Labor Law and Employment Relations Exam Preparation Guide - 1288 Verified Questions

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Labor Law and Employment Relations

Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction

This course examines the fundamental principles of labor law and the dynamics of employment relations within various organizational contexts. Students explore the legal framework regulating the relationship between employers, employees, and trade unions, focusing on topics such as collective bargaining, employment contracts, dispute resolution, workplace rights, and labor standards. The course also analyzes the impact of national and international labor regulations, recent legal developments, and contemporary issues affecting the modern workforce, equipping students with a comprehensive understanding of both the legal and practical aspects of labor relations.

Recommended Textbook

Managing Human Resources 9th Edition by Wayne Cascio

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16 Chapters

1288 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Human Resources in a Globally Competitive

Business

Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) _____ are HR professionals who ensure today's and tomorrow's talent,shape the organization,foster communication,and design reward systems.

A)Cultural stewards

B)Credible activists

C)Strategy architects

D)Organizational designers

Answer: D

Q2) Changes in any single part of the HRM system have a reverberating effect on all other parts of the system.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Staffing is comprised of all the following activities EXCEPT:

A)identifying work requirements within an organization.

B)involving employees in business strategy.

C)recruiting,selecting,and promoting qualified candidates.

D)determining the numbers of people and the skills necessary to do the work.

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: The Financial Impact of Human Resource

Management Activities

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Q1) What is the numerator used in the formula used to calculate turnover over any period?

A)Average workforce size for the period

B)Number of turnover incidents per period

C)Previous period's turnover

D)Percentage of new employees

Answer: B

Q2) Any failure of an employee to report for or to remain at work as scheduled regardless of reason is:

A)protected under FMLA.

B)absenteeism.

C)turnover.

D)allowed in work-life programs.

Answer: B

Q3) Break-even values indicate the length of time the observed effect would need to be maintained in order to recover the cost of a training program.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 3: The Legal Context of Employment Decisions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The amendment to which Act broadened the definition of disability by expanding the term "major life activities."

Answer: The ADA Amendments Act of 2008

Q2) If someone decides to bring suit under Title VII,the first step is to establish a prima facie case of discrimination.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) In jobs where women and minorities are underrepresented in the workforce relative to their availability in the labor force,employers must establish goals and timetables for hiring and promotion.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) What does the Thirteenth Amendment prohibit?

Answer: Slavery and involuntary servitude.

Q5) According to the ADA Amendments Act of 2008,what should employers focus on?

Answer: Employers should focus less on what constitutes an ADA disability,and more on what constitutes a responable accommodation

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Chapter 4: Diversity at Work

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Q1) Which of the following is not for everyone,but it may work especially well with clerical positions where the need for coordination of the overall workload is minimal?

A)Flextime

B)Job sharing

C)Flexible scheduling

D)Teleworking

Q2) Virtually all of the growth in new jobs will come from manufacturing industries.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Among corporations,which of the following is the No.1 financial supporter of gay-rights groups in the United States?

A)IBM

B)Nike

C)Ernst & Young

D)Apple

Q4) Baby-boomer generation represents approximately one-third of the American workforce.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Planning for People

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Q1) Job specifications:

A)should reflect a profile of the ideal job incumbent.

B)should reflect minimally acceptable qualifications for job incumbents.

C)are an overall written summary of task requirements.

D)are the extent to which the job requires the employee to use a number of different skills and abilities and to draw on a range of knowledge.

Q2) _____ is the final step in the process and makes the intended strategy real.

A)Strategy implementation

B)Strategy facilitation

C)Strategy evaluation

D)Strategy summary

Q3) In this method of job analysis,an analyst actually performs the job under study to get firsthand exposure to what it demands.

A)Job performance

B)Observation

C)Interview

D)Critical incidents

Q4) Describe several of the high performance work practices?

Q5) What is the purpose of control and evaluation?

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Chapter 6: Recruiting

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Q1) In terms of total fees paid to executive search firms,which of the following is false?

A)A retainer is paid as soon as the search is commissioned.

B)The retainer paid amounts to one-third the total fee.

C)One-third is paid 90 days into the assignment.

D)The last third is paid upon completion,plus expenses.

Q2) Firms are finding that many managers and professionals,men and women alike,are willing to relocate even if their spouse is not guaranteed suitable employment in the new location.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Recruitment begins with a clear specification of the number of people needed and when they are needed.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In deciding where,when,and how to implement recruitment activities,initial consideration should be given to a company's current employees,especially for filling jobs above the entry level.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Staffing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Employers are likely to achieve nonbiased hiring decisions if they concentrate on shaping interviewer behavior.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Handwriting analysis is an excellent predictor of job performance.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Validity of measurement.

Q4) Which of the following selection methods is based on the assumption that the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior?

A)Leaderless-group discussion

B)Projective test

C)Business game

D)Personal-history data

Q5) Among employers the most prevalent reasons for using personality tests is their contribution to improving employee fit and to reducing turnover.

A)True

B)False

Q6) What is the primary motivation of an aging organization?

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Chapter 8: Workplace Training

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Q1) Orientation is often just a superficial indoctrination into company philosophy,policies,and rules;sometimes it includes the presentation of an employee handbook and a quick tour of the office or plant.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The worst mistake a company can make is to layoff the new employee after orientation.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Why is it important to provide trainees with an overview of the material to be presented during the training?

Q4) At the level of the organization,training is a key enabler of e-commerce.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Managers of effective work groups tend to monitor the performance of their team members regularly,and they provide frequent feedback to them.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Describe the training paradox?

