Kinesiology Test Questions - 7639 Verified Questions
Kinesiology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Kinesiology is the scientific study of human movement, encompassing the physiological, biomechanical, and psychological mechanisms underlying physical activity. This course explores how the body functions during exercise and movement, examining the roles of muscles, bones, and joints, as well as the neural and cardiovascular systems. Students will develop a foundational understanding of concepts such as motor development, biomechanics, exercise physiology, and the principles of physical fitness, preparing them for careers in health, sports, rehabilitation, and physical education.
Recommended Textbook
Structure and Function of the Body 15th Edition by Kevin T. Patton PhD
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bilateral symmetry is characteristic of external body organization,but not necessarily of internal organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The dorsal cavity consists of the cranial and spinal cavities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The lymphatic system plays an important role in immunity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Because humans walk upright,superficial can be substituted for superior.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 1: B: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of life?
A) Digestion
B) Balance
C) Conductivity
D) Circulation
E) Reproduction
Answer: B
Q2) The reproductive system includes all of the following except the:
A) testes.
B) ovaries.
C) ureter.
D) penis.
Answer: C
Q3) Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called:
A) viruses.
B) bacteria.
C) fungi.
D) protozoa.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: A: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) If one side of the DNA molecule was CCTAGGC,the opposite side of the molecule would be CCTAGGC.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Biochemistry involves the chemical makeup of living organisms and the underlying process of life activities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A neutral atom that has 22 protons must have 22 neutrons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Adenine and thymine are referred to as purine bases,which are important constituents of a DNA molecule.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: B: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents a trace element in the body?
A) Sulfur
B) Chlorine
C) Iron
D) Phosphorus
Q2) bond that is formed by the transfer of an electron from one atom to another
A)Proton
B)Neutron
C)Electron
D)Isotopes
E)Ionic bonds
F)Covalent bonds
G)Octet rule
H)Atomic number
I)Atomic mass
J)Hydrogen bonds
Q3) Describe the Bohr model of the atom.
Q4) Name and briefly describe the type of chemical bonds discussed in this chapter.
Q5) Compare and contrast the structures of DNA and RNA.
Q6) Explain the different functions performed by RNA in the cell.
Page 6
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Chapter 3: A: Anatomy of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cilia are longer and more numerous than flagella.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Water-soluble substances easily pass through the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Proteins in the cell membrane can control the movement of material through the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Organelles can be divided into two groups,hydrophobic (water fearing)and hydrophilic (water loving).
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cytoplasm is another term for cytosol.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Chromosomes and chromatin are both forms of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 3: B: Anatomy of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell extension that contains microfilaments is called:
A) microvilli.
B) flagella.
C) cilia.
D) All cell extensions contain microfilaments.
Q2) functions in processing and packaging of protein molecules to be exported from the cell
A)Plasma membrane
B)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)Golgi apparatus
D)Nucleolus
E)Nucleus
F)Ribosome
G)Lysosome
H)Mitochondria
I)Peroxisomes
J)Rough endoplasmic reticulum
K.Proteasomes
Q3) Explain the structure and function of the primary cilium in the cell.Which cell type does not have a primary cilium?
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Chapter 4: Physiology of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The small water channels in the cell membrane are called:
A) phospholipids molecules.
B) transport pumps.
C) aquaporins.
D) transport vesicles.
Q2) Both the citric acid cycle and the electron transport system occur in the mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diffusion is a form of filtration that results in the separation of small and large solute particles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A semipermeable membrane is needed for diffusion to occur.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Anaerobic respiration is about 17 times more efficient in producing ATP than is aerobic respiration.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cell Growth and Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mitochondria are unique organelles because they are able to replicate themselves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A major function of DNA is to instruct the ribosome,through tRNA,concerning which protein is to be synthesized.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following occur as a result of meiosis except:
A) chromosome number remains at 46.
B) primitive sex cells become mature gametes.
C) the cells become haploid.
D) meiosis occurs in two steps.
Q5) Transfer RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome where they are added to the protein being built.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Connective tissue tends to have large quantities of extracellular matrix.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cells found only in cartilage include:
A) chondrocytes and fibroblasts.
B) chondrocytes and macrophages.
C) chondrocytes and mast cells.
D) only chondrocytes.
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelial tissue?
