Laboratory Medicine
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Laboratory Medicine is a multidisciplinary course that explores the principles and practices of clinical laboratory testing as they relate to the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of diseases. The course provides an in-depth understanding of laboratory methods in hematology, clinical chemistry, microbiology, immunology, transfusion medicine, and molecular diagnostics. Students learn to interpret laboratory data, understand quality assurance protocols, and consider the clinical impact of laboratory findings. Emphasis is placed on integrating laboratory results with clinical information to inform patient management and support evidence-based medical decisions.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Hematology and Fundamentals of Hemostasis 5th Edition by Denise M. Harmening
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36 Chapters
1596 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Morphology of Human Blood and Marrow Cells: Hematopoiesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) By increasing hematopoiesis, the hematopoietic system can respond to stimuli such as:
A) Infection
B) Bleeding
C) Hypoxia
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Q2) In which immature erythroid cell are nucleoli most visible?
A) Basophilic normoblast
B) Orthochromatic normoblast
C) Pronormoblast
D) Polychromatic normoblast
E) None of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Bone Marrow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cells have the two unique biologic characteristics of self-renewal and multilineage differentiation?
A) Pronormoblasts
B) Stem cells
C) Myeloblasts
D) Lymphoblast
E) Eosinophil
Answer: B
Q2) Hematogones are thought to be committed progenitor cells of what lineage?
A) Granulocytic
B) Platelets
C) Erythrocytic
D) Monocytic
E) Lymphoid
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: The Red Blood Cell: Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In hemoglobinuria, oxyhemoglobin predominates in alkaline urine and gives it what color?
A) Purple
B) Red
C) Brown
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Hemoglobin A<sub>2</sub> is defined biochemically as:
A) (\(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>\(\beta\)<sub>2</sub>)
B) (\(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>\(\gamma\)<sub>2</sub>)
C) (\(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>\(\delta\)<sub>2</sub>)
D) (\(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>\(\varepsilon\)<sub>2</sub>)
E) None of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Anemia: Diagnosis and Clinical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) used to measure?
A) Packed cell volume
B) Average size of RBC
C) Iron content
D) Hemoglobin content
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the hematocrit reference range for adult women?
A) 34 ± 5%
B) 45 ± 5%
C) 42 ± 5%
D) 47 ± 5%
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the mean corpuscular volume (MCV) used for?
A) Estimating the average size of RBCs
B) Estimating the hemoglobin content
C) Estimating the packed cell volume
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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6
Chapter 5: Evaluation of Red Blood Cell Morphology and
Introduction to Platelet and White Blood Cell Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drepanocyte is another name for which red cell?
A) Spherocyte
B) Sickle cell
C) Ovalocyte
D) Stomatocyte
E) Target cell
Q2) The grading of "slight" anisocytosis and poikilocytosis would indicate what percentage of RBCs would differ from normal red cells?
A) 5-10%
B) 25-50%
C) 50-75%
D) >75%
E) 10-25%
Q3) What hematologic condition is associated with the appearance of Heinz bodies?
A) Sickle cell anemia
B) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
C) Liver disease
D) Aplastic anemia
E) None of the above
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Chapter 6: Iron Metabolism and Hypochromic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of total body iron is present as plasma/transport iron?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 20%
D) 50%
E) 10%
Q2) Which of the following is readily absorbed by intestinal mucosal cells?
A) Ferric iron (Fe<sup>3+</sup>)
B) Ferrous iron (Fe<sup>2+</sup>)
C) Hemosiderin
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) What are the minimal daily requirements for iron and the corresponding iron content of food required for men and nonmenstruating females?
A) 1.0 mg/10 mg
B) 2.0 mg/20 mg
C) 3.0 mg/30 mg
D) 0.5 mg/5 mg
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Chapter 7: Megaloblastic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reversed myeloid-erythroid ratio in the bone marrow of a person with megaloblastic anemia is defined as:
A) Myeloid hyperplasia
B) Erythroid hypoplasia
C) Erythroid hyperplasia
D) Hypocellularity
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the morphological classification of megaloblastic anemia?
