Labor Relations Exam Materials - 1615 Verified Questions

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Labor Relations

Exam Materials

Course Introduction

Labor Relations is an in-depth exploration of the dynamic relationship between employers, employees, and the organizations that represent them, such as labor unions. This course covers the historical development of labor movements, legal frameworks governing collective bargaining, and the negotiation processes between labor and management. Students will examine key topics such as conflict resolution, grievance procedures, labor contract administration, and the impact of labor relations on organizational performance. Through case studies and real-world examples, the course provides a comprehensive understanding of how effective labor relations contribute to a positive workplace environment and organizational success.

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Human Resource Management 14th Edition by

16 Chapters 1615 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Human Resource Management in Organizations

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Q1) A core competency is a unique capability that creates high value in which an organization excels.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Describe the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.

Answer: The Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) Act was passed in 2002 by Congress to make certain that publicly traded companies follow accounting controls that could reduce the likelihood of illegal and unethical behaviors. Many human resource (HR) issues must be managed in line with SOX. The biggest concerns are linked to executive compensation and benefits, but SOX sections 404, 406, 802, and 806 require companies to establish ethics codes, develop employee complaint systems, and have antiretaliation policies for employees who act as whistle blowers to identify wrongful actions. HR has been involved in routing people through the massive compliance verification effort that has occurred.

Q3) Professional in Human Resources (PHR) is sponsored by the WorldatWork Association.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Human Resources Strategy and Planning

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Q1) The formula for calculating human capital return on investment = Revenue +(Operating Expense +(Compensation - Benefits Cost)) / (Compensation - Benefit Cost)

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Define due diligence.

Answer: Die diligence is a comprehensive assessment of all aspects of the business being acquired. Financial, sales and marketing, operations, and Human Resource staffs can all be involved before the final decision is made to merge or acquire a company.

Q3) During mergers and acquisitions, the workforce must be optimized _____.

A) post integration

B) pre integration

C) before making the deal

D) during integration

Answer: A

Q4) Define severance benefits.

Answer: Severance benefits are temporary payments made to laid-off employees to ease the financial burden of unemployment.

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Chapter 3: Equal Employment Opportunity

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Q1) Equal employment opportunity is a broad-reaching concept that essentially requires employers to make:

A) status-blind employment decisions.

B) nepotistic employment decisions.

C) egocentric employment decisions.

D) dictatorial employment decisions.

Answer: A

Q2) The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) enforces employment laws in both private and public workplaces.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Which of the following is an illegal criterion for rejecting job applicants?

A) Education

B) Work experience

C) Skill sets

D) Religion

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Workforce, Jobs, and Job Analysis

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Q1) Explain the legal aspects of job analysis.

Q2) Workflow analysis is the study of the way work moves through an organization. A)True

B)False

Q3) A _____ is composed of individuals who are assigned a cluster of tasks, duties, and responsibilities to be accomplished.

A) vertical team

B) special-purpose team

C) self-directed team

D) global team

Q4) Dave, who works with GoPhone LLC, is responsible for managing job analysis in his organization. He is currently gathering and reviewing data. Which of the following should typically be Dave's next step?

A) Preparing for and introducing job analysis

B) Conducting the job analysis

C) Developing job descriptions and job specifications

D) Maintaining and updating job descriptions

Q5) Define job design and describe the three major reasons why it receives attention.

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Chapter 5: Individualorganization Relations and Retention

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Q1) The number of absences per 100 employees each day is known as the:

A) inactivity rate.

B) incidence rate.

C) severity rate.

D) compensation rate.

Q2) Describe three methods used to control absenteeism in organizations.

Q3) _____ is an intangible reward for performance.

A) Promotion to a new position

B) Verbal praise from one's supervisor

C) A performance bonus

D) An opportunity for training

Q4) What are the five main drivers of retention? Describe the HR-related activities which are related to each driver.

Q5) If the compensation for a job is within _____ of the market rate, it is considered to be competitive pay.