A) Forms glands that secrete substance into and out of the body
B) Is important in communication and control
C) Covers and protects body surfaces
D) Lines the interior of body cavities
Q4) Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Adipose tissue is a type of connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Why is blood considered to be the most unusual type of connective tissue?
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Chapter 7: A: Skin and Its Appendages
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primary function of the dermal-epidermal junction is to "glue" together the dermis and the epidermis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Although the ducts of the eccrine sweat glands come through the epidermis,the actual secretory portion is located in the dermis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One way to stimulate hair growth is to cut it or shave it.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The dermis contains both voluntary and involuntary muscle fibers. A)True B)False
Q5) One of the important functions of the skin is the synthesis of vitamin D. A)True
B)False
Q6) Terminal hair is the coarse pubic and axillary hair that develops at puberty. A)True B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 7: B: Skin and Its Appendages
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Sample Questions
Q1) The area of the skin in an average-size adult is about _____ square feet.
A) 12
B) 18
C) 24
D) 31
Q2) When the skin looks cyanotic,it is because _____ can be seen through the skin.
A) oxygen-poor blood
B) oxygen-rich blood
C) hemosiderin
D) bile pigments
Q3) The hypodermis:
A) connects the dermis to underlying tissues.
B) is the layer of skin in which hair is produced.
C) connects the dermis and the epidermis.
D) is the layer of skin in which the nails are produced.
Q4) Differentiate among first-,second-,and third-degree burns.
Q5) Name and explain the methods of heat loss discussed in this chapter.
Q6) Explain the role of the blood vessels in the skin in the homeostatic regulation of heat loss in the body.
Q7) Explain the two ways in which body surface area can be estimated.
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Chapter 8: A: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The strength of bone is increased by the arrangement of trabeculae.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The bones of the skull and the ribs are examples of flat bones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The type of cartilage growth most prevalent in childhood and early adolescence is interstitial or endogenous growth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Myeloid tissue is another name for bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In an infant's or child's body,virtually all of the bones contain yellow marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Calcitonin is a protein hormone produced by the pituitary gland that helps regulate blood calcium levels.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 8: B: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first step in healing a fracture is:
A) the formation of specialized callus.
B) the formation of a fracture hematoma.
C) proper alignment of the fracture.
D) the formation of a collar of normal bone covering the broken ends.
Q2) Describe the varying degrees of bone formation (ossification)and bone destruction (resorption)that occurs from childhood to adulthood.
Q3) Diploë can be found:
A) in the diaphysis of a compact bone.
B) in the middle of spongy bone.
C) in the epiphysis of compact bone.
D) connecting parallel osteons in spongy bone.
Q4) Which type of bone consists only of compact bone?
A) Long
B) Short
C) Irregular
D) All types of bones are composed of both compact and spongy bone.
Q5) Name,describe,and give the location of the different types of cartilage found in the body.
Page 15
Q6) Describe the two chemical components of the extracellular bone matrix.
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Chapter 9: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) first seven pairs of ribs that attach directly to the sternum
A)Body
B)False ribs
C)Floating ribs
D)Manubrium
E)True rib
F)Xiphoid process
G)Costal cartilage
Q2) The text says that 28 bones are in the skull; 8 bones form the cranium,and 14 bones form the face.That leaves 6 bones unaccounted for.What are these bones,and where are they found?
Q3) The anterior of the pelvic girdle is formed by the:
A) sacrum.
B) ilium.
C) ischium.
D) pubis.
Q4) In the lower leg,the tibia is larger than the fibula.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Differentiate among true ribs,false ribs,and floating ribs.
Page 16
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Chapter 10: A: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a group,gliding joints are the least movable of the synovial joints.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Synchondroses joints between the ribs and sternum allow for expansion of the chest cavity during breathing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The shallowness of the glenoid cavity makes the shoulder a rather unstable joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a joint is in anatomical position,a goniometer should read 0°.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The acetabulum is a deep,cuplike socket,whereas the glenoid cavity is shallow and saucer-shaped.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: B: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is slight movement of the symphysis pubis necessary?
Q2) strong cords of dense white connective tissue that help stabilize a joint
A)Articular cartilage
B)Synovial membrane
C)Joint cavity
D)Menisci
E)Joint capsule
F)Ligaments
G)Bursae
Q3) Which joint allows for the most movement?