A) Microcytic hypochromic
B) Macrocytic hypochromic
C) Macrocytic normochromic
D) Microcytic normochromic
E) Normocytic normochromic
Q3) What protein is responsible for vitamin B<sub>12</sub> absorption?
A) Transcobalamin
B) Interleukin-3
C) Intrinsic factor
D) Erythropoietin
E) None of the above
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Chapter 8: Aplastic Anemia Including Pure
Red Cell
and Congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia and Paroxysmal
Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would the RBC indices reveal in a patient with aplastic anemia?
A) Normocytic/hypochromic
B) Macrocytic/normochromic
C) Normocytic/normochromic
D) Microcytic/hypochromic
E) None of the above
Q2) Which is a congenital disease associated with aplastic anemia?
A) Fanconi's anemia
B) Richter's syndrome
C) Hodgkin's disease
D) Kala-azar
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the etiology of aplastic anemia?
A) Radiation
B) Drugs
C) Chemicals
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Hemolytic Anemias:
Intracorpuscular Defects: I Hereditary Defects of the Red
Cell Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common treatment for most patients with HS?
A) Exchange transfusion
B) Chemotherapy
C) Splenectomy
D) No treatment
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following describes the procedure of the autohemolysis test?
A) Incubation of patient RBCs with a series of graded hypotonic salt solutions
B) Sterile incubation of patient RBCs in their own plasma for 48 hours at 37°C
C) Sterile incubation of patient RBCs in their own plasma for 24 hours at 25°C
D) Sterile incubation of patient RBCs in their own plasma for 72 hours at 56°C
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following are classic clinical manifestations of hereditary spherocytosis (HS)?
A) Jaundice
B) Anemia
C) Enlarged spleen
D) Mild uncompensated hemolytic anemia
E) All of the above
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Chapter 10: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: II
Hereditary Enzyme Deficiencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following forms of G6PD enzymes is the product of a mutant gene located on the X chromosome resulting in a G6PD deficiency that occurs in 10-15% of American blacks?
A) Gd A+
B) Gd A-
C) Gd Med
D) Gd B
E) Gd Canton
Q2) Hemolysis induced by infection is a clinical feature commonly seen in which G6PD deficiency?
A) Gd A-
B) Gd Med
C) Both
D) Neither
Q3) Occasionally transfusions may be required in which type of G6PD deficiency?
A) Gd A-
B) Gd Med
C) Both
D) Neither
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: III
the Hemoglobinopathies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following rare hemoglobins also sickles, giving a positive tube solubility test?
A) HbC Georgetown
B) HbS Memphis
C) Hb Porto-Alegre
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following hematological results will suggest an individual with sickle cell trait?
A) Peripheral blood smear is normal with the exception of target cells
B) Solubility screening tests are positive
C) Hemoglobin electrophoresis demonstrates hemoglobin A, hemoglobin S, and usually slightly elevated hemoglobin A<sub>2</sub>
D) Sickle cells present on the peripheral smear
E) A, B, and C
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Chapter 12: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: Iv
Thalassemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another name for thalassemia major?
A) Cooley's anemia
B) Fanconi's anemia
C) Alpha thalassemia
D) Schilling's syndrome
E) None of the above
Q2) What hemoglobin consists of four gamma chains?
A) Hemoglobin H
B) Hemoglobin Bart's
C) Hemoglobin F
D) Hemoglobin A<sub>2</sub>
E) None of the above
Q3) It has been hypothesized that a person who is heterozygous for the thalassemia gene is resistant to malaria caused by __________.
A) Plasmodium ovale
B) Plasmodium falciparum
C) Plasmodium vivax
D) Plasmodium malariae
E) None of the above
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Anemias: Extracorpuscular Defects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasmodium __________ has proven to be the most fatal of species of malaria presenting with massive intravascular hemolysis, jaundice, and hypotension.
