Kinesiology Test Questions - 512 Verified Questions
Kinesiology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Kinesiology is the scientific study of human movement, encompassing the physiological, biomechanical, and psychological principles that govern motion. This course explores how musculoskeletal, nervous, and cardiovascular systems contribute to physical activity, and examines factors influencing performance, injury prevention, and rehabilitation. Students will gain foundational knowledge in anatomy, exercise physiology, and motor control, with practical applications for health, fitness, sports, and clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 7th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the definition of therapeutic exercise and the goal of designing an individualized program of therapeutic exercise, the physical therapist might develop a therapeutic exercise program in order to:
A)Restore function through the elimination of body structure impairments.
B)Improve function but not to remediate or reduce disability.
C)Optimize overall health status, fitness, or sense of well-being.
D)Remediate activity limitations but not to reduce health-related risk factors.
Answer: C
Q2) Helping a patient acquire the ability to shift his weight from side to side in a standing position by means of manual guidance by the therapist is called:
A)Summary feedback.
B)Delayed feedback.
C)Concurrent feedback.
D)Instantaneous postresponse feedback.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Prevention, Health, and Wellness
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Q1) Each of the following is a prescreening question that should be addressed before participation in a health promotion program, except:
A)Have you ever been diagnosed with a heart condition?
B)What are your blood pressure and heart rate normally?
C)Do you experience chest pain when you engage in physical activity?
D)Do you ever lose your balance or lose consciousness?
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following best describes the target audience for a program of physical activity designed for primary prevention of childhood obesity?
A)A group of morbidly obese children who have been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes
B)A group of mildly obese children who are identified as being "at risk" for type 2 diabetes
C)A group of mildly obese children
D)A group of sedentary children whose weight is within normal limits
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Range of Motion
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Q1) You are treating a patient who sustained an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint.When it is permissible for the patient to begin self-assisted or active ROM of the involved shoulder within pain-free ranges, which of the following exercises places the most stress on the anterior aspect of the capsule at the end range of external rotation, therefore posing the greatest risk of re-dislocating the involved shoulder?
A)Wand exercises while lying in the supine position with both shoulders abducted to 90° (upper arms supported on the treatment table) and both elbows flexed to 90°
B)Wand exercises while sitting in a chair or standing, both arms at the patient's sides and elbows flexed to 90°
C)Self-assisted shoulder ROM guided manually by the sound hand while lying on the sound side and the involved upper arm resting on a pillow placed alongside the chest and the elbow flexed to 90°
D)Self-assisted shoulder ROM guided manually by the sound hand while the patient is lying in the supine position on a treatment table and the involved arm is at the patient's side, resting on a pillow in slight abduction and flexion and the elbow is flexed to 90°
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Stretching for Improved Mobility
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Q1) To achieve maximum elongation of the long head of the biceps brachii during passive stretching:
A)Extend the elbow with the forearm in pronation and then extend the shoulder.
B)Flex the shoulder overhead after extending the elbow with the forearm in supination.
C)Extend the elbow with the forearm in supination and then extend the shoulder.
D)Flex the shoulder overhead after extending the elbow with the forearm in pronation.
Q2) To maintain gains in ROM achieved as the result of a stretching program, it is recommended to:
A)Use the stretch-induced gains in ROM during functional activities as soon as able on a regular basis.
B)Perform daily resistance training of the muscle group opposite the stretched muscle.
C)Apply heat on a daily basis to the lengthened muscle groups.
D)Perform daily resistance training of the stretched muscle.
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Q1) Your patient's knee was immobilized in a long leg cast for more than a month.To improve knee ROM, you have been treating the knee with a grade III posterior glide of the tibia with the knee in the resting position.To progress the procedure for which this treatment was intended, you could:
A)Take the joint to the end of the range of flexion, internally rotate the tibia, and apply a sustained grade III distraction.
B)Use a grade IV posterior glide oscillation technique in the resting position.
C)Position the tibia in a resting position, then externally rotate the tibia and apply a grade III posterior glide.
D)Take the joint to the end of the range of flexion, position the tibia in external rotation, and apply a grade III sustained posterior glide.
Q2) To determine the point of tissue resistance and how sensitive a joint is, you would use which of the following grades of sustained mobilization?