A) Gliding
B) Saddle
C) Ball and socket
D) Trochoid
Q4) The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the:
A) amount of synovial fluid in the joint.
B) shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones.
C) presence of bursae in the joint.
D) Both A and B are correct.
Q5) Define abduction and adduction and give an example of each.
Page 18
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Chapter 11: A: Anatomy of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a second-class lever,the pull is exerted between the fulcrum and the load.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Convergent muscles are said to be "featherlike" in appearance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Muscles make up about 30% to 40% of our body weight.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Movement is one of the most distinctive and easily observed "characteristics of life."
A)True
B)False
Q5) The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles act as antagonists.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Muscle cells and muscle fibers are interchangeable terms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: B: Anatomy of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name four features that are used in the naming of muscles.Give an example of each.
Q2) Name and describe three of the six muscle shapes discussed in this chapter.
Q3) Which of the following body systems assists the muscles in maintaining posture?
A) Digestive
B) Endocrine
C) Excretory
D) All of the above
Q4) The rectus abdominal muscle is an example of a _____ muscle.
A) convergent
B) parallel
C) fusiform
D) pennate
Q5) Which of the following is not a component of a lever system?
A) Fixator
B) Bone
C) Joint
D) Pull
Q6) Name and explain the three types of levers.Which type is the most common in the body?
Page 20
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Chapter 12: A: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The H-zone in a relaxed sarcomere is composed of only myosin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In visceral smooth muscle,gap junctions join individual smooth muscle fibers into large,continuous sheets.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Isometric contraction is a contraction in which the tone or tension within a muscle remains the same but the length of the muscle changes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because the process of catabolism is less than 100% efficient,some of the energy is given off as heat.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Endurance training usually results in muscle hypertrophy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: B: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Painful muscle contractions or involuntary twitches are called:
A) tetanic contractions.
B) cramps.
C) convulsions.
D) fibrillations.
Q2) Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is incorrect?
A) Cardiac muscle requires nervous stimulation to contract.
B) Cardiac muscle is also called striated involuntary muscle.
C) Cardiac muscle contains intercalated disks.
D) All of the above statements are correct.
Q3) Differentiate among slow,fast,and intermediate fibers.
Q4) Explain what is meant by the graded strength principle of muscle contraction.
Q5) Which of the following types of muscle tissue contains cells that have a single nucleus?
A) Cardiac
B) Smooth
C) Skeletal
D) Both A and B
Q6) Define rigor mortis.Why does it occur?
Q7) Explain the role of ATP in muscle contraction.
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Chapter 13: A: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many anesthetics produce their effects by inhibiting the opening of the potassium channels,blocking the repolarization of nerve impulses.
A)True B)False
Q2) Absolute refractory periods occur in the axon of the cell; relative refractory periods occur in the dendrite or soma of the cell.
A)True B)False
Q3) The efferent division of the nervous system consists of mostly sensory pathways. A)True B)False
Q4) The magnitude of the action potential peaks when the sodium channels close. A)True B)False
Q5) Ependymal cells act like epithelial cells in the CNS,forming thin sheets that line cavities.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 13: B: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) tiny bulge at the end of the presynaptic cell
A)Presynaptic cell
B)Neurotr
C)Postsynaptic cell
D)Synaptic knob
E)Electrical synapse
F)Chemical Synapses
G)Synaptic cleft
Q2) The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is:
A) the membrane potential moves immediately to a value of +30 mV.
B) the potassium channels open.
C) the sodium channels are inactivated.
D) some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open.
Q3) What is the major function of neurons?
Q4) The neurotransmitter(s)that inhibit(s)the conduction of pain impulses is(are):
A) acetylcholine.
B) enkephalins.
C) dopamine.
D) norepinephrine.
Q5) What is the difference between nuclei and ganglia?
Page 24
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Chapter 14: A: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thalamus is responsible for the associating sensory impulses with feelings of pleasantness and unpleasantness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates in the subarachnoid space of the meninges.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Damage to Broca's area of the brain causes a person to become unable to articulate words but still able to make vocal sounds.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The corpus callosum is an example of a commissural tract of the cerebrum.
A)True B)False
Q5) The vomiting reflex is mediated by the cerebellum. A)True
B)False
Q6) The tracts that make up the middle cerebellar peduncle come from the pons.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 14: B: Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is not a true statement about the cerebellum?