A) vivax
B) ovale
C) malariae
D) falciparum
E) hemolytica
Q2) Which of the following antibodies do not cause a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A) Anti-E
B) Anti-K
C) Anti-e
D) Anti-C
E) Anti-M
Q3) Which IgG subclass cannot activate complement in immune hemolysis?
A) IgG1
B) IgG2
C) IgG3
D) IgG4
E) IgG1 and IgG2
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Chapter 14: Hypoproliferative Anemia: Anemia Associated With Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Macrocytosis in patients with cirrhosis and obstructive jaundice can be differentiated from the macrocytes seen in megaloblastic anemia because of:
A) An increase in mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
B) Absence of hypersegmented neutrophils
C) Megaloblastic anemia
D) Macro-ovalocytosis
E) Leukocytosis
Q2) Iron deficiency in patients with chronic liver disease is due to:
A) Blood loss
B) Poor dietary habits
C) Dysfunctional porphyria
D) Dysfunctional hemoglobin
E) None of the above
Q3) Chronic blood loss in a patient with malignancy results in __________ anemia.
A) Hyperchromic
B) Hypochromic
C) Normochromic
D) Infection-associated
E) None of the above
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Chapter 15: Cell Biology, Disorders of Neutrophils, Infectious
Mononucleosis, and Reactive Lymphocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cold agglutinins of __________ specificity are present in 20% of patients with infectious mononucleosis.
A) Anti-i
B) Anti-I
C) Anti-Fy<sup>a</sup>
D) Anti-H
E) None of the above
Q2) Clinical manifestations of infectious mononucleosis include:
A) Sore throat
B) Fatigue
C) Lymphadenopathy
D) Joint pain dysphagia
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following morphologies differentiates reactive lymphocyte from monocytes?
A) Pale blue-gray cytoplasm
B) Even staining quality
C) Increased patchy basophilic cytoplasm
D) Cytoplasmic vacuolation
E) None of the above
17
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Leukemia and the Acute Leukemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) In performing surface marker analysis for FAB classification M4 and M5, monoclonal antibodies specific for __________ cells would be detected by flow cytometry.
A) Lymphoid
B) Monocytic
C) Erythroid
D) Megakaryocytoid
E) None of the above
Q2) Pure cases of L1 ALL are characterized by the presence of __________ L1 blasts.
A) >30%
B) >50%
C) >90%
D) <30%
E) None of the above
Q3) Which type of ALL occurs primarily in adults?
A) L1
B) L2
C) L3
D) L4
E) None of the above
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders I: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following myeloproliferative disorders is characterized by a decreased LAP score?
A) PV
B) IMF
C) ET
D) AML
E) CML
Q2) In CML the term "maturation arrest" refers to the:
A) Presence of cellular differentiation beyond the blast stage
B) Absence of cellular differentiation beyond the blast or promyelocyte stage
C) Absence of cellular differentiation beyond the band stage
D) Absence of cellular differentiation beyond the metamyelocyte stage
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the M/E ratio in patients with CML?
A) 1:10
B) 1:5
C) 10:1
D) 3-4:1
E) 4:1
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Chapter
18: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders Ii: Polycythemia Vera, Essential Thrombocythemia, and
Idiopathic Myelofibrosis
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Q1) In polycythemia vera, therapeutic phlebotomies reduce the total red cell mass by removing 350-500 mL over 2-3 days until the hematocrit is maintained at __________ percent.
A) 50-60
B) 40-45
C) 30-40
D) >60
E) <30
Q2) The presence of what gene mutation is one of the major citeria for diagnosis of PV?
A) Philadelphia chromosome
B) BCR-ABL
C) JAC2V617F
D) RAS
E) MML
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Chapter 19: Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chromosomal abnormalities are directly correlated with the presence of the __________ population in patients with MDS.