A)Grade I
B)Grade II
C)Grade III
D)Grade IV
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
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Q1) You are having a patient perform manual resistance exercise in a PNF pattern, specifically the D flexion pattern for the upper extremity.As the patient flexes the shoulder and brings the arm overhead against your resistance, what other muscle groups at the shoulder are being strengthened?
A)Abductors and external rotators
B)Adductors and external rotators
C)Abductors and internal rotators
D)Adductors and internal rotators
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding isokinetic exercise?
A)Joint compressive forces increase with increased velocity of exercise.
B)Load is dependent on the velocity of limb movement through the arc of motion.
C)Slow-velocity training is more appropriate for carryover to functional activities than medium and fast velocities.
D)Depending on the type of isokinetic dynamometer used, the rate of limb movement may range from 0° to 500° per minute.
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8
Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following statements is correct about the use of arm exercises (upper extremity ergometry) versus leg exercises (treadmill walking, bicycling) in a cardiac rehabilitation program?
A)There are no differences in responses of the cardiopulmonary system with arm exercises versus leg exercises.
B)Myocardial O consumption (heart rate ´ systolic blood pressure) is higher with arm exercises than with leg exercises.
C)Myocardial efficiency is lower with arm exercises than with leg exercises.
D)Patients with coronary artery disease typically are able to complete less work with leg exercises than arm exercises before symptoms occur.
Q2) Four methods of training are known to challenge the aerobic system.Which method of training is characterized by a period of exercise followed by a brief period of relief?
A)Continuous
B)Interval
C)Circuit
D)Circuit-interval
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Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Romberg Test measures:
A)Anticipatory balance control.
B)Reactive balance control.
C)Static balance control.
D)Dynamic balance control.
Q2) The outcome measure developed specifically to measure balance control during gait in people with vestibular disorders is the:
Q3) Individuals with somatosensory deficits in the lower extremities, such as peripheral polyneuropathies, tend to use which of the following motor strategies in response to balance disturbances?
A)Ankle strategy
B)Hip strategy
C)Stepping strategy
D)Suspensory strategy
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Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
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Q1) While playing tennis, Mr.K sustained a grade 3 tear of the Achilles tendon and subsequently underwent a surgical repair of the tendon.His wound is now well healed, and he is permitted to immerse the incision site in water.His goal for therapy is to return to tennis competitively.To challenge his balance on the involved lower extremity, you have him stand in front of a strong, single stream of water (jet) while trying not to use his arms for balance.This activity applies which hydromechanics property of water?
A)Drag
B)Viscosity
C)Laminar flow
D)Turbulent flow
Q2) The dynamics of circulation may be affected by immersing a body part in deep water because of the effects of:
A)Viscosity.
B)Laminar flow.
C)Buoyancy.
D)Hydrostatic pressure.
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Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury, Repair, and Management
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Q1) All of the following are considerations for interventions when establishing a rehabilitation program for a patient diagnosed with chronic inflammation resulting from repetitive trauma except:
A)Tissues subjected to repetitive trauma may never completely heal.
B)Connective tissue sustains structural weakening as a result of the perpetuated inflammatory tissue response.
C)Initiation of resistance exercise should begin with eccentric (muscle lengthening) techniques as soon as pain subsides to avoid tissue contracture.
D)Inflammatory response must first be managed by controlling the inflammation with modalities or other conservative measures.
Q2) Passive ROM and grade I or II joint-mobilization techniques are appropriate during the acute stage of soft tissue healing.What do these interventions have in common when used during this stage?
A)Include movements into tissue resistance
B)Affect muscle, ligament, and capsular tissue around the site of injury equally
C)Maintain fluid dynamics and nutrition in a joint
D)Used to increase ROM
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Chapter 11: Joint, Connective Tissue, and Bone Disorders and Management
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Q1) Your patient has osteoarthritis of the left hip and states he experiences hip and thigh pain after walking for more than 20 to 30 minutes.As a therapist, which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for you to recommend?
A)A period of complete rest or immobility
B)Application of heat and massage after periods of walking
C)Measures to decrease the mechanical stresses on the hip joint, such as use of a cane when walking over an extended period of time
D)Use of anti-inflammatory medication
Q2) A 43-year-old patient with a diagnosis of FM has been referred to you for an exercise program.As you take her history, she tells you that she rarely exercises.Which of the following types of exercise has been shown to be most appropriate at the beginning of an exercise program for patients with FM?