A) Its name means "little brain."
B) It has more neurons than any other part of the nervous system.
C) Gray matter makes up the exterior cortex.
D) All of the above statements are true.
Q2) Which of the following is not true?
A) The spinal cord does not completely fill the spinal cavity.
B) The spinal cord extends from the foramen magnum to the first lumbar vertebra.
C) One bundle of nerve fibers (nerve roots) projects from each side of the spinal cord.
D) The spinal cord has anterior and posterior grooves that almost divide the cord into symmetrical halves.
Q3) The white matter of the cerebellum is called the:
A) arbor vitae.
B) vermis.
C) peduncle.
D) None of the above are correct.
Q4) Explain the location and function of primary,secondary,and tertiary sensory neurons.Which of these neurons can decussate?
Q5) Describe the three distinct layers that compose the meninges.
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Chapter 15: Peripheral Nervous System
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Q1) Conduction by the sixth cranial nerve results in sensations of hearing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Two cranial nerves,the hypoglossal and the vagus,receive branches from the cervical plexus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Thoracic spinal nerves are the only segment of spinal nerves that do not participate in a plexus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) At all stages of development,a positive Babinski reflex always means destruction of pyramidal tract fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Injury to the sixth cranial nerve causes the eye to turn in because of paralysis of the abducting muscle of the eye.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) Which is not true about sympathetic postganglionic neurons?
A) They are usually longer than preganglionic neurons.
B) They produce acetylcholine.
C) They produce norepinephrine.
D) They have acetylcholine receptors on their dendrites.
Q2) informal term used to describe the response of the body to sympathetic nervous system stimulation
A)Sympathetic nervous system
B)Parasympathetic nervous system
C)Alpha receptor
D)Nicotinic receptor
E)Sympathetic trunk
F)Splanchnic nerve
G)"Fight or flight"
H)"Rest and repair"
I)Acetylcholine
J)Norepinephrine
Q3) The splanchnic nerve is made up of preganglionic sympathetic fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: A: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Somatic sense receptors are distributed evenly throughout the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Receptors are often described as sensitive axons or end organs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An itch is caused by a rapidly adapting free nerve ending called a root hair plexus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cell most likely to be found in the fovea centralis of the eye would be a rod cell.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Osmoreceptors detect changes in the concentration of electrolytes in body fluids and can stimulate the hypothalamic thirst center.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: B: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain that is perceived as being superficial but actually is caused by an underlying organ is called _____ pain.
A) phantom
B) referred
C) chronic
D) acute
Q2) Differentiate between exteroceptors,visceroceptors,and proprioceptors.
Q3) Visceroceptors are located in which of the following?
A) Skin
B) Tendons
C) Internal organs
D) Skeletal muscles
Q4) Which of the following is not a structure of the middle ear?
A) Incus
B) Stapes
C) Auditory tube
D) Vestibule
Q5) Explain why watery eyes occur when a person gets a common cold.
Q6) Describe each of the receptor categories,based on the types of stimuli that activate them.
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Chapter 18: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The name prostaglandin comes from the prostate gland.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some endocrine glands are actually made of nervous tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The chemical messengers of the endocrine system are neurotransmitters.
A)True
B)False
Q4) one hormone has the opposite effect of another hormone
A)Synergism
B)Steroid hormone
C)Second messenger
D)Target cell
E)Up-regulation
F)Antagonism
G)Prostaglandin
H)Tropic hormone
I)Nonsteroid hormone
J)Permissiveness
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Chapter 19: Endocrine Glands
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Q1) Explain the negative feedback loop of ADH that helps maintain water balance in the body.
Q2) Glucagon,produced by alpha cells,tends to promote the movement of glucose,amino acids,and fatty acids out of the blood and into tissue cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Aldosterone secretion is controlled mainly by the renin-angiotensin mechanism and by the blood potassium concentration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Besides the cells of the kidney,target cells of ADH include muscle cells of the walls of the arteries.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The pituitary gland fits in the pituitary fossa in a structure called the sella turcica. A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the effect of glucagon on blood sugar level?
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Chapter 20: Blood
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230 Verified Questions
230 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34164
Sample Questions
Q1) In the formation of blood cells,the megakaryoblast ultimately develops into:
A) lymphocytes.
