Laboratory Diagnostics
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Laboratory Diagnostics is a course designed to provide students with foundational knowledge and practical skills in the analysis and interpretation of laboratory tests commonly used in clinical practice. The course covers key techniques in hematology, clinical chemistry, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Emphasis is placed on the understanding of test principles, the selection and proper handling of specimens, troubleshooting of laboratory procedures, and the clinical significance of test results. Through hands-on laboratory sessions and case studies, students learn to apply diagnostic methods in the detection and monitoring of diseases, enabling them to contribute effectively to patient care and medical decision-making processes.
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Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition by Patricia Tille
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Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Q1) The most basic taxonomic group that can be defined as a collection of bacterial strains that share many common physiologic and genetic features is:
A) genus.
B) species.
C) class.
D) kingdom.
Answer: B
Q2) The taxon that is composed of similar species that have several important features in common but differ sufficiently to still maintain their status as individual species is which one of the following?
A) Class
B) Order
C) Family
D) Genus
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, Metabolism, and Structure
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Q1) The term used when oxidative phosphorylation uses oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor is:
A) substrate-level phosphorylation.
B) fermentative metabolism.
C) anaerobic respiration.
D) aerobic respiration.
Answer: D
Q2) A bacterial cell that contains teichoic acid stains which color on the Gram stain?
A) Pink
B) Red
C) Green
D) Purple
Answer: D
Q3) All genes within an organism make up that organism's:
A) chromosomes.
B) genome.
C) nucleotides.
D) DNA.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) IgM is the:
A) first antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered.
B) antibody that is associated with various parasitic infections.
C) antibody that is secreted in various body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous membranes.
D) second antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered and the most abundant.
Answer: A
Q2) Cells that ingest and destroy bacteria and other foreign particles are called:
A) phagocytes.
B) lymphocytes.
C) goblet cells.
D) ciliated cells.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) Information concerning a chemical product's health hazards, toxicity, and disposal procedures is:
A) found in the manufacturer's material safety data sheets (MSDS).
B) found on the product label.
C) proprietary information and only released at the manufacturer's discretion.
D) obtained through the manufacturer's technical support division; acquiring access to that information is the responsibility of the laboratory worker.
Q2) To be sterilized in an autoclave, media or instruments should be:
A) packed tightly to avoid dangerous pressure pockets.
B) processed for 15 minutes at 121° C and 15 psi pressure.
C) processed for 30 to 60 minutes at 132° C and 15 psi pressure.
D) processed for at least 1 hour at 121° C and 15 psi pressure.
Q3) Procedures such as grinding, mincing, vortexing, and preparing smears:
A) are hazardous and should be performed while wearing gloves and gown protection.
B) create aerosol droplets and should be performed only in an approved biosafety cabinet.
C) should be avoided with specimens known to contain infectious agents.
D) produce a spill hazard and should be performed over an absorptive mat.
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Specimens for microbiologic studies should be:
A) transported to the laboratory within 48 hours of collection.
B) collected in nonsterile specimen containers.
C) transported in sealable, leak-proof plastic bags with a separate section for paperwork.
D) sent to the laboratory on ice, no matter what type of specimen.
Q2) Which type of media is designed to support the growth of a wide range of microorganisms?
A) Selective
B) Nutritive
C) Differential
D) Definitive
Q3) Which specimen culture, if positive, should be immediately reported to the clinician?
A) Urine
B) Blood
C) Throat
D) Stool
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) In microscopy, resolution can be defined as the:
A) magnification power.
B) extent to which detail in the magnified object is maintained.
C) ability of objects to stand out from the background.
D) ability to see objects against a black background.
Q2) Bacterial cells with thick peptidoglycan and numerous teichoic acid cross-linkages are Gram stained.The organisms stain pink.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The bacterial cells were most likely not heat-fixed to the slide.
B) The bacterial cells were subjected to the decolorizer too long and were overdecolorized.
C) The lot of Gram-stain reagent is most likely expired.
D) No discrepancy exists; cells with this composition stain pink on Gram stain.
Q3) Contrast in microscopy is most commonly achieved by:
A) changing objectives for various specimens.
B) increasing the resolution or resolving power.
C) staining techniques.
D) adding a blue filter to the light path.
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Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) In which category of media would blood agar best fit?
A) Selective
B) Differential
C) Selective and differential
D) Supportive only
Q2) What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces incomplete hemolysis and a greening discoloration of the medium?
A) Beta
B) Gamma
C) Alpha
D) Kappa
Q3) Which category of media can be described as containing specific nutrients required for the growth of particular bacterial pathogens in a patient specimen?
A) Enrichment
B) Supportive
C) Selective
D) Differential
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) An organism whose genetic makeup is 50% C-G bonds would have a(n)_________ melting temperature (Tm), compared with an organism with 20% C-G bonds.
A) higher
B) lower
C) equal
D) similar
Q2) Which enzyme recognizes a specific nucleotide sequence (~4-8 nucleotides in length)and catalyzes the digestion of the nucleic acid at that site, causing a break in the DNA strand?
A) Ligase
B) Gyrase
C) Helicase
D) Endonuclease
Q3) The enzyme that is commonly used for primer extensions in the PCR method works best at what temperature?
A) 25º C
B) 56º C
C) 72º C
D) 94º C
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Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism
Detection
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Q1) A modification of the Ouchterlony method that speeds up the migration of an antigen and antibody by applying an electrical current is referred to as:
A) double immunodiffusion.
B) counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C) particle agglutination.
D) enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) The major advantage of immunofluorescent microscopy assays is that:
A) extensive training is not necessary.
B) it serves as an excellent way to preserve the reaction for referral and archiving.
C) visual assessment of the adequacy of a specimen is possible.
D) fluorescent microscopes are easily accessible to most laboratories.
Q3) The difference between latex agglutination and coagglutination is:
A) the type of particle used to carry the antibody.
B) the type of target organism involved.
C) that coagglutination is less specific but more sensitive.
D) that coagglutination, not latex agglutination, can be used for direct antigen detection.
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Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Antibody-mediated immune responses produced by specific proteins are generated by:
A) lymphocytes of the T class.