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Chapter 9: Performance Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) BARS stands for behaviorally anchored rating scales.

A)True

B)False

Q2) At least some senior managers believe that if they can improve leadership

Q3) Explain the difference between performance management and performance appraisal.Why is the distinction important?

Q4) _____ implies that appraisal systems are easy for managers and employees to understand and use.

A)Reliability

B)Practicality

C)Sensitivity

D)Acceptability

Q5) Which of the following statements about graphic rating scales is false?

A)They may not yield the depth of essays or critical incidents.

B)They are time-consuming to develop and administer.

C)They allow results to be expressed in quantitative terms.

D)They consider more than one performance dimension.

Q6) To assess adverse impact,organizations should keep accurate records of two factors define the applicant group?

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Q7) What three things must be done well in order to define performance properly?

Chapter 10: Managing Careers

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Q1) For some employees,early retirement is a possible alternative to being laid off.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Guidelines for switching organizations include selecting a field of employment,knowing where you are,and planning your exit.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A career should be shaped more by the organization than the individual.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What are some of the challenges faced by dual-career couples?

Q5) Cumulative research evidence across three large-scale meta-analyses indicates that in both professional and unprofessional jobs,age and job performance are generally:

A)mutually exclusive.

B)important factors to consider in the hiring process.

C)unrelated.

D)negatively linkeD.

Q6) What is the most persuasive reason for helping employees manage their own careers?

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Chapter 11: Pay and Incentive Systems

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Q1) Regardless of the exact form of rebalancing,stock options will continue to be the focal point of executive compensation.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In the 50 years since the inception of gain sharing,it has been abandoned by firms about as often as it has been retained.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What are the three elements of the ARM concept?

Q4) Premium-price options are stock options granted at a higher-than-market price so that executives will profit only after the stock has risen substantially.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What steps must be taken to insure that merit pay plans will be effective?

Q6) Gain sharing plans consist of all except which of the following elements?

A)An internal equity

B)A philosophy of cooperation

C)A financial bonus

D)An involvement system

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Chapter 12: Indirect Compensation: Employee Benefit Plans

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Q1) Which law offers full coverage for retirees,dependent survivors,and disabled persons insured by 40 quarters of payroll taxes on their past earnings or earnings of heads of households?

A)Federal Unemployment Tax Act

B)Social Security Act

C)Workers' compensation

D)Employee Retirement Income Security Act

Q2) To help control unscheduled absences,29 percent of firms are turning to short-term disability plans that combine sick leave,vacation,and personal days into one plan.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In determining the competitiveness of benefits,senior management tends to focus mainly on value,while employees are more interested in cost.

A)True

B)False

Q4) ERISA does not require employers to offer a pension plan.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Union Representation and Collective Bargaining

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Sample Questions

Q1) Generally an arbitration award cannot be appealed in court simply because one party believes the arbitrator made a mistake in interpreting an agreement.

A)True

B)False

Q2) List and define four types of strikes.

Q3) In recent years,unions have lost power as a result of six interrelated factors.Name three.

Q4) In win-lose,or _____,the goals of the parties initially are irreconcilable,or at least they appear that way.

A)soft bargaining

B)integrative bargaining

C)distributive bargaining

D)principled negotiation

Q5) Even under union bargaining pressures,wages are now far more responsive to customer feedback at the industry and firm levels than they traditionally have been.

A)True

B)False

Q6) What does labor relations generally mean for employers.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Procedural Justice and Ethics in Employee Relations

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Q1) Among major U.S.companies,about _____ percent do some form of electronic monitoring of employees.

A)15

B)31

C)78

D)92

Q2) Toll-free telephone numbers that employees can use anonymously to report waste,fraud,or abuse are examples of a(n):

A)union intervention.

B)employee voice system.

C)ethical dilemma.

D)grievance procedure step.

Q3) An ombudsperson is a neutral facilitator between employees and managers who assists them in resolving workplace disputes.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What are the basic requirements for workplace due process to work effectively?

Q5) What are reasons why managers may avoid imposing discipline?

Q6) What is an implied promise?

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Chapter 15: Safety, Health, and Employee Assistance Programs

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the traditional alcoholism treatment program,the supervisor had to look for symptoms of alcoholism and then diagnose the problem.Under an EAP,however,the supervisor is responsible only for verifying symptoms of alcoholism.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Employers can appeal citations,proposed penalties,and corrections they have been ordered to make through multiple levels of the agency,culminating with the:

A)Supreme Court.

B)National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health.

C)Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission.

D)Safety and Health Workers' Compensation Review BoarD.

Q3) Experts estimate that alcoholism afflicts at least 50 percent of senior executives.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is the purpose of the Occupational Safety and Health Act?

Q5) Write a short note on employee assistance programs.

Q6) Discuss the impact of OSHA.

Q7) Give at least two reasons why safety rules may not be obeyed.

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Chapter 16: International Dimensions of Human Resource Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) To some degree,_____ expresses the philosophy of a people about important facets in life.

A)mental process

B)religion

C)dress and appearance

D)eating habits

Q2) ______ is the expatriates country of residence

A)Domestic

B)Headquarter

C)Home

D)Host

Q3) Practices that are not consistent with the dominant values of a culture are less likely to have positive effects on employees' performance and behavior.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Discuss localization and higher-of-home-or-host compensation plans.

Q5) What are some disadvantages of difficulties can come from hiring local nationals?

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Q6) To survive,cope,and succeed,managers need training in what three areas?

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