B) platelets.
C) monocytes.
D) both A and B.
Q2) In the indirect measurement of blood volume,it is assumed that the radioisotope is uniformly distributed in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Under the microscope,erythrocytes appear as:
A) biconcave disks without nuclei.
B) circular disks with centrally located nuclei.
C) circular disks with several nuclei.
D) oval disks with multilobed nuclei.
Q4) Carbon dioxide is transported as bicarbonate ions because of a chemical reaction catabolized by the enzyme:
A) albumin.
B) fibrinogen.
C) carbonic anhydrase.
D) globulin.
Page 33
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Chapter 21: Anatomy of the Cardiovascular System
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211 Verified Questions
211 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of the myocardium?
A) Cells are joined by intercalated disks.
B) The muscle cells are autorhythmic.
C) The muscle cells can quickly summate contractions to produce tetanus.
D) It is made of electrically coupled functional units called syncytia.
Q2) stomach
A)Axillary
B)Carotid
C)Coronary
D)Femoral
E)Gastric
F)Hepatic
G)Radial
H)Renal
I)Suprarenal
J)Tibial
Q3) Blood passing through a semilunar valve will enter a heart chamber.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What function does the foramen ovale serve in fetal circulation?
Page 34
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Chapter 22: A: Physiology of the Cardiovascular System
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A U wave on an ECG is an indication of damage to ventricular myocardial cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Under abnormal conditions,the AV node or the Purkinje fibers may act as ectopic pacemakers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The subendocardial fibers and Purkinje fibers refer to the same structures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because the ECG is not a direct measure of contraction,an ECG deflection could be recorded without the actual contraction of the heart muscle occurring.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The P wave is named as such because it measures a positive deflection in the ECG. A)True
B)False
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Page 35
Chapter 22: B: Physiology of the Cardiovascular System
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34148
Sample Questions
Q1) Peripheral resistance to blood flow comes about because of:
A) friction between the blood cells and vessel walls.
B) an increase in "arteriole runoff."
C) constriction of the veins at the end of the capillary bed.
D) both A and C.
Q2) Peripheral resistance is affected primarily by:
A) the length of myocardial fibers.
B) blood viscosity and the diameter of arterioles.
C) the capacity of the blood reservoirs.
D) elasticity of the heart.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the baroreceptors?
A) They are stretch receptors.
B) They are sensitive to changes in the oxygen content of the blood.
C) They send afferent nerve impulses to the cardiac control centers.
D) They are located in the carotid sinus and the aorta.
Q4) Which of the following events would tend to cause a decrease in blood viscosity?
A) An increase in red blood cell count
B) Marked anemia
C) An increase in blood protein concentration
D) Both A and C
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Chapter 23: Lymphatic System
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196 Verified Questions
196 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type of blood cell produced by lymph nodes is called a(n):
A) eosinophil.
B) erythrocyte.
C) neutrophil.
D) monocyte.
Q2) Adenitis is:
A) an infected adenoid.
B) an infected lymph node.
C) tissue swelling.
D) none of the above.
Q3) The thymus appears yellowish early in childhood because of the high concentration of fat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The tonsils located near the posterior opening of the nasal cavity are called the _____ tonsils.
A) palatine
B) pharyngeal
C) lingual
D) laryngeal
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Chapter 24: A: Immune System
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34170
Sample Questions
Q1) To function independently in the immune process,both B cells and T cells must become thymocytes during development.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Interferon mainly interferes with the ability of bacteria to produce disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Unlike B cells,T cells do not display antigen receptors on their surface membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In humans,bursa equivalent tissue is the site for B-cell development.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cytokines include leukotrienes,interferons,and histamine.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Humoral immunity occurs within the plasma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: B: Immune System
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The complement system can be activated by:
A) the binding of complement protein 1 to the complement-binding site on the antibody molecule.
B) the binding of complement protein 3 to bacteria or viruses in the presence of properdin.
C) nonspecific immune mechanisms.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Two-year-old Jenny was exposed to chickenpox.She was already undergoing treatment for leukemia.Her oncologist decided to give her a dose of interferon.What effect was the physician hoping for with this approach?
Q3) Chris has very bad allergies,especially in the springtime,and is seeking help to overcome her allergic reactions.Why would an antihistamine help Chris be more comfortable?