B) lymphocytes of the B class.
C) neutrophils.
D) basophils.
Q2) Specific proteins produced by cells of the immune system in response to the presence of foreign molecules that circulate in the serum and are present in secretions such as saliva are called:
A) antigens.
B) immunoglobulins.
C) cytokines.
D) phagogens.
Q3) For most pathogens to be diagnostic of current infection, there must be a(n)_____ in the patient's antibody titer of _____ doubling dilutions.
A) decrease; two
B) increase; two
C) decrease; four
D) increase; four
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Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action and Resistance
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Q1) Polymyxin B
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition
Q2) Antimicrobial resistance resulting from the normal genetic, structural, or physiologic state of a microorganism is referred to as ________ resistance.
A) intrinsic
B) inherent
C) microorganism-mediated
D) clinical
Q3) Gentamicin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition
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Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) Detection of the haze produced by some resistant staphylococci and enterococci against methicillin and vancomycin can best be accomplished by:
A) using reflected light.
B) using transmitted light.
C) placing the medium under the light, rather than in front of it.
D) microscopy.
Q2) The serum bactericidal test (SBT)involves:
A) subculturing the clear tubes of a completed broth dilution test.
B) 99.9% reduction in CFUs/mL, compared with the organism concentration in the original inoculum.
C) using patient serum to detect bacteriostatic and bactericidal activity and the antibacterial impact of factors other than the antibiotics.
D) microscopically interpreting results using microtiter plates.
Q3) Growth on the oxacillin agar screen means that a patient should be treated with which antibiotic?
A) Oxacillin
B) Methicillin
C) Vancomycin
D) Cephalosporin
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Chapter 13: Staphylococcus Micrococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the oxidase reagent?
A) Staphylococcus aureus and S. epidermidis
B) S. epidermidis and Enterococcus
C) Aerococcus and Enterococcus
D) Micrococcus and Aerococcus
Q2) Isolates of coagulase-negative Staphylococcus from urinary tract infections can be presumptively identified as S.saprophyticus on the basis of its:
A) penicillin susceptibility.
B) novobiocin resistance.
C) penicillin resistance.
D) novobiocin susceptibility.
Q3) The first identification test performed on a clinical isolate of gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci would likely be the:
A) penicillin test.
B) Gram stain.
C) oxidase test.
D) coagulase test.
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Chapter 14: Streptococcus Enterococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The development of glomerulonephritis is a problem that may be encountered by patients infected with:
A) Enterococcus faecalis.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) S. pyogenes.
D) S. agalactiae.
Q2) Erythrogenic toxin, hyaluronidase enzyme, and hemolysins S and O are extracellular products of:
A) Enterococcus faecalis.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) S. pyogenes.
D) S. agalactiae.
Q3) Differentiation of the pleomorphic strains of streptococci and the similar corynebacteria or lactobacilli can be best accomplished by:
A) examination of Gram stain of the colony.
B) vancomycin-susceptibility testing.
C) serologic testing.
D) examination of the morphologic features after growth in thioglycollate broth.
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Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following types of anthrax occurs after ingesting the spores and affects the abdominal or oropharyngeal area? (Patients usually die from toxemia and overwhelming sepsis.)
A) Cutaneous
B) Pulmonary
C) Gastrointestinal
D) Bubonic
Q2) A U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-cleared immunochromatographic test produces a red line on the cassette and can presumptively identify which gram-positive Bacillus that is nonhemolytic and morphologically has a "Medusa head" appearance when grown on 5% sheep blood agar?
A) Bacillus subtilis
B) B. cereus
C) B. mycoides
D) B. anthracis
Q3) Media that can be used for isolating Bacillus anthracis include:
A) Thayer-Martin agar.
B) 5% sheep blood agar.
C) MacConkey agar.
D) Columbia blood agar with colistin-nalidixic acid (CNA).
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Chapter 16: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-positive, gram-positive bacillus that is not acid-fast, does not branch, and does not form spores could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A) Corynebacterium
B) Bacillus
C) Actinomyces
D) Mycobacterium
Q2) The organism that exhibits characteristic end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours is:
A) Listeria monocytogenes.
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C) Bacillus anthracis.
D) Bacillus cereus.
Q3) Quality control is set up on urea media.Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of the media?
A) C. ulcerans and C. diphtheria (subsp. mitis)
B) C. diphtheria (subsp. gravis) and C. diphtheria (subsp. intermedius)
C) C. ulcerans and C. pseudotuberculosis
D) C. diphtheria (subsp. belfanti) and C. diphtheria (subsp. gravis)
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Chapter 17: Erysipelothrix Lactobacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, nonbranching, gram-positive rod that produces hydrogen sulfide when inoculated into triple sugar iron (TSI)agar is most likely:
A) Corynebacterium.
B) Bacillus.
C) Actinomyces.
D) Erysipelothrix.
Q2) Clue cells are associated with which gram-positive bacilli?
A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Lactobacillus
C) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D) Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Q3) To test the validity of TSI media, quality control should be performed using which two organisms?
A) Gardnerella and Lactobacillus
B) Erysipelothrix and Gardnerella
C) Propionibacterium and Lactobacillus
D) Actinomyces and Arcanobacterium
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Chapter 18: Nocardia Streptomyces Rhodococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Partially acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include:
A) Nocardia.
B) Mycobacteria.
C) Streptomyces.
D) Actinomadura.
Q2) A chronic, granulomatous infection of subcutaneous tissues, which is caused by aerobic actinomycetes resulting in tissue swelling and draining sinus tracts, is referred to as:
A) actinomycetoma.
B) infectious granulomas.
C) lymphocytoma.
D) Actinomadura.
Q3) The group of bacteria that can be described as being normal inhabitants of soil and water and primarily responsible for the decomposition of plant material is:
A) Rhodococcus.
B) Nocardia.
C) Gordonia.
D) Tsukamurella.
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) Escherichia coli would appear what color on HE agar?
A) Green
B) Green with a black center
C) Yellow
D) Yellow with a black center
Q2) MacConkey-sorbitol agar is useful for detecting pathogenic strains of:
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Shigella spp.