A) 10% to 15%

B) 5% to 20%

C) 5% to 8%

D) 8% to 10%

Q6) Discuss a few strategies to improve retention in organizations.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Recruiting and Labor Markets

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Q1) A disadvantage of Internet recruiting is that it generates large numbers of passive job seekers who, typically, tend to be of low-quality.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Linda is the director of HR at Colette Value Inc., a large tax-preparation firm. The firm faces a dearth of tax preparers every year when the tax season approaches. Every December, Linda outsources a bulk of the recruiting process to an employment agency to recruit temporary employees before the tax season begins. However, she wants to do so without excessively limiting her final hiring decisions. Which of the following processes of recruitment should Linda carry out first hand?

A) Advertising for recruitment over the Internet

B) Preliminary screening of résumés

C) Designing the employment advertisements

D) Face-to-face interviews with finalists

Q3) What are the major components of the labor market? Define them and describe how they are related.

Q4) Acceptance rate measures not just recruiting but selection issues as well.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Selecting Human Resources

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Q1) The position for City Manager of Scenic River attracted many applicants. As part of the selection process, the applicants each appeared one-by-one before the entire Scenic River Board of Aldermen for an interview. This is an example of a _____ interview. A) panel

B) mass

C) biographical

D) situational

Q2) Kevin, a recent college graduate, applied for a job with a firm which provides security to high-profile individuals. During the selection process, he was given a test for visual memory. Tests such as these are classified as:

A) psychomotor ability tests.

B) cognitive ability tests.

C) illegal tests that discriminate against the disabled.

D) work sample tests.

Q3) What are the types of global employees that need to be considered when selecting candidates for international assignments?

Q4) In the context of selection and placement, what is meant by the term "mismatch"?

Q5) Identify the sources of background information for job applicants.

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Chapter 8: Training Human Resources

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Q1) What does the actual delivery of training involve?

Q2) How has the information age changed the concept of competitive advantage?

Q3) When using _____ to evaluate training, HR professionals in an organization, typically gather data on training and compare them to data on training at other organizations of similar size in their industry.

A) the results approach

B) benchmarking

C) cost/benefit analysis

D) return on investment analysis approach

Q4) Like apprenticeships, internships are a type of cooperative training.

A)True

B)False

Q5) On-the-job training can amount to no training if the trainers simply allow the trainees to learn the job on their own.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Summarize some of the disadvantages or challenges associated with e-learning.

Q7) What are the different elements that must be considered to make a training design effective?

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Talent, Careers, and Development

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Q1) Which of the following is a disadvantage of paid sabbaticals?

A) It has a negative impact on the employees' morale.

B) Employees tend to refuse sabbaticals because they fear it is a way for their managers to prove they are unimportant.

C) The nature of the learning experience is outside the organization's control.

D) Employees often use sabbaticals to look for other jobs.

Q2) Why does the development of certain competencies require redevelopment of employees?

Q3) Josh is 32 years old. He worked for a financial organization for seven years after graduating with a bachelor's degree. He received three promotions during that period. Recently, he was fired by his employers and is now working part-time as a bartender while training as an X-ray technician. Josh is experiencing:

A) a career plateau.

B) a Protean career.

C) career sequencing.

D) a career transition.

Q4) What are the main career challenges of women? What can organizations do to make better use of its female talents?

Q5) Why is succession planning important?

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Chapter 10: Performance Management and Appraisal

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Q1) Discuss management by objectives.

Q2) Which of the following is typically the first stage in implementing a guided self-appraisal system using MBO?

A) Continuing performance discussions

B) Development of performance standards

C) Setting of objectives

D) Job review and agreement

Q3) Describe the entitlement approach and the performance-driven approach.

Q4) Which of the following is true of organizations that practice a performance-driven approach?

A) Employee rewards vary significantly from person to person and are not based on individual performance.

B) Performance appraisal activities are seen as being primarily a "bureaucratic exercise."

C) Employee rewards vary little from person to person and are not based on individual performance.

D) Performance evaluations link results to employee compensation and development.

Q5) Describe appraisal feedback.

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Total Rewards and Compensation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the different methods of job evaluation.

Q2) The child labor provisions of the FLSA set the minimum age for hazardous occupations at _____ years.

A) 14

B) 16

C) 18

D) 20

Q3) If a state's minimum wage is higher than the federal minimum wage, _____.