A) It would counter the effects of the self-antigen reaction.
B) It would replace the allergen with a different chemical and thus reduce her symptoms.
C) It would reduce the antigen-antibody reactions caused by the allergen.
D) It would reduce the amount of human leukocyte antigen in her system.
Q4) What is a natural killer cell? Explain the functioning of a natural killer cell.
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Chapter 25: Stress
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) name given by Selye to the group of changes that manifest the presence of stress
A)Stage of resistance
B)Stressors
C)Adaptation
D)Stress syndrome
E)Alarm reaction
F)Stage of exhaustion
G)General adaptation syndrome
H)Glucocorticoids
Q2) changes in the body initiated as a response to stress
A)Stage of resistance
B)Stressors
C)Adaptation
D)Stress syndrome
E)Alarm reaction
F)Stage of exhaustion
G)General adaptation syndrome
H)Glucocorticoids
Q3) Identify and briefly describe the three stages in the general adaptation syndrome.
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Page 40
Chapter 26: Anatomy of the Respiratory System
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213 Verified Questions
213 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure of the secondary and tertiary bronchi and bronchioles is nearly identical to the structure of the primary bronchi.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Besides being the name of a heart chamber,ventricle is the name of a part of the larynx.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The small openings in the cribriform plate function to:
A) allow air to move between the nostrils.
B) allow branches of the olfactory nerve to enter the cranial cavity and reach the brain.
C) provide a filtering system for the inspired air.
D) do both A and B.
Q4) tubes that supply the respiratory bronchioles
A)Alveoli
B)Primary bronchi
C)Secondary bronchi
D)Tertiary bronchi
E)Trachea
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Chapter 27: A: Physiology of the Respiratory System
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major factor that determines the movement of air into or out of the lungs is a pressure gradient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Blood is distributed through the capillaries in a layer so thin that each red blood cell comes in contact with the alveolar-capillary membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In normal breathing,the inspiratory reserve volume is greater than the expiratory reserve volume.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The expiratory center of the medulla seems to be inactive in normal,quiet breathing. A)True
B)False
Q5) The apneustic center is located in the medulla of the brain.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 27: B: Physiology of the Respiratory System
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83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34152
Sample Questions
Q1) Which gas law deals with the solubility of gases in solution?
A) Dalton
B) Henry
C) Boyle
D) Charles
Q2) Explain the terms ventilation and perfusion.Explain how they must work together to allow efficient gas exchange in the lung.
Q3) labored or difficult breathing; often associated with hypoventilation
A)Dyspnea
B)Cheyne-Stokes respiration
C)Eupnea
D)Hypoventilation
E)Biot breathing
F)Hyperventilation
G)Hyperpnea
H)Orthopnea
I)Apneusis
J)Apnea
Q4) Explain the process by which carbon dioxide is transported by the blood.
Q5) Explain the process by which oxygen is transported by the blood.
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Chapter 28: A: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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137 Verified Questions
137 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gingivitis is the general term for inflammation or infection of the gums.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both the stomach and gallbladder contain folds called rugae.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The substances insulin and glucagon are both produced by the liver but have opposite effects on carbohydrate metabolism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Periodontitis is a type of tooth decay involving the pulp of the tooth.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The esophagus is anterior to the trachea.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The term intramural plexus includes both the Meissner and the Auerbach plexus. A)True
B)False
Page 44
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Chapter 28: B: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) collapsible muscular tube that carries food from the pharynx to the stomach
A)Liver
B)Common bile duct
C)Pharynx
D)Body of the stomach
E)Esophagus
F)Mesentery
G)Ascending colon
H)Jejunum
I)Duodenum
J)Cystic duct
K)Ileum
L)Gallbladder
M)Fundus of the stomach
N)Descending colon
O)Pancreas
P)Pylorus of the stomach
Q2) What is an anatomical reason that aged individuals have a lower incidence of appendicitis than do children and young adults?
Q3) Name and describe the reflections of the peritoneum.