C) Salmonella spp.
D) Vibrio spp.
Q3) Which of correct for the description "acid slant, acid butt, no H S"?
A) Salmonella spp.
B) Escherichia coli
C) Proteus spp.
D) Pseudomonas spp.
Q4) Which is correct for the description "alkaline slant, acid butt, no H S"?
A) Salmonella spp.
B) Escherichia coli
C) Proteus spp.
D) Pseudomonas spp.
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Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) For more serious infections caused by Acinetobacter spp., such as pneumonia or bacteremia, effective treatment may require the use of:
A) multiple rounds of penicillin or a similar antibiotic.
B) a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic.
C) repeated high-level doses of gentamycin.
D) single-drug therapy in combination with a steroid.
Q2) Of the following species, which are widely distributed in nature and hospital environments?
A) Pseudomonas luteola
B) Acinetobacter spp.
C) Pseudomonas oryzihabitans
D) Bordetella trematum
Q3) Which organism may be mistaken for a lactose fermenter on MacConkey agar because of colonies exhibiting a purple hue on the media?
A) Acinetobacter spp.
B) Pseudomonas luteola
C) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
D) Bordetella holmesii
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Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A convenient and reliable identification scheme for Pseudomonas aeruginosa involves which of the following conventional tests?
A) Oxidase, triple sugar iron (TSI) slant, growth at 42° C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar
B) Catalase, lysine iron agar (LIA) slant, growth at 42° C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar
C) Oxidase, TSI slant, growth at 24° C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar
D) Catalase, TSI slant, growth at 42° C on sheep blood agar or blood trypticase soy agar
Q2) Which organism exhibits bipolar staining on the Gram stain, which resembles a "safety-pin" appearance?
A) Burkholderia mallei
B) Pseudomonas pseudomallei
C) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group
D) Brevundimonas diminuta
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Chapter 22: Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The reservoir for Ochrobactrum anthropi is:
A) environment only, not human flora.
B) animal oral and respiratory flora.
C) environment, cold climates.
D) environment and human flora.
Q2) Which nonlactose-fermenting organism that rarely causes human infection, grows poorly at 35º C; however, grows optimally between 20º and 25º C?
A) Psychrobacter immobilis
B) Alcaligenes xylosoxidans
C) Rhizobium radiobacter
D) Shewanella putrefaciens
Q3) The most common type of infection caused by both Rhizobium radiobacter and Ochrobactrum anthropi is:
A) peritonitis.
B) endocarditis.
C) meningitis.
D) bacteremia.
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Q1) Which organism's virulence is due to protease and gelatinase production, which causes the destruction of host cells and tissues?
A) Bergeyella zoohelcum
B) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
C) Chryseobacterium indologenes
D) Agrobacterium spp.
Q2) Neonates and individuals who are immunocompromised are at risk for developing meningitis if they contract which organism?
A) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
B) Myroides odoratum
C) Sphingobacterium spp.
D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group EO-3
Q3) The natural habitat of the bacterium Sphingobacterium is:
A) environment.
B) animal oral and respiratory flora.
C) environment, cold climates.
D) human normal flora.
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Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Gram-stain morphologic features, motility, and flagellar placement are important identifying characteristics of:
A) Chryseobacterium.
B) Flavobacterium.
C) Pseudomonas.
D) Bordetella.
Q2) The mode of transmission of Achromobacter denitrificans can best be described as:
A) person-to-person contact.
B) exposure to contaminated water.
C) contaminated fluids or medical solutions.
D) close contact with animals.
Q3) Pertussis (whooping cough), an epidemic disease, is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the _________ species.
A) Brucella
B) Bordetella
C) Pasteurella
D) Francisella
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Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Chromobacterium, and Related Organisms
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Q1) The selective medium, thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS)agar, is especially formulated for isolating what pathogen from stool cultures?
A) Vibrio
B) Salmonella
C) Shigella
D) Plesiomonas
Q2) Colonies growing on modified cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN)agar appear to be either Aeromonas spp.or Yersinia enterocolitica.Which test should be performed to differentiate between these two organisms?
A) String test
B) Sucrose fermentation
C) Glucose fermentation
D) Oxidase
Q3) To determine the validity of 0% sodium chloride (NaCl)broth, which two organisms should be used for quality control purposes?
A) Vibrio alginolyticus and V. cincinnatiensis
B) Photobacterium damsela and V. harveyi
C) V. parahaemolyticus and V. cholerae
D) V. vulnificus and P. damsela
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Oxidase-positive, glucose-positive, (oxidatively)gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include:
A) Pseudomonas.
B) Vibrio.
C) Stenotrophomonas.
D) Sphingomonas.
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Acidovorax, Sphingobacterium, and Sphingomonas?
A) Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B) Habitats are unknown.
C) Habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D) Habitats are limited mostly to water sources.
Q3) Although no definitive guidelines are available for the treatment of Sphingomonas paucimobilis infections, which antibiotic appears to have potential activity against this organism?
A) Penicillin
B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
C) Flagyl
D) Imipenem
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Chapter 27: Moraxella and Related Organisms
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Q1) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of deoxyribonuclease (DNase)media?
A) Moraxella atlantae and M. lacunata
B) M. lacunata and M. lincolnii
C) M. nonliquefaciens and M. canis
D) M. osloensis and M. lacunata
Q2) Which organism appears clear on MacConkey agar and resembles some colonies of the Enterobacteriaceae family?
A) Moraxella lacunata
B) M. lincolnii
C) M. canis
D) M. nonliquefaciens
Q3) True cocci, such as most Neisseria spp.and Moraxella (Branhamella)catarrhalis, can be differentiated from morphologically similar Moraxella species by:
A) comparing the penicillin susceptibility testing results of the bacteria.
B) subjecting the bacterium to noninhibitory concentrations of penicillin.
C) identifying the resistance of Moraxella to many beta-lactam antimicrobial agents.
D) performing the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) test.
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Chapter 28: Eikenella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one of the following organisms is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A) Eikenella corrodens
B) Weeksella virosa
C) Pseudomonas maltophilia
D) Sphingomonas paucimobilis
Q2) Eikenella corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by its:
A) pink pigmentation.