A) Promyelocyte
B) Blast
C) Megakaryocyte
D) Erythrocyte
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to affect prognosis in MDS?
A) Leukopenia
B) Increased bone marrow myeloblasts
C) Erythroid hyperplasia
D) Thrombocytosis
E) None of the above
Q3) The fundamental characteristic of MDS is:
A) Peripheral blood cytopenia and bone marrow hypocellularity
B) Peripheral blood cytopenia and bone marrow hypercellularity
C) Peripheral blood cytosis and bone marrow hypocellularity
D) Peripheral blood cytosis and bone marrow hypercellularity
E) None of the above
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia and Related
Lymphoproliferative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common etiologic agent for reactive lymphocytosis is:
A) Viral
B) Bacterial
C) Fungal
D) Unknown
E) None of the above
Q2) The following is true regarding hairy cell leukemia:
A) Pancytopenia is a common finding
B) Lymphocytes appear as hair-like cytoplasmic projections
C) Alkaline phosphatase is not inhibited by tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) reaction
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Q3) Clinical features of CLL include all of the following except:
A) Absolute lymphocytosis
B) Splenomegaly
C) Axial lymphadenopathy
D) Thrombocytosis
E) None of the above
22
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Chapter 21: The Lymphomas
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Q1) Which of the following is true regarding the low-grade non-Hodgkin's lymphomas?
A) Survival without treatment averages greater than 5 years.
B) Disease is usually advanced at diagnosis.
C) Multiagent chemotherapy can prolong survival.
D) Usually express B-cell phenotype
E) All of the above
Q2) The Ann Arbor staging system is used for all non-Hodgkin's lymphoma disorders except:
A) Burkitt's lymphoma
B) Immunoblastic lymphoma
C) Lymphoblastic lymphoma
D) Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
E) None of the above
Q3) The diffuse aggressive lymphomas are:
A) Seldom curable
B) Rapidly fatal if untreated
C) Best treated with a combination of surgery and radiotherapy
D) Single-agent chemotherapy is the treatment of choice.
E) All of the above
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Multiple Myeloma and Related Plasma Cell Disorders
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Q1) Which test is the most useful predictor of tumor load and disease activity, and in predicting the prognosis of multiple myeloma patients?
A) Albumin
B) LDH
C) BUN
D) Calcium
E) Beta-2-microglobulin
Q2) Multiple myeloma can be differentiated from primary plasma cell leukemia by which of the following?
A) Hyperviscosity
B) Platelet dysfunction
C) Presence of plasma cells in circulation
D) Splenomegaly
E) Hypercalcemia
Q3) Immune globulins (antibodies) are proteins produced by __________.
A) B lymphocytes
B) T lymphocytes
C) NK cells
D) Granulocytes
E) None of the above
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Chapter 23: Lipid Lysosomal Storage Diseases and Histiocytosis
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Q1) In Tay-Sachs disease, the number and size of vacuoles present in __________ in the peripheral blood is related to the duration of disease.
A) Myelocytes
B) Lymphocytes
C) Monocytes
D) Megakaryocytes
E) None of the above
Q2) In Niemann-Pick disease there is an accumulation of __________ in histiocytes as well as cholesterol.
A) Unmetabolized triglycerides
B) Metabolized triglycerides
C) Unmetabolized lipid sphingomyelin
D) Metabolized chylomicrons
E) None of the above
Q3) The aim of control in the lipid storage diseases is directed at:
A) Controlling anemia
B) Prenatal detection
C) Correcting bone malformation
D) Dietary nutrition to lower cholesterol
E) Hyperlipidemia
25
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Hemostasis
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Q1) __________ is a reversible process whereby platelets stick to a foreign surface.
A) Aggregation
B) Adhesion
C) Reverse reaction
D) Agglutination
E) Secretion
Q2) Which constituent of the peripheral zone contain glycoproteins responsible for blood group specificity (ABO), tissue compatibility [human leukocyte antigen (HLA)], and platelet antigenicity?