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Chapter 29: A: Physiology of the Digestive System
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128 Verified Questions
128 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lecithin is secreted by the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Chylomicrons are formed in the epithelial cells lining the small intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some of the enzymes in pancreatic juice are inactive.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Although the cotransport of sodium and glucose is a passive process,it would not be possible without the active transport of sodium out of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Salivary glands are stimulated only by olfactory and visual stimuli.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The hydrophilic portion of lecithin is attracted to the exterior water of the micelle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: B: Physiology of the Digestive System
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122 Verified Questions
122 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) inhibits gastric secretion; stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice low in enzymes and high in alkalinity; stimulates ejection of bile by the gallbladder
A)Secretin
B)Cholecystokinin (CCK)
C)Gastrin
D)Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
Q2) enzyme that works on milk sugars
A)Amylase
B)Bile
C)Lactase
D)Maltase
E)Pepsin
F)Peptidase
G)Sucrase
H)Trypsin
I)Lipase
Q3) Donna has Crohn disease,which results in inflammation and ulceration of the small intestine.Her physician recommended surgery to help in the management of this autoimmune disease.Could her entire small intestine be removed? Why or why not?
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Chapter 30: A: Nutrition and Metabolism
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129 Verified Questions
129 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the anaerobic pathway,glucose can be converted to lactic acid without the use of oxygen.The lactic acid can then enter the citric acid cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Foods coming from plants do not contain cholesterol. A)True
B)False
Q3) Unsaturated fats are usually liquids at room temperature. A)True
B)False
Q4) The end product of glycolysis,pyruvic acid,is the starting substance for the citric acid cycle.
A)True B)False
Q5) The body has an almost equal ability to store fats and carbohydrates. A)True
B)False
Q6) Growth hormone is considered an anabolic hormone. A)True B)False
Page 48
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Chapter 30: B: Nutrition and Metabolism
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115 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) the use the body makes of foods after they have been digested,absorbed,and circulated to cells
A)Anabolism
B)Catabolism
C)Metabolism
D)Nutrition
E)Assimilation
Q2) The process of splitting glycogen is called:
A) glycogenesis.
B) glycogenolysis.
C) gluconeogenesis.
Q3) energy-requiring process by which small molecules are joined to form larger molecules
A)Anabolism
B)Catabolism
C)Metabolism
D)Nutrition
E)Assimilation
Q4) Basal metabolic rate assumes three "basal" conditions; name and explain them.
Q5) Explain the electron transport system.How is ATP produced in the mitochondria?
Page 49
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Chapter 31: A: Urinary System
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kidneys are surrounded by fat and are enclosed by the parietal peritoneum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Structures such as the ureter and blood vessels enter and leave the kidney through the hilum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Both ADH and aldosterone attempt to decrease normal urine output.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood leaves the glomerulus through efferent venules.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A glomerulus is a group of capillaries located in a Bowman capsule.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In the blood vessels in the kidney,lobar arterioles divide to become segmental arterioles.
A)True
B)False
Page 50
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Chapter 31: B: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The movement of molecules out of the tubules and into the peritubular blood defines:
A) glomerular filtration.
B) secretion.
C) micturition.
D) reabsorption.
Q2) The nitrogenous wastes in the urine are usually the result of protein catabolism.They include all except:
A) urea.
B) ammonia.
C) creatinine.
D) amino acids.
Q3) collecting tubules
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Chapter 32: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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201 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both ADH and aldosterone cause fluid retention.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The only functionally important difference between blood plasma and interstitial fluid is the presence of more protein anions in plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A body weight loss of 7% due to dehydration is the most that can be tolerated and still sustain life.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Organic compounds are important sources of electrolytes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most common cause of edema is generalized venous congestion as a result of heart failure.
A)True B)False
Q6) What are anions? What are cations? Give examples of each.
Page 52
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Chapter 33: Acid-Base Balance
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190 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The control of acid and base levels is considered a homeostatic mechanism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement?
A) Arterial blood has a higher hydrogen ion concentration than venous blood.
B) Venous blood has a higher pH than arterial blood.
C) Arterial blood has an average pH of 7.41.
D) Venous blood has a lower hydrogen ion concentration than arterial blood.
Q3) A solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 1.0 ´ 10-¹ per liter would have a pH of:
A) 10.
B) -1.
C) 1.
D) none of the above.
Q4) Vomiting results in alkalosis because of the loss of sodium from the stomach.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Mineral elements that are acidic include potassium,calcium,and sodium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Male Reproductive System
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213 Verified Questions
213 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) sex cell
A)Semen
B)Androgen
C)Testes
D)Prostate
E)Gamete
F)Testosterone
G)Gonads
H)Spermatogenesis
I)Bulbourethral
J)Spermatozoon
K)Vas deferens
L)Seminal vesicles
M)Sustentacular cells
N)Epididymis
O)Penis
P)Scrotum
Q)Genitalia
R)Corpus cavernosum
Q2) Describe the structure and function of the sustentacular cells.
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Chapter 35: A: Female Reproductive System
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124 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main lactiferous ducts converge toward the nipple of the breast but empty into lactiferous sinuses before reaching the nipple.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The myometrium contracts mildly but frequently after ovulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A function of the female reproductive system is to ensure the continued existence of the genetic code.
A)True B)False
Q4) The myometrium is thickest at the cervix and thinnest at the fundus. A)True B)False
Q5) The wide upper portion of the uterus is called the cervix. A)True B)False
Q6) One effect of progesterone is increase of myometrial contractions. A)True B)False
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Chapter 35: B: Female Reproductive System
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104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of the ovaries?
A) They are located on either side of the uterus.
B) They are attached to the mesovarial ligament.
C) They are attached to the uterine ducts.
D) All of the above statements are true of the ovaries.
Q2) The greater vestibular glands are also called _____ glands.
A) Bartholin
B) Cowper
C) Skene
D) Huntington
Q3) skin-covered pad of fat over the symphysis pubis
A)Clitoris
B)Labia majora
C)Mons pubis
D)Urinary meatus
E)Vestibule
Q4) What are the main functions of the uterus?
Q5) Describe the microscopic structure of the ovaries.Explain the roles of the granulose cells and the theca cells in the functioning of the ovaries.
Q6) Describe the structure of the uterus.
Page 56
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Chapter 36: A: Growth and Development
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133 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only thing contributed to the egg by the fertilizing sperm is the nucleus of the sperm.
A)True B)False
Q2) In early pregnancy,hormones to sustain pregnancy are produced by the corpus luteum.
A)True B)False
Q3) The brain and the spinal cord originate in the ectoderm. A)True B)False
Q4) Meiotic division II is essentially the same as mitotic division I. A)True B)False
Q5) The neonatal period lasts from birth until 1 year. A)True B)False
Q6) The prenatal period begins at conception and continues until the end of infancy. A)True B)False
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Chapter 36: B: Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)by the placental tissue peaks about _____ weeks after fertilization.
A) 2 to 3
B) 3 to 4
C) 8 to 9
D) 13 to 14
Q2) At fertilization,what part of the sperm cell enters the egg?
A) Nucleus of the sperm
B) RNA from the sperm
C) Proteins from the sperm
D) All of the above
Q3) Fertilization takes place in the:
A) vagina.
B) uterus.
C) uterine tube.
D) ovary.
Q4) What is the function of polar bodies in oogenesis?
Q5) Tommy's mother told the pediatrician during Tommy's 1-year visit that he had tripled his birth weight,was crawling actively,and could stand alone.Is Tommy's development normal,retarded,or advanced?
58
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Chapter 37: A: Genetics and Heredity
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130 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34183
Sample Questions
Q1) One form of gene therapy uses bacteria-like DNA plasmids to carry therapeutic genes to a cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The X chromosome and the Y chromosome are the same size.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The function of DNA is to transcribe the genetic code to tRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Only about half of the human population has 23 pairs of chromosomes in their cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A person who is heterozygous for albinism will have the abnormal phenotype for the condition.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: B: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions does not occur as a result of nondisjunction?
A) Tay-Sachs disease
B) Down syndrome
C) Turner syndrome
D) Klinefelter syndrome
Q2) nervous disorder characterized by involuntary trembling and muscle rigidity
A)Down syndrome
B)Huntington disease
C)Klinefelter syndrome deficiency
D)Multiple neurofibromatosis
E)Parkinson disease
F)Retinitis pigmentosa
G)Severe combined immune deficiency
H)Tay-Sachs disease
Q3) When did the scientific study of genetics begin? Give a brief summary of what happened.
Q4) Why must DNA transcription stop during mitosis?
Q5) Describe three possible hypotheses for the genetic basis of cancer.
Q6) Discuss genetic counseling.Include in your discussion an explanation of a pedigree,the Punnett square,and a karyotype.
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