B) grapelike odor.
C) large spreading colonial morphologic characteristic.
D) bleachlike odor.
Q3) Which of the following organisms is negative for catalase, indole, and arginine dihydrolase tests and pits the agar on a sheep blood agar plate?
A) Eikenella corrodens
B) Weeksella virosa
C) Pseudomonas maltophilia
D) Sphingomonas paucimobilis
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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which test is used to differentiate Pasteurella multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?
A) Indole
B) Catalase
C) Nitrate
D) Sucrose
Q2) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin, it is the drug of choice for infections involving:
A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B) Eikenella corrodens.
C) Pasteurella multocida.
D) Weeksella virosa.
Q3) Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites?
A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis
B) Eikenella corrodens
C) Pasteurella multocida
D) Weeksella virosa
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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Aggregatibacter, Kingella,
Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar
Organisms
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Q1) Which yellow-pigmented organism exhibits gliding motility that grows best at 35º C and in conditions with increased carbon dioxide (CO )but cannot grow in ambient air?
A) Actinobacillus
B) Capnocytophaga
C) Cardiobacterium
D) Kingella
Q2) Kingella denitrificans, which is nonhemolytic and tends to pit the agar, also grows on selective media that support the growth of which gram-negative diplococci?
A) Capnocytophaga spp.
B) Cardiobacterium hominis
C) Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q3) Which organism is slightly alpha-hemolytic after 48 hours and is commonly associated with individuals with anatomic heart defects?
A) Kingella kingae
B) Cardiobacterium hominis
C) Actinobacillus suis
D) Capnocytophaga spp.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Haemophilus
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Q1) With one exception, species of the genus Haemophilus require which of the following media ingredients for in vitro growth?
A) Vitamin K and hemin
B) Hemin and nicotine adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
C) Vitamin K and NAD
D) Hemin and cysteine
Q2) Isolates from an ear swab that are gram-negative coccobacilli grow on chocolate agar in CO but not blood agar, require both X and V factors for growth, and are nonhemolytic on rabbit or horse blood may be identified as:
A) Haemophilus parainfluenzae.
B) H. ducreyi.
C) H. aphrophilus.
D) H. influenzae.
Q3) In a phenomenon known as satelliting, tiny colonies of Haemophilus spp.may be observed growing on sheep blood agar close to colonies of:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Micrococcus spp.
D) other Haemophilus spp.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Bacteremia, endocarditis, bacillary angiomatosis, cat-scratch disease, and peliosis hepatis can all be caused by:
A) Afipia felis.
B) Bartonella quintana.
C) B. clarridgeiae.
D) B. henselae.
Q2) Of the clinically significant Bartonella species, which is transmitted via a fleabite with the reservoir being rats?
A) B. bacilliformis
B) B. henselae
C) B. elizabethae
D) B. clarridgeiae
Q3) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by:
A) Afipia felis.
B) Bartonella quintana.
C) B. clarridgeiae.
D) B. henselae.
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34
Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Campylobacter spp.can sometimes be detected by direct Gram-stain examination of fecal sample, which would reveal many:
A) large, faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
B) small curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli.
C) small gram-negative coccobacilli.
D) plump, faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) The majority of human infections with Campylobacter species are caused by:
A) direct contact with carriers of the bacterium.
B) contamination of food, milk, or water with animal feces.
C) multiplication of the organism in food products.
D) direct contact with persons infected with the bacterium.
Q3) Which of the following genes may attribute to the virulence of Helicobacter pylori by encoding for outer membrane proteins that mediate adherence to a specific blood group antigen on the surface of gastric epithelial cells?
A) babA
B) iceA
C) cagA
D) vacA
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Legionella
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Q1) The medium or media of choice used to recover Legionella is:
A) buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE).
B) Regan-Lowe agar.
C) Löwenstein-Jensen medium.
D) blood and chocolate agars.
Q2) A direct immunofluorescent antibody (DFA)test was performed on a sputum sample that yielded a positive test.The organism grew on BCYE medium and was a thin gram-negative, faintly staining bacillus.What is the drug of choice for this organism?
A) Fluoroquinolones
B) Erythromycin
C) Penicillin
D) Aminoglycosides
Q3) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s)is necessary?
A) L-cysteine and iron
B) Blood and cysteine
C) Dopa-cysteine
D) Nicotinic adenine
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Chapter 35: Brucella
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Q1) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:
A) dairy farmers.
B) fishermen.
C) prison guards.
D) those working with exotic birds.
Q2) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are:
A) gram-positive diplococci.
B) gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C) gram-negative coccobacilli.
D) gram-negative bacilli.
Q3) The animal reservoir for Brucella melitensis is:
A) cattle.
B) sheep or goats.
C) swine.
D) dogs.
Q4) Facultative, intracellular parasitic bacteria are those that are able to:
A) be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B) exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C) be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D) be cultured only inside living organisms such as mice.
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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis, Bordetella Parapertussis, and
Related Species
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Q1) Pertussis (whooping cough)is an epidemic disease that is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the:
A) Brucella spp.
B) Bordetella spp.
C) Pasteurella spp.
D) Francisella spp.
Q2) The mode of transmission of Bordetella pertussis can best be described as:
A) person-to-person contact.
B) exposure to contaminated water.
C) inhalation of contaminated air.
D) close contact with animals.
Q3) Bordetella pertussis colonies growing on Regan-Lowe medium yields which of the following colonial morphologic appearances?
A) Star-shaped colonies
B) Mercury-drop colonies
C) Yellow-pigmented colonies
D) Shiny black-pigmented colonies
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Chapter 37: Francisella
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Q1) Tularemia, characterized by glandular, ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, oropharyngeal, systemic, and pneumonic presentations, is caused by which of the following species?
A) Brucella
B) Bordetella
C) Pasteurella
D) Francisella
Q2) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Francisella tularensis is:
A) blood.
B) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
C) lymph nodes.
D) urine.
Q3) Francisella philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it:
A) is oxidase-negative.
B) is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C) does not hydrolyze gelatin.
D) does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.