A)Circuit weight training at 60% to 70% of the maximum repetition for each exercise at five or six stations
B)Stretching program of trunk and large muscles of the extremities
C)Aerobic exercise started at a low intensity that is adjusted based on the individual's response
D)Relaxation and meditation exercises
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Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
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Q1) You are part of a team presenting a preoperative education program for a group of patients scheduled to undergo total knee or hip replacement during the next month at a large medical center where you are employed.As a therapist, you most likely would be responsible for presenting information on each of the following topics except:
A)An explanation and demonstration of exercises a patient is expected to do the day of or after surgery.
B)An explanation of early postoperative precautions, such as weight-bearing restrictions or safe and unsafe positioning.
C)An explanation of the administration of postoperative pain medication, such as patient-controlled analgesics.
D)Use of assistive devices, such as a walker or crutches, for early ambulation.
Q2) Each of the following is a relative or absolute contraindication for use of total joint replacement arthroplasty except:
A)Severe loss of bone stock.
B)Active systemic infection or infection in the joint.
C)Significant paralysis of the muscles surrounding the joint.
D)Significant joint deformity.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
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Q1) Your patient experiences a tingling sensation in the upper extremity while in the following position: shoulder girdle depression; slight abduction of the shoulder; elbow extension; medial rotation of the arm; pronation of the forearm, wrist, and finger; thumb flexion; and ulnar deviation of the wrist.Which peripheral nerve is being placed on a stretch?
A)Median
B)Radial
C)Ulnar
D)Musculocutaneous
Q2) The pain associated with CRPS characteristically is:
A)Entirely psychogenic and responsive to antidepressants.
B)Intermittent and related to body and head position.
C)Out of proportion to the report of history of injury or precipitating event.
D)Always responsive to modalities, primarily cold and electrical stimulation.
Q3) Dominant signs of CRPS that should alert you to the potential of this condition developing are:
A)Pain, osteoporosis, swelling, and paresthesias.
B)Pain, swelling, stiffness, and discoloration of the hand.
C)Pain, muscle atrophy, stiffness, and brittle nails.
D)Recent injury, pain, and red, hot, swollen tissue.
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Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, Function, and Posture
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Q1) Postural stability of the spine is provided by:
A)Elasticity of passive restraints.
B)Interaction of passive restraints and muscle control.
C)Interaction of muscle control modulated by the central nervous system and passive restraints.
D)Muscle activity maintaining balance in the neutral zone.
Q2) The anterior pillar of the spine:
A)Consists of the vertebral bodies and the vertebral arches.
B)Includes the sternum and the 12 pairs of ribs.
C)Is the weight-bearing portion of the spinal column.
D)Provides the gliding mechanism for movement.
Q3) The difference between a lordotic posture and a slouched posture is:
A)Only the lordotic posture has lumbar lordosis.
B)Flexion in both the upper lumbar and lower thoracic spine occurs with the slouched posture.
C)Extension of the pelvis on the femurs occurs with the lordotic posture.
D)There is no difference; both affect the pelvis and lumbar spine the same way.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disk lesions are more common in the 30 year to 45 year age span because:
A)The annulus begins degenerating, loses tensile strength, and begins to tear with excessive forces.
B)The nucleus pulposus changes in chemical composition during this time and is capable of imbibing greater than normal amounts of water, causing greater than normal pressure against pain-sensitive structures.
C)The facets are wearing out and the entire joint complex is placed under greater stress.
D)This is not the most common age span for disk lesions.
Q2) Treating the soft tissue of the back:
A)Is more difficult than treating the extremities because of the way it is innervated.
B)Is usually not necessary because most back pain results from dysfunction of the facets or disks.
C)Involves using heat rather than cold, massage rather than exercise, and principles that in general are different from those used when treating the extremities.
D)In principle is no different from treating soft tissues in the extremities.
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17
Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
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Q1) Your patient describes frequent headaches, especially when working at her computer, which get progressively worse during the day.The following limitations in motion are noted: capital flexion, lower cervical extension, cervical side bending, and lateral rotation of the shoulders.Use of a pressure cuff to test control of capital flexion shows the ability to maintain an increase in pressure of 8 mm Hg for 3 seconds.She is not able to lie prone and perform axial extension by lifting her forehead off the table.All of the following would be appropriate methods for initiating your interventions except:
A)Gentle manual traction to the suboccipital region followed by passive capital flexion to increase flexibility.
B)Training of deep cervical flexors to maintain capital flexion for 10-second holds, using a pressure cuff for feedback.
C)Prone-lying axial extension with the head over the end of the table, holding for 10 seconds at a time.
D)Supine lying with a foam roller placed longitudinally under the spine and head, allowing the shoulders to roll outward into external rotation.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
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Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about an arthroscopic subacromial decompression procedure?
A)It is indicated for a patient who sustains a full-thickness, traumatic tear of the rotator cuff if coupled with a repair of torn cuff tissues.
B)It may or may not involve resection of the anterior acromial protuberance and contouring of the undersurface of the remaining acromion.
C)It is indicated for a patient with secondary impingement syndrome due to glenohumeral joint hypermobility/instability.
D)During surgery, the deltoid must be detached for adequate exposure of the suprahumeral space.
Q2) According to Neer's classification of rotator cuff disease, which of the following stages is seen most often in patients 25 to 40 years of age and characterized by tendonitis or bursitis but not a rotator cuff tendon rupture?
A)Stage I
B)Stage II
C)Stage III
D)Stage IV
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
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Q1) Using a handheld weight as the source of resistance, which of the following positions to strengthen the elbow extensors begins with the long head of the triceps brachii fully lengthened?
A)Have the patient assume a prone-lying position with the shoulder in 90° abduction, the upper arm supported on the table, and the elbow flexed to 90°.
B)Have the patient assume the supine position with the shoulder flexed to 90° and the elbow flexed so the handheld weight touches the opposite shoulder.
C)With the patient standing or sitting in a chair, begin with the elbow fully flexed and the arm elevated overhead and stabilized to maintain the shoulder in as much flexion as possible.
D)While the patient is in a standing position and the hips are flexed to 90°, begin with the shoulder in hyperextension.
Q2) Tennis elbow may involve all of the following structures except the:
A)Extensor carpi radialis brevis.
B)Extensor communis.
C)Pronator teres.
D)Annular ligament.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
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Q1) Which of the following is a relative or absolute contraindication for wrist arthroplasty despite debilitating pain in the wrist region and diminished hand and upper extremity function from advanced arthritis?
A)Significant, arthritis-related, ipsilateral limitation of motion of joints proximal and distal of the wrist
B)Subluxation or dislocation of the radiocarpal joint
C)Previous arthritis-related arthrodesis of the opposite wrist where arthrodesis of both wrists would potentially reduce, rather than improve, function
D)The need to perform high-load, high-impact occupational tasks postoperatively
Q2) During the subacute stage of soft tissue healing after injury and repair of the flexor tendons of the hand or forearm, each of the following is an important intervention except:
A)Scar management with pressure on the scar.
B)Tendon-gliding exercises.
C)Gentle prolonged stretch.
D)Progressive resistance exercise.
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Chapter 20: The Hip
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Q1) Each of the following principles is important when designing a therapeutic exercise program to correct hip muscle length/strength imbalances except:
A)When stretching the hip musculature, the spine and pelvis must be stabilized against the force.
B)Contraction of the muscle opposite the range-limiting muscle (i.e., contracting the antagonist of the tight muscle) to assist with the stretching maneuver has the benefit of training the antagonist muscle to function in any newly gained range.
C)Because of the functional demands placed on the lower extremities, it is more important to have full hip ROM than to have "normal" strength of hip musculature.
D)Strengthening exercises should include closed-chain exercises to prepare for functional activities in weight-bearing postures.
Q2) The term hybrid total hip arthroplasty refers to a(n):
A)Hip replacement with a cemented femoral component and a noncemented acetabular component.
B)Total hip replacement that is all metal.
C)Alternate term for bipolar hemiarthroplasty of the hip.
D)Alternate term for minimally invasive arthroplasty.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: The Knee
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Q1) The "minimally invasive knee arthroplasty" is one type of surgical approach for performing TKA.When the surgeon chooses this approach, it is because:
A)It is easier to perform and therefore is the choice of the less-experienced surgeon.
B)The incidence of intraoperative complications is lower.
C)It is an arthroscopic procedure, so the rehabilitation is shorter.