A) Glycocalyx
B) Plasma membrane
C) Open canalicular system
D) Submembranous region
E) None of the above
Q3) The peripheral zone is a complex region of the platelet consisting of:
A) Glycocalyx
B) Plasma membrane
C) Open canalicular system (OCS)
D) Submembranous region
E) All of the above
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Chapter 25: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis: Quantitative and
Qualitative Platelet Disorders and Vascular Disorders
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Q1) Typical blood smear morphology in ITP includes:
A) Schistocytes
B) Nucleated red blood cells
C) Increased numbers of normal eosinophils
D) Large granular platelets
E) Platelet satellitism
Q2) All of the following are possible mechanisms for the pathogenesis in TTP except:
A) TTP plasma is deficient in a platelet-aggregating factor inhibitor
B) Large vWF multimers promote platelet agglutination.
C) Endothelial cell damage via a plasma factor results in platelet adhesion.
D) Inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase (aspirin-like)
E) Deficiency of prostacyclin (PGI<sub>2</sub>) synthesis and release leading to platelet aggregation and thrombosis
Q3) Laboratory findings in TTP include all of the following except:
A) Reticulocytosis
B) Thrombocytosis
C) Elevated LDH
D) Schistocytosis
E) Decreased haptoglobin
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Chapter 26: Disorders of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Q1) All of the following are laboratory findings consistent with hemophilia A except:
A) Prolonged APTT
B) Prolonged bleeding time
C) Normal PT
D) Normal vWF:Ag
E) Normal platelet count
Q2) In hemophilia A patients, factor VIII:C should be maintained at a level of at least __________ percent of normal activity.
A) 50
B) 30
C) 10
D) 40
E) None of the above
Q3) Which is (are) an effective treatment(s) for vWD?
A) Cryoprecipitate
B) Concentrates of vWF
C) Red blood cells
D) A and B
E) A and C
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Chapter 27:
Interaction of the Fibrinolytic, Coagulation,
Kinin Systems; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation; and Related Pathology
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Q1) DIC due to direct activation of factor VII seen after massive injury results from:
A) Release of tissue thromboplastin
B) Release of calcium
C) Plasminogen activation
D) Thrombo-thrombomodulin complex
E) None of the above
Q2) Which substance forms a complex with protein C in the inhibition of activated factors V and VIII?
A) Protein S
B) Urokinase
C) Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)
D) Kallikrein
E) None of the above
Q3) The peripheral blood smear in DIC resembles that of:
A) Iron-deficiency anemia
B) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
C) Hemoglobin C disease
D) Megaloblastic anemia
E) None of the above
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Q1) Naturally occurring substances that limit thrombogenesis include antithrombin, heparin cofactor, and __________.
A) Protein S
B) Protein C
C) Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which integral membrane protein present on the surface of endothelial cells serves as a cofactor for thrombin-mediated activation of protein C?
A) Heparin
B) Fibrinogen
C) Plasmin
D) Thrombomodulin
E) None of the above
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Quality Control in the Hematology Laboratory
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Q1) Which of the following is a part of quality assurance?
A) Procedure manual
B) Equipment function checks
C) Calibration verification procedures
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is the most common source of laboratory errors?
A) Preanalytical factors
B) Analytical factors
C) Postanalytical factors
D) Nonanalytical factors
Q3) Which Westgard rule refers to one data point exceeding the ±2 SD limit?
A) 1<sub>2s</sub>
B) 1<sub>3s</sub>
C) 2<sub>2s</sub>
D) 4<sub>1s</sub>
Q4) Which Westgard rule refers to one data point exceeding the ±3 SD limit?
A) 1<sub>2s</sub>
B) 1<sub>3s</sub>
C) 2<sub>2s</sub>
D) 4<sub>1s</sub>
Page 31
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Chapter
Quantitative, and Morphologic Analysis of Serous, Cerebrospinal, and Synovial
Fluids
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Q1) The presence of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals is typically found in patients with __________________.