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Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Rat-bite fever caused by Spirillum minus can be differentiated from that caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis by:
A) chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains.
B) a granulomatous lesion.
C) septic arthritis.
D) endocarditis.
Q2) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by the ingestion of the bacterium is:
A) Sodoku.
B) Haverhill fever.
C) monillic fever.
D) monillic gastritis.
Q3) Which of the following cause rat-bite fever, or Haverhill fever, which is characterized by acute onset of chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, as well as a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities?
A) Streptobacillus moniliformis
B) Brucella abortus
C) Bordetella spp.
D) Pasteurella spp.
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) Moraxella catarrhalis may be described as:
A) oxidase-positive.
B) a glucose utilizer.
C) a major cause of venereal disease.
D) often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.
Q2) Organisms belonging to the genus Neisseria are:
A) gram-positive diplococci.
B) gram-negative diplococci.
C) gram-negative coccobacilli.
D) gram-negative bacilli.
Q3) The differentiation of the similar Moraxella catarrhalis and Neisseria can be best accomplished by:
A) examination of Gram stain of the colony.
B) vancomycin susceptibility testing.
C) the oxidase test.
D) glucose utilization testing.
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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Cervical swab is:
A) acceptable.
B) not acceptable.
Q2) Actinomyces spp., Bifidobacterium spp., and Clostridium spp.can be described as:
A) aerotolerant organisms that can grow in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric oxygen but grow best under microaerobic conditions.
B) strictly anaerobic organisms that cannot grow in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric oxygen but grow only under anaerobic conditions.
C) microaerophilic organisms that can grow in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric oxygen but grow best under anaerobic conditions.
D) facultatively anaerobic organisms that grow in the presence or absence of atmospheric oxygen.
Q3) To isolate anaerobic gram-positive organisms, which of the following media should be used?
A) Anaerobic blood agar
B) Cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA)
C) Laked kanamycin-vancomycin (LKV) blood agar
D) Anaerobic phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA)
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Chapter 41: Overview of Anaerobic Organisms
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Q1) The most likely identification of a bile-resistant, kanamycin-resistant, colistin-resistant, and vancomycin-resistant anaerobic gram-negative bacilli is:
A) nonpigmented Prevotella.
B) Porphyromonas spp.
C) Bacteroides fragilis group.
D) Fusobacterium spp.
Q2) Optimal recovery and identification of anaerobic bacteria in clinical specimens occurs when:
A) the initial incubation period is at 35° to 37° C for 48 hours.
B) plates are incubated for at least 3 days before discarding as negative.
C) the initial incubation period is at 35° to 37° C for 24 hours.
D) thioglycollate broth can be inspected daily for 3 days.
Q3) In a clinical specimen, sulfur granules strongly indicate the presence of which anaerobe?
A) Actinomyces spp.
B) Bacteroides spp.
C) Prevotella spp.
D) Clostridia spp.
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43
Chapter 42: Mycobacteria
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Q1) The term complex as used in the M.tuberculosis complex:
A) means that the identification of the organism is complex and is only performed in large reference laboratories.
B) is used to describe two or more species whose distinction is complicated and of little or no medical importance.
C) refers to a set of organisms that are genetically indistinguishable but are phenotypically different.
D) refers to different subtypes of the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Q2) In the identification of mycobacterial isolates, the catalase test involves the:
A) breakdown of phenolphthalein disulfate into phenolphthalein and other salts.
B) measurement of the height of a column of bubbles of oxygen.
C) production of a lipase that is able to hydrolyze the catalase.
D) development of a pink-to-red color, indicating a positive result.
Q3) Negative mycobacterial cultures are reported final and the cultures are discarded after what period?
A) 7 days
B) 2 weeks
C) 4 weeks
D) 8 weeks
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) A prokaryote that differs from most other bacteria with respect to its very small size and obligates intracellular parasitism is:
A) Rickettsia.
B) Ehrlichia.
C) Calymmatobacterium.
D) Coxiella.
Q2) Tropheryma whipplei is characterized by the presence of periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-staining macrophages, which indicates mucopolysaccharide or glycoprotein, in almost every organ system.Without treatment, this disease is uniformly fatal.Identification is achieved using:
A) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
B) IFA.
C) immunoblotting.
D) real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Q3) Which of the following vectors transmit scrub typhus?
A) Lice
B) Ticks
C) Fleas
D) Chiggers
Page 45
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Chapter 44: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Which of the following Mycoplasma species is associated with individuals who are positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), is capable of invading human cells, and can modulate the immune system?
A) M. pneumoniae
B) M. genitalium
C) M. hominis
D) M. fermentans
Q2) The laboratory method of choice to identify Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma infections is:
A) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
B) direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
C) latex agglutination.
D) real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Q3) Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?
A) Chlamydia
B) Mycoplasma
C) Rickettsia
D) Coxiella
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Chapter 45: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Recombinant antigens
A)TP-PA
B)MHA-TP
C)PaGIA
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E)Magnetic beads
Q2) A destructive lesion of the gums, also known as acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, that is caused by oral spirochetes and other bacteria is known as:
A) Vincent's disease.
B) primary syphilis.
C) chancres.
D) Weil syndrome.
Q3) A widely used nontreponemal serologic assay is the ________ test.
A) rapid plasma reagin (RPR)
B) Treponema pallidum passive particle agglutination (TP-PA)
C) fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS)
D) microhemagglutination test for antibody to Treponema pallidum (MHA-TP)
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Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic
Infections: Overview
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Q1) A urine sample from a 26-year-old woman is examined, and an organism is observed that displays "jerky" motility.This organism is classified as a(n):
A) amebae.
B) coccidia.
C) flagellate.
D) ciliate.
Q2) A bone marrow aspirate is examined for the presence of parasites from a patient who has been traveling in Latin America for several months and who came in contact with a triatomid bug.Which parasite will most likely be identified?
A) Trypanosoma cruzi
B) Dientamoeba fragilis
C) Fasciola hepatica
D) Chilomastix mesnili
Q3) Which of the following intestinal parasites is found in humans and also in pigs?
A) Giardia lamblia
B) Dientamoeba fragilis
C) Cryptosporidium spp.