D)It is less disruptive to the soft tissue, with increased rate of postoperative recovery and less postoperative pain.
Q2) A patient with a history of recurrent dislocation of the patella underwent a surgical procedure for realignment of the extensor mechanism.Considering the position of immobilization postoperatively, you would expect to find each of the following impairments when it is permissible to begin exercises except:
A)Lack of full or almost full passive knee extension.
B)Quadriceps (extensor) lag.
C)Lack of full knee flexion.
D)Weakness of the quadriceps and hamstrings.
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23
Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
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Q1) During initial evaluation of a patient with a complaint of low back pain, you perform a standing posture alignment screening and discover that his left leg appears shorter than the right as you compare iliac crests, greater trochanter, head of the fibula, and medial malleolus.What related possible foot deformity should you look for while still in standing?
A)Excessive right foot pronation compared with the left
B)Excessive left foot pronation compared with the right
C)Excessive left foot supination compared with the right
D)Hallux valgus on the right
Q2) Each of the following is an expected improvement after TAA for advanced arthritis except:
A)Increased mediolateral stability of the ankle.
B)Alleviation of pain.
C)Sufficient range of motion (ROM) of the ankle for functional activities.
D)Decreased joint deformity.
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Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
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Q1) Each of the following describes the concept and/or mechanism of plyometrics except:
A)High-velocity eccentric to concentric muscle loading.
B)Stretch-strengthening drills.
C)Stretch-lengthening drills.
D)Reactive neuromuscular training.
Q2) Your patient is nearing the end of his rehabilitation for return to sport and is performing more of his program independently at home.As you are providing education regarding precautions and recognizing signs and symptoms, you discuss how much recovery time he should allow between sessions of high-intensity plyometric drills.Based on research, how much time do you suggest?
A)15-30 minutes
B)24 hours
C)48-72 hours
D)8-12 hours
Q3) Contraindications to the use of plyometrics include all of the following except:
A)Individuals under 10 years or over 70 years.
B)Painful joints.
C)Acute inflammation.
D)Unstable joints.
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Chapter 24: Exercise in the Older Adult
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Q1) Which of the following best describes what is visually depicted in the WAMI-3 model?
A)A comparison of three stages of life aging using chronological versus functional age.
B)The progression of fall risk based on comorbidity, disease processes, and aging
C)The progressive loss of strength and power, bone strength, muscle mass, and cardiovascular and pulmonary function associated with aging and the impact of physical activity and exercise.
D)Representation of three stereotypes related to aging that have created a lack of focus on the importance of exercise and wellness for the older adult
Q2) Aging that occurs as a natural developmental process as a result of the passage of time is defined as:
A)Primary aging.
B)Hypokinesis.
C)Sarcopenia.
D)Secondary aging.
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26
Chapter 25: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) An exercise program that includes posture training to counter the expected postural changes that occur during pregnancy should emphasize each of the following except:
A)Strengthening scapular retractors.
B)Strengthening hip extensors.
C)Strengthening abdominals (low-intensity).
D)Strengthening shoulder internal rotators.
Q2) Varicose veins are aggravated during pregnancy due to all of the following except:
A)Increased venous distensibility.
B)Shift in the center of gravity superiorly and anteriorly.
C)Increased uterine weight.
D)Venous stasis in the legs.
Q3) Each of the following is a normal change during pregnancy except:
A)Increased secretion of insulin.
B)Decreased ligamentous stability.
C)Decreased resting heart rate.
D)Increased thyroid activity.
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Chapter 26: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following factors associated with breast cancer surgery and adjuvant therapy is least likely to contribute to impaired shoulder mobility?
A)Incisional pain
B)Chemotherapy
C)Fibrosis of tissues in the axillary area as the result of radiation therapy
D)Increased thoracic kyphosis related to incisional pain or age
Q2) There are many interventions used to manage the signs and symptoms of lymphedema.Of the following, which is considered to be the least effective based on current evidence?
A)Liposuction
B)Manual lymphatic drainage
C)Pneumatic compression pump
D)Exercise
Q3) The purpose of the lymphatic system is to collect and transport fluid from the:
A)Lungs to the venous system.
B)Interstitial spaces to the venous system.
C)Interstitial spaces to the kidneys.
D)Interstitial spaces to the blood capillaries.
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