A) employers must pay whichever wage is higher

B) employers must pay whichever wage is lower

C) employers are free to choose between either of the two

D) employers must pay the difference as employee benefits

Q4) Define competency-based pay.

Q5) Which of the following is a tangible indirect reward?

A) Base pay

B) Health care benefits

C) Challenging work

D) Variable pay

Q6) Discuss compensation fairness and equity.

Q7) Describe performance-based pay increases.

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Chapter 12: Variable Pay and Executive Compensation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain profit sharing.

Q2) AirCar LLC, a producer of consumer electronics, had provided its employees an annual bonus. After a change in management, the company has decided to replace bonuses with a stock option plan. Which of the following statements is true of AirCar LLC?

A) It provided group incentives; now it provides organizational incentives.

B) It provided individual incentives; now it provides group incentives.

C) It provided individual incentives; now it provides organizational incentives.

D) It provided organizational incentives; now it provides individual incentives.

Q3) _____ is a compensation typically computed as a percentage of sales in units or dollars.

A) Severance pay

B) Wage

C) Basic salary

D) Commission

Q4) The Scanlon plan approach sets group piece-rate standards and pays weekly bonuses when those standards are exceeded.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Describe the different types of sales compensation plans.

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Chapter 13: Managing Employee Benefits

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why are employee contributions to health plans in companies increasing?

Q2) Why do a relatively low percentage of men take paternity leave?

A) Men who are not single parents are not covered in the Family and Medical Leave Act.

B) Employers can deny FMLA leave if the employee is not replaceable, and men tend to hold jobs that are more critical than women do.

C) It is not considered socially acceptable for men to stay home for child-related reasons.

D) Only one parent per family can take FMLA leave and they are usually taken by the mother.

Q3) Cost sharing plans:

A) involve employers sharing the costs of government-mandated health insurance plans with the government.

B) require employees to pay a larger proportion of their health benefits costs.

C) require insurance firms to share profits with employers who purchase insurance plans.

D) allow employees to track their benefits balances as and when required.

Q4) Explain any three laws that affect the retirement plans of employees.

Q5) What are the legal regulations regarding early retirement in U.S. companies?

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Chapter 14: Risk Management and Worker Protection

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain the various implications that workers' compensation laws have on U.S. employees and employers.

Q2) Julie, a legal assistant in a company, injures her back while lifting a box of trial documents onto her desk when working from home. Julie can depend on her company's workers' compensation coverage for treating her injury.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A security audit is also referred to as a(n) _____.

A) vulnerability analysis

B) risk analysis

C) independent review

D) risk assessment

Q4) Companies where employees are regularly exposed to blood and similar substances must have written control and response plans to train workers.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Discuss the criticisms against OSHA.

Q6) Describe the three components of disaster planning?

Q7) How does the ADA affect recordkeeping practices of an organization?

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Employee Rights and Responsibilities

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discipline is most constructively viewed as _____ that enforces organizational rules.

A) persistent persuasion

B) negative reinforcement

C) punishment

D) training

Q2) Employers should avoid informing employees if employee activities are being monitored so as to attain undiluted results.

A)True

B)False

Q3) One industry in which dress and appearance codes and policies are important is the retail industry.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In most states, public-sector employees have greater access to their personnel files than do private-sector employees.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Briefly describe the term "separation agreements"?

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Chapter 16: Unionmanagement Relations

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Q1) Which of the following laws passed in 1947 is considered to be pro-management?

A) The Norris-LaGuardia Act

B) The Railway Labor Act

C) The Taft-Hartley Act

D) The Wagner Act

Q2) A decision by the National Labor Relations Board prohibits temporary workers to be included in attempts to unionize firms.

A)True

B)False

Q3) _____ deal with unionized employees in organizations where human resource professionals have limited involvement with labor relations.

A) Top managements

B) Board of directors

C) Operating managers

D) Labor-law consulting firms

Q4) How have employee involvement programs affected organizations over time? What are the advantages and disadvantages of employee ownership programs?

Q5) What was the significance of the Railway Labor Act of 1926?

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