Kinesiology is the scientific study of human movement, encompassing the physiological, biomechanical, and psychological mechanisms underlying physical activity. This course explores the structure and function of the musculoskeletal, nervous, and cardiovascular systems as they pertain to movement and exercise. Students will gain an understanding of motor development, movement analysis, and principles of physical fitness, as well as how these concepts apply to health, rehabilitation, sport performance, and injury prevention. Through a blend of theoretical knowledge and practical application, the course prepares students for advanced studies or careers in fields related to health, wellness, and physical education.
Recommended Textbook
Examination of Orthopedic Athletic Injuries 4th Edition by Chad Starkey
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is false concerning hematuria?
A) It may not be visible to the naked eye.
B) It may be present normally after long-distance events.
C) It can only be detected through a urinalysis.
D) It may be present normally due to menstruation.
Answer: C
Q2) Athletes may not want to compete or practice.They may exaggerate or fake their signs and/or symptoms.This is known as
A) exaggerating.
B) faking.
C) malingering.
D) outsmarting the coaches.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following components of the exam is the most informative?
A) History
B) Inspection/observation
C) Palpation
D) Special tests
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Examination and Management of Acute Pathologies
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Q1) In which sport are players permitted to wear only one elbow pad that does not exceed 10 inches in length?
A) Basketball
B) Baseball
C) Wrestling
D) Ice hockey
Answer: B
Q2) As you stand on the sideline of a football game,you see a player go down on the field while holding his knee.Which of the following is the first step in the evaluation process?
A) Seeing the mechanism of injury
B) Getting a history once you arrive at the player's side
C) Palpating the injury
D) Performing passive range of motion (PROM)
Answer: A
Q3) After knee dislocation,angiography is warranted whether or not there is a palpable pulse and/or signs of ischemia.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Practice in the Diagnostic Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) The minimal clinically important change is more meaningful than the minimum detectable change.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) In trying to incorporate the literature into clinical practice,what is the best way to keep up with current research?
A) Try to read it all.
B) Take 2 days off per month and do nothing but read articles.
C) Use a clinical challenge to look at the literature and incorporate published findings.
D) Attend one professional meeting per year.
Answer: C
Q3) What is a test's clinical usefulness if the reliability measure is greater than 0.75?
A) Poor
B) Moderate
C) Good
D) Excellent
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Injury Pathology Nomenclature
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Q1) What injury occurs when a joint is forced beyond its normal anatomical limits,resulting in the stretching or tearing of the ligaments,joint capsule,or both?
A) Sprain
B) Strain
C) Heterotopic ossification
D) Compartment syndrome
Q2) Which of the following tests would be used to assess a patellar subluxation?
A) Valgus stress test
B) Varus stress test
C) Apprehension test
D) McMurray's test
Q3) A 12-year-old boy reports pain,periods of joint locking,and an inability to use his arm.Which of the following injuries does this boy have?
A) Osteochondral defect
B) Meniscal tear
C) Ligament sprain
D) Olecranon bursitis
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6
Chapter 5: Musculoskeletal Diagnostic Techniques
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Q1) Which of the following is used to determine the function of motor and sensory nerves?
A) MRI
B) CT scan
C) Nerve conduction study
D) Electromyography
Q2) Which of the following is the oldest form of diagnostic imaging?
A) Radiograph
B) CT scan
C) MRI
D) Arthrogram
Q3) Which of the following would be used to detect the location of nerve entrapments and isolate the location of specific pathology?
A) MRI
B) CT scan
C) Nerve conduction study
D) Electromyography
Q4) Cortical bone appears darker than cancellous when looking at a radiograph.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Assessment of Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would cause postural problems in a student who is using a backpack?
A) Backpack is carried on only one shoulder.
B) Backpack is carried on two shoulders.
C) Backpack is limited to 10% of body weight.
D) Backpacks can't cause postural problems.
Q2) Which cause of muscle imbalance results in an alteration in the length-tension relationship of muscle?
A) Nerve pathology
B) Joint effusion
C) Poor posture
D) Pain
Q3) Which of the following indicates a positive test when assessing muscle length of the hamstring group?
A) Lacking 5° of knee extension
B) Lacking 10° of knee extension
C) Lacking15° of knee extension
D) Lacking 20° of knee extension
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8
Chapter 7: Evaluation of Gait
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Q1) Approximately what percentage of the total gait cycle represents the double support time?
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
Q2) What is the approximate rise and fall of a person's center of gravity when walking?
A) 2 cm
B) 5 cm
C) 8 cm
D) 10 cm
Q3) Which period of the stance phase begins as the body weight moves directly over the support limb and stationary foot,and concludes when the center of gravity is directly over the foot?
A) Loading response
B) Preswing
C) Midstance
D) Terminal stance
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9
Chapter 8: Foot and Toe Pathologies
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Q1) Which bone is the primary insertion for the tibialis posterior?
A) Navicular
B) Calcaneus
C) Cuboid
D) Base of the fifth metatarsal
Q2) For which problem would one recommend proper bathing,regularly changing socks,and keeping the area dry to help prevent the buildup of fungi?
A) Molluscum contagiosum
B) Tinea pedis
C) Verruca plantaris
D) Hard corns
Q3) Which of the following deformities is formed by the first metatarsal being shorter than the second?
A) Claw toe
B) Hammer toe
C) Morton's toe
D) Hallux valgus
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10
Chapter 9: Ankle and Leg Pathologies
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Q1) Which muscle of the deep posterior compartment is responsible for controlling pronation?