D) Balantidium coli
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Chapter 47: Intestinal Protozoa
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Q1) Entamoeba coli, a protozoan that ranges from 15 to 25 microns in diameter, can contain up to eight nuclei in mature cysts.How would the karyosome expect to appear on a stained slide?
A) Small, usually compact
B) Large, usually compact
C) Small, irregularly shaped
D) Large, not compact
Q2) The presence of which of the following cells is diagnostic for the intestinal protozoan, Entamoeba histolytica, which measures 15 to 20 microns?
A) Yeast
B) White blood cells (WBCs)
C) Red blood cells (RBCs)
D) Bacteria
Q3) The polar tubule, which is responsible for the entrance of infective sporoplasm into the host cell, is found in which of the following genera?
A) Blastocystis
B) Sarcocystis
C) Enterocytozoon
D) Entamoeba
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
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Q1) In cases of malaria, the primary exoerythrocytic cycle occurs in the:
A) blood.
B) lung.
C) liver.
D) lymph nodes.
Q2) In Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense trypanosomiasis infections, CNS invasion occurs early.The disease progresses rapidly, and death may occur before extensive CNS involvement.Inflammation of which organ is more common and severe with this disease form?
A) Kidney
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Heart
Q3) A thick ring, large nucleus, and bands across the cell and 6 to 12 merozoites in a mature schizont are all characteristics of which Plasmodium spp.?
A) P. vivax
B) P. ovale
C) P. falciparum
D) P. malariae
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Other Protozoa
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Q1) Primates, as well as dogs, sheep, and horses, have died of central nervous system (CNS)infections with which organism?
A) Naegleria fowleri
B) Acanthamoeba spp.
C) Toxoplasma gondii
D) Balamuthia mandrillaris
Q2) Sporozoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
Q3) The troph of the motile Trichomonas vaginalis organism measures 7 to 23 microns long and 5 to 15 microns wide.The recommended treatment of choice for this urogenital infection is:
A) tetracycline.
B) metronidazole.
C) penicillin.
D) ketoconazole.
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Chapter 50: Intestinal Nematodes Roundworms
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Q1) A 4-year-old boy attended day care 3 days per week.He was irritable, and his parents noticed that he had persistent perianal itching.A sticky paddle was pressed against the perianal region and sent to the laboratory for testing.The eggs microscopically observed would most likely have which one of the following morphologic features?
A) Long with a short buccal cavity
B) Thin shell with internal granules
C) Bipolar plugs
D) Flat-sided, football-shaped
Q2) The most common and largest roundworm encountered is:
A) Trichuris trichiura.
B) Strongyloides stercoralis.
C) Ascaris lumbricoides.
D) Necator americanus.
Q3) A short buccal capsule, large bulb on the esophagus, and prominent genital primordium are all characteristics of which worm?
A) Trichuris trichiura
B) Capillaria philippinensis
C) Strongyloides stercoralis
D) Ascaris lumbricoides
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Chapter 51: Tissue Nematodes Roundworms
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Q1) Crabs
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q2) Systemic involvement is rare in infection caused by Ancylostoma braziliense or A.caninum; however, pneumonitis may occur.The antihelminthic therapy used to treat this infection is:
A) ivermectin or thiabendazole.
B) metronidazole or thiabendazole.
C) mebendazole or ivermectin.
D) albendazole or diethylcarbamazine.
Q3) A definitive diagnosis can be made in a Trichinella infection on the basis of which of the following findings?
A) Presence of adult worms in the feces
B) Identification of encysted larvae through muscle biopsy
C) Presence of cutaneous larvae migrans in the skin
D) Identification of unembryonated eggs in the feces
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Chapter 52: Blood and Tissue Filarialnematodes
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Q1) Loa loa
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
E)Biting midges.
Q2) Onchocerca volvulus
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
E)Biting midges.
Q3) Wuchereria bancrofti
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
E)Biting midges.
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54
Chapter 53: Intestinal Cestodes
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Q1) The double-pored tapeworm, Diphyllobothrium caninum, consisting of many small proglottids, measures 10 to 70 cm in length as an adult.The scolex contains four suckers and an armed rostellum.The intermediate host in which infective cysticercoids develop is the:
A) dog.
B) cat.
C) flea.
D) human.
Q2) A stool specimen is examined, and the following characteristics are observed: 15 to 18 lateral branches on each side
Scolex with four suckers
No hooklets
The intermediate hosts of this tapeworm are:
A) cattle.
B) humans.
C) cats.
D) swine.
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Chapter 54: Tissue Cestodes
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Q1) Epileptic seizures, headaches, and mental disturbances all result from infection with the Taenia solium organism.The definitive diagnosis is based on:
A) positive direct fluorescent antibody test.
B) observance of eggs in the stool.
C) positive India ink stain.
D) identification of cysts in tissue.
Q2) In Echinococcus granulosus infections, the hydatid cysts usually occur in which organ?
A) Stomach
B) Brain
C) Intestines
D) Liver
Q3) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?
A) Taenia solium
B) Echinococcus granulosus
C) Spirometra mansonoides
D) Echinococcus multilocularis
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Chapter 55: Intestinal Trematodes
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Q1) The adult form of the fluke, Fasciolopsis buski, is elongated in shape and ranges from 20 to 75 mm long and 8 to 20 mm wide with an oral sucker at the anterior and a ventral sucker approximately midway to the posterior.The reservoir host for the fluke is: A) snails.
B) birds.
C) rodents.
D) dogs.
Q2) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater: A) fish.
B) snails.
C) crabs.
D) crayfish.
Q3) The life-cycle stages of the intestinal trematodes after the eggs are shed from the body via feces is best described as:
A) cercariae, miracidium larva, metacercariae, and redia.
B) redia, metacercariae, cercariae, and miracidium larva.
C) miracidium larva, redia, cercariae, and metacercariae.
D) metacercariae, miracidium larva, cercariae, and redia.
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57
Chapter 56: Liver and Lung Trematodes
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Q1) Southeast Asian liver fluke
A)Opisthorchis viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
D)Paragonimus westermani
Q2) Lung fluke
A)Opisthorchis viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
D)Paragonimus westermani
Q3) Sheep liver fluke
A)Opisthorchis viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
D)Paragonimus westermani
Q4) Chinese liver fluke
A)Opisthorchis viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
D)Paragonimus westermani
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Chapter 57: Blood Trematodes
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Q1) Rodents, marsupials, and nonhuman primates are all reservoirs for which Schistosoma species?
A) S. japonicum
B) S. haematobium
C) S. mansoni
D) S. intercalatum
Q2) The eggs of the blood fluke Schistosoma haematobium range from 110 to 170 microns long by 40 to 70 microns wide and have a sharp, pointed terminal spine.In which specimen is this organism most likely found?
A) Ascites fluid
B) Sputum
C) Bile
D) Urine
Q3) A large lateral spine is characteristic of which Schistosoma egg?
A) S. mansoni
B) S. japonicum
C) S. haematobium
D) S. mekongi
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59
Chapter 58: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
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Q1) The optimal temperature and length of time to incubate a sample suspected of containing a dermatophyte is _____° C for _____ days.
A) 25; 10
B) 25; 14
C) 30; 7
D) 30; 21
Q2) If a fungal colony is described as rugose, then it means that the colony:
A) is furrowed or convoluted.
B) is slightly raised in the center.
C) furrows radiate out from the center.
D) has a smooth surface with no aerial mycelium.
Q3) Which fungal media is ideal for the recovery of organisms such as Microsporum and Trichophyton?
A) Cornmeal agar with Tween 80
B) Niger seed agar
C) Cottonseed conversion agar
D) Mycosel agar
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Page 60
Chapter 59: Hyaline Molds, Mucorales Zygomycetes,
Dermatophytes, and Opportunitistic and Systemic Mycoses
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Q1) Which rapidly growing Aspergillus spp.(2 to 6 days)best describes a mold that produces a fluffy-to-granular, white-to-blue green colony?
A) A. niger
B) A. flavus
C) A. fumigatus
D) A. terreus
Q2) Which dermatophyte usually fluoresces yellow-green under a Wood's lamp?
A) Microsporum gypseum
B) Trichophyton verrucosum
C) Microsporum audouinii
D) Epidermophyton floccosum
Q3) Budding yeast resembling a "mariner's wheel"
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)Histoplasma capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Penicillium marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
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Chapter 60: Dematiaceous Melanizedmolds
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Q1) This fundus exhibits cup- or flask-shaped collarette.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladosporium
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
Q2) Black piedra
A)Exophiala jeanselmei
B)Pseudallescheria boydii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)Hortaea werneckii
E)Alternaria
Q3) White-grain mycetoma
A)Exophiala jeanselmei
B)Pseudallescheria boydii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)Hortaea werneckii
E)Alternaria
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Chapter 61: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pneumocystis
Jiroveci
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Q1) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A) Bradyzoite
B) Trophozoite
C) Sporocyte
D) Cyst
Q2) Which therapy has decreased the incident of pneumocystis infection in patients with human immunodeficiency virus or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS)?
A) Metronidazole
B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
C) Aminoglycosides with fluconazole
D) Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)
Q3) In patients who do not have HIV, which underlying condition is considered a risk factor for acquiring PCP?
A) Malaria
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Myasthenia gravis
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Page 63
Chapter 62: The Yeasts
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Q1) Blood cultures are drawn on a patient suspected of having a fungemia.Positive cultures reveal the presence of chlamydoconidia on cornmeal agar.In addition, the yeast is germ-tube positive.The most likely identification of the fungal agent is:
A) C. glabrata.
B) C. tropicalis.
C) Cryptococcus neoformans.
D) C. albicans.
Q2) A patient with diabetes is experiencing creamy patches on his tongue and mucous membranes.Cultures are performed, and yeast is recovered.His diagnosis is most likely:
A) paronychia.
B) onychomycosis.
C) candidemia.
D) thrush.
Q3) Polysaccharide capsule
A)Trichosporon spp.
B)Candida albicans
C)Malassezia furfur
D)Cryptococcus neoformans
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Chapter 63: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, Therapy, and Prevention
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Q1) Is a glucan synthesis inhibitor
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q2) Interferes with ergosterol synthesis
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q3) Alters membrane permeability
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
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Chapter 64: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
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Q1) p24 protein
A)RSV
B)HIV
C)CMV
D)Adenovirus
E)HSV
F)Pediatric respiratory virus
G)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
H)Influenzas A and B
Q2) If a virus is referred to as naked, it means it lacks which structure?
A) Protein coat
B) Capsid
C) Envelope
D) Nucleocapsid
Q3) If Negri bodies are identified in brain tissue through cytologic means, then the virus is identified as a(n):
A) adenovirus.
B) parvovirus.
C) rabies virus.
D) varicella virus.
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Chapter 65: Viruses in Human Disease
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Q1) An 8-month-old female infant is admitted to the emergency department in respiratory distress on Christmas Eve.A nasopharyngeal aspirate is obtained and sent to the laboratory on ice for analysis.The most probable organism that would be isolated is:
A) varicella zoster virus.
B) respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).
C) rotavirus.
D) coxsackievirus.
Q2) Adenoviruses are responsible for causing diseases such as keratoconjunctivitis, pneumonia, hemorrhagic cystitis, and gastroenteritis in children.Transmission is usually via:
A) contact with rodent urine.
B) respiratory secretions.
C) arthropod vector.
D) sexual contact.
Q3) Myocarditis
A)Coxsackie A
B)Coxsackie B
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Chapter 66: Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, and Prevention
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Q1) Viable cells take up neutral red dye.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
Q2) Lamivudine
A)HSV
B)Influenza A
C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
E)HIV
Q3) Quantifies the amount of viruses infected in cells.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
68
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Chapter 67: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) A 26-year-old woman who has a Gardnerella vaginalis infection becomes immunocompromised, which causes the organism to enter the bloodstream.She has several fever spikes; therefore blood cultures are drawn and placed in blood culture media containing sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS).After 5 days of incubation, the blood cultures are negative.Which of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) G. vaginalis stays localized in the female genital tract and does not enter the bloodstream.
B) The blood culture media is most likely expired.
C) The automated blood culture system is most likely not correctly functioning.
D) G. vaginalis is usually inhibited by this anticoagulant, making recovery difficult.
Q2) Patients receiving lipid-supplemented parenteral nutrition are at risk for developing fungemia caused by which organism?
A) Histoplasma capsulatum
B) Malassezia furfur
C) Coccidioides immitis
D) Candida albicans
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69
Chapter 68: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Of the various types of specimens collected to diagnose respiratory infections, which one is acceptable for the detection of anaerobic agents?
A) Tracheostomy aspirates
B) Bronchial washings
C) Gastric aspirates
D) Transtracheal aspirates (TTA)
Q2) One of the most common causes of bacterial pneumonia in school-age children (5 to 14 years of age)is:
A) Haemophilus influenzae type B.
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C) Streptococcus pyogenes.
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
Q3) One of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age is:
A) Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D) respiratory syncytial virus.
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Chapter 69: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) Infection of the buccal (cheek)mucosa, tongue, or oropharynx by Candida spp.is:
A) pharyngitis.
B) Vincent angina.
C) rhinitis.
D) thrush.
Q2) Rhinitis
A)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and other viruses
B)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q3) Inflammation of the larynx that is usually associated with the common cold or influenza syndromes and that is caused almost exclusively by viruses is:
A) laryngitis.
B) laryngotracheobronchitis.
C) epiglottitis.
D) Vincent angina.
Page 71
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Chapter
Nervous System
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Q1) Infection within the subarachnoid space or throughout the pia mater and the arachnoid membrane is referred to as:
A) meningoencephalitis.
B) aseptic meningitis.
C) encephalitis.
D) meningitis.
Q2) A collective term used for the three layers of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the:
A) dura mater.
B) meninges.
C) arachnoid.
D) pia mater.
Q3) An inflammation of the brain parenchyma that is usually a result of viral infection is: A) meningoencephalitis.
B) aseptic meningitis.
C) encephalitis.
D) meningitis.
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Page 72
Chapter 71: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses
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Q1) Endophthalmitis
A)Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice
C)Staphylococcus aureus, S. pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S. aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
Q2) Keratitis
A)Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice
C)Staphylococcus aureus, S. pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S. aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
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73
Chapter 72: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract are:
A) Enterobacteriaceae.
B) yeast.
C) Propionibacterium acnes.
D) Corynebacteria.
Q2) The term acute urethral syndrome is used to describe a syndrome of symptoms that include:
A) greater than 105 colony-forming units of bacteria per milliliter (CFU/mL) of urine, dysuria, and frequent urination.
B) dysuria, frequency, and urgency but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture.
C) fever and flank pain, dysuria, vomiting, diarrhea, chills, increased heart rate, and lower abdominal pain.
D) dysuria, frequency and urgency along with tenderness and pain over the area of the bladder.
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Chapter 73: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) Vaginitis
A)Inflammation of the vaginal mucosa resulting in an abnormal discharge and offensive odor or itching
B)Polymicrobial type of vaginitis characterized by mild perivaginal irritation and a foul-smelling discharge
C)Infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy
D)Mild-to-severe inflammation of the testicles that is generally acquired by bloodborne dissemination of viruses such as the mumps virus
Q2) Bacterial vaginosis
A)Inflammation of the vaginal mucosa resulting in an abnormal discharge and offensive odor or itching
B)Polymicrobial type of vaginitis characterized by mild perivaginal irritation and a foul-smelling discharge
C)Infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy
D)Mild-to-severe inflammation of the testicles that is generally acquired by bloodborne dissemination of viruses such as the mumps virus
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Chapter 74: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Campylobacter thioglycollate broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) Selenite broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) Sheep blood agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
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Chapter 75: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections
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Q1) A 6-year-old girl is diagnosed with a bullous impetigo infection.Based on this information, the catalase and coagulase results of the infecting organism are expected to be catalase-_____ and coagulase-_____.
A) negative; negative
B) positive; negative
C) positive; positive
D) negative; positive
Q2) Myositis
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
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Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis accounting for approximately 70% of infections is:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Haemophilus influenza.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Streptococcus mitis.
Q2) Most cases of peritonitis in patients on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)are caused by:
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis and S. aureus.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae.
D) Streptococcus spp.
E) viral agents.
Q3) Pericardial fluid may be inoculated in blood culture broth and processed as a blood culture, provided the broth contains which anticoagulant?
A) Heparin
B) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
C) Citrate
D) Coumadin
Page 78
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Chapter 77: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Working toward perfection on an ongoing basis to ensure that the number of steps and time are constantly under scrutiny
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
Q2) Occurring continuously through the remaining value-added steps
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
Q3) Introducing a continuous flow of events between steps of the process where continuous flow is possible
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
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Chapter 78: Infection Control
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Q1) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of serologic typing of bacterial or viral antigens, such as bacterial cell wall antigens of the organism of interest, is:
A) biotyping.
B) antibiograms.
C) serotyping.
D) bacteriophage typing.
Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing antimicrobial susceptibility patterns of the organism of interest is:
A) biotyping.
B) antibiograms.
C) serotyping.
D) bacteriophage typing.
Q3) An infection acquired by a hospitalized patient that was not present when he or she entered the hospital is referred to as a(n)_____ infection.
A) autonomous
B) nosocomial
C) opportunistic
D) septic
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Page 80
Chapter 79: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe the act of using:
A) horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B) microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally.
C) microorganisms to wage war in peacetime.
D) living beings to wage war in peacetime.
Q2) If a pinpoint colony on blood agar after 24 hours of incubation is isolated, and if the colony is oxidase-, urease-, and indole-negative and also exhibits bipolar staining on Gram stain, then the suspect bioterror agent is most likely:
A) Bacillus anthracis.
B) Francisella tularensis.
C) Brucella spp.
D) Yersinia pestis.
Q3) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that a(n):
A) covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B) covert event is announced, and an overt event is not announced.
C) overt event is announced, and a covert event is not announced.
D) overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
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