A) Gout
B) Chondrocalcinosis
C) Ankylosing spondylitis
D) Osteoarthritis
Q2) For cerebrospinal fluid analysis, which tube is used for chemical analysis?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q3) For cerebrospinal fluid analysis, which tube is used for cell counts?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
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Chapter 31: Hematology Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing a reticulocyte count, _________ total red cells are counted in consecutive oil-immersion fields.
A) 5000
B) 500
C) 1000
D) 2000
E) None of the above
Q2) When performing an osmotic fragility test, normal blood will demonstrate hemolysis at the ___________ concentration of saline.
A) 0.35%
B) 0.45%
C) 0.40%
D) 0.20%
E) None of the above
Q3) The normal WBC values for a 1-week-old baby are _______.
A) 9-30 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) 5-21 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) 6-17.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) 6.2-12 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
E) 4.8-10.8 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
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Chapter 32: Principles of Automated Differential Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The RDW is calculated as the coefficient of variation (CV) of the __________.
A) Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
B) Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
C) Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
D) Mean platelet volume (MPV)
E) None of the above
Q2) In Technicon H1 technology, red cells and platelets are counted based on their __________ properties.
A) Conductance
B) Light scattering
C) Cell volume
D) Ion exchange
E) None of the above
Q3) The Technicon H1 instrument identifies and grades (1+ to 4+) various RBC abnormalities including:
A) Microcytosis
B) Macrocytosis
C) Hypochromia
D) Hyperchromia
E) All of the above
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Chapter 33: Coagulation Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the range of pH for samples used for platelet aggregation studies?
A) 7.0-8.0
B) 6.5-8.5
C) 4.0-6.0
D) 7.0-9.0
E) None of the above
Q2) Stabilization of the fibrin clot depends on plasma factor __________, which converts hydrogen bonds to covalent bonds by transamination.
A) X
B) XI
C) XII
D) XIII
E) None of the above
Q3) For coagulation procedures, the ratio of blood to anticoagulant is __________.
A) 5:1
B) 10:1
C) 9:1
D) 1:9
E) None of the above
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Chapter 34: Applications of Flow Cytometry to Hematology and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In flow cytometry, forward-angle light scatter provides information relevant to cell
A) Shape
B) Size
C) Hemoglobin content
D) Iron content
Q2) In HIV infection, what is monitored to determine if antiviral treatment should be started?
A) CD8 absolute counts
B) CD3 percentage
C) CD4 absolute counts
D) CD8 percentage
Q3) The forward-scattered (FSC) and side-scattered (SSC) values for lymphocytes compared with those for monocytes and neutrophils are:
A) Lower
B) Higher
C) Identical
D) Indeterminate
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Chapter 35: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques in Hematopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which anticoagulant is preferred for diagnostic procedures that analyze DNA since it does not inhibit the action of restriction endonucleases?
A) Heparin
B) Sodium fluoride (NAFl)
C) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
D) Calcium oxalate
E) None of the above
Q2) The restriction endonuclease HindIII is derived from which of the following organisms?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Bacillus amyloliquifaciens
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
E) Staphylococcus aureus
Q3) DNA or RNA is readily extracted from which of the following specimens?
A) Blood
B) Marrow
C) Body fluid cells
D) Tissue samples
E) All of the above
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Chapter 36: Special Stainscytochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the anticoagulant of choice in the LAP staining procedure?
A) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
B) Heparin
C) Sodium citrate
D) Sodium fluoride
E) None of the above
Q2) The __________ stain incorporates the substrate alpha-naphthol butyrate coupled with the diazo salt for staining of macrophages.
A) Peroxidase
B) Specific esterase
C) Nonspecific esterase
D) Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
E) None of the above
Q3) ____________ percent of patients in CML blast crisis exhibit positive TdT activity.
A) 50
B) 5
C) 20
D) 30
E) Zero
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Page 38