes painful and full of pus is a:
A)folliculitis.
B)furuncle.
C)carbuncle.
D)erythrasma.
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Page 76
Chapter
Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) A 68-year-old man has an osteomyelitis infection as a result of bacteremia.The most common etiologic agent found in this infection is:
A)Haemophilus spp.
B)S.aureus.
C)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D)Fusobacterium necrophorum.
Q2) Which fungal condition is most often detected in the bone marrow?
A)Brucellosis
B)Histoplasmosis
C)Tuberculosis
D)Leishmaniasis
Q3) Fluids should be processed for direct microscopic examination.If one organism is observed per oil immersion field,then at least _____ organisms per milliliter of specimen are present.
A)10<sup>2</sup>
B)10<sup>3</sup>
C)10<sup>4</sup>
D)10<sup>5</sup>
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Chapter 76: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Clinicians should always be notified of "panic values," that is,potentially life-threatening results.An example of a panic value is a(n):
A)elevated thyroid level.
B)positive urine culture.
C)positive blood culture.
D)elevated sodium level.
Q2) Introducing a continuous flow of events between steps of the process where continuous flow is possible
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
Q3) Challenging the wasted steps and eliminating all of the waste
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
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Chapter 77: Infection Control
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Q1) A patient should be placed in a private room that has monitored negative air pressure if he or she is infected with which organism?
A)H.influenzae
B)Mycoplasma pneumonia
C)Parvovirus B19
D)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing unique biologic or biochemical characteristics of the organism of interest is:
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriophage typing.
Q3) An infection acquired by a hospitalized patient that was not present when he or she entered the hospital is referred to as a(n)_____ infection.
A)autonomous
B)nosocomial
C)opportunistic
D)septic
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Chapter 78: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) In the three-tier Laboratory Response Network,confirmed bioterrorism agents should be sent to which laboratory?
A)Clinical
B)Sentinel
C)Reference
D)National
Q2) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe the act of using:
A)horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B)microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally.
C)microorganisms to wage war in peacetime.
D)living beings to wage war in peacetime.
Q3) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:
A)biosecurity.
B)bio crime.
C)microterrorism.
D)cactiterrorism.
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