A) Tibialis posterior
B) Flexor hallucis longus
C) Flexor digitorum longus
D) Soleus
Q2) When inspecting the posterior lower leg and ankle,unexplained redness and swelling of the posterior calf could indicate what pathology?
A) Triceps surae strain
B) Achilles tendinopathy
C) Deep vein thrombosis
D) Tibial stress fracture
Q3) What is the normal end-feel for plantar flexion?
A) Hard
B) Soft
C) Bony
D) Firm
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11
Chapter 10: Knee Pathologies
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Q1) Which of the following is the origin and insertion of the sartorius?
A) Anterior superior iliac spine and pes anserine tendon
B) Anterior superior iliac spine and fibula
C) Anterior superior iliac spine and adductor tubercle
D) Anterior inferior iliac spine and the pes anserine tendon
Q2) What injury is assessed using the noble compression test?
A) IT band friction syndrome
B) Meniscal injury
C) Osteochondral defect
D) Plica
Q3) Which is an implication of a positive quadriceps active test?
A) Grade I PCL sprain
B) Grade I ACL sprain
C) Grade III PCL sprain
D) Grade III ACL sprain
Q4) Which of the following can occur following ACL surgery?
A) Gain in hamstring strength
B) Loss of patellar function
C) Loss of knee extension
D) Gain in sartorius strength
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Patellofemoral Pathologies
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Q1) Which of the following patellar malalignments results in increased patellar mobility,decreased quadriceps strength,and increased patellofemoral compressive forces?
A) Patella alta
B) Patella baja
C) "Frog-eyed" patella
D) Squinting patella
Q2) Which of the following lower-extremity postures places an increased compressive force on the lateral patellar facets?
A) Genu varum
B) Genu valgum
C) Genu recurvatum
D) Forefoot pronation
Q3) Which of the following patellar malalignments results in increased patellar glide,a tight lateral retinaculum,and patellar maltracking?
A) Patella alta
B) Patella baja
C) "Frog-eyed" patella
D) Squinting patella
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Pelvis and Thigh Pathologies
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Q1) Which muscle is the primary hip flexor with the knee extended?
A) Iliopsoas
B) Sartorius
C) Rectus femoris
D) Biceps femoris
Q2) The relationship between the femoral head and the femoral shaft in the transverse plane is known as which of the following?
A) Angle of convergence
B) Angle of torsion
C) Angle of Treitz
D) Angle of inclination
Q3) To conduct a thorough evaluation of the pelvis and thigh,which of the following may need to be included?
A) Posture and the spine
B) The lower extremity and posture
C) The spine and the lower extremity
D) Posture, the lower extremity, and the spine
Q4) The angle of torsion changes as an individual grows.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Lumbosacral Pathologies
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Q1) What is the muscle group that is the primary mover for spinal extension and controls the rate of spinal flexion against gravity through eccentric contractions?
A) Erector spinae
B) Transversospinal
C) Iliocostalis
D) Longissimus
Q2) In which position does a disc have the largest shear load placed on it?
A) Supine
B) Flexion
C) Sitting and leaning forward
D) Standing
Q3) How many vertebrae segments comprise the spinal column?
A) 23
B) 30
C) 33
D) 35
Q4) The primary movement occurring between the L1 and L4 vertebrae is rotation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Cervical and Thoracic Spine and Thorax Pathologies
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Q1) Injury to what organ is indicated by pain referred to the left shoulder,also known as Kehr's sign?
A) Liver
B) Spleen
C) Gallbladder
D) Pancreas
Q2) Which of the following is false?
A) Lymph nodes are palpable beneath the mandible and within the scalenes.
B) The scalenes are located posterior to the sternocleidomastoid and at the C3-C6 vertebral level.
C) The larynx sits behind the thyroid cartilage and is found at the C4-C5 vertebral level.
D) The hyoid bone is located at the C3 vertebral level.
Q3) Rapid,uncontrolled eye movement
A)Nystagmus
B)Patency
C)Torticollis
D)Myelopathy
Q4) The supraspinous ligament is called the _______ ________ in the cervical region.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Shoulder and Upper Arm Pathologies
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Q1) Palpation of the anterior shoulder should begin by palpating which of the following?
A) SC joint
B) Jugular notch
C) Manubrium
D) Clavicle
Q2) Injury or trauma to what nerve roots may be indicated by atrophy of the deltoid muscle group?
A) C2 and C3
B) C3 and C4
C) C5 and C6
D) C7 and C8
Q3) The superior angle should sit at what spinous process level during observation of the vertebral borders of the scapula?
A) T1
B) T7
C) T3
D) T12
Q4) Define the plane of the scapula.
Q5) Name all the muscles that have a direct action on the scapula.
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Chapter 16: Elbow and Forearm Pathologies
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Q1) A valgus stress performed on the elbow is assessing the integrity of which ligament?
A) UCL
B) RCL
C) Annular
D) Coracoclavicular
Q2) Which elbow angle represents the correct patient position when performing the varus stress test?
A) 0°
B) 15°
C) 25°
D) 50°
Q3) What is indicated by a hard end-feel with passive elbow flexion?
A) Loose body in the joint
B) A normal joint
C) Triceps brachii tendon rupture
D) Brachioradialis tendon rupture
Q4) The "terrible triad" of the elbow involves which type of injury to what structures?
Q5) List the structures within the cubital fossa.
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Chapter 17: Wrist, Hand, and Finger Pathologies
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Q1) Which nerve supplies the primary innervation for wrist flexion and radial deviation?
A) Median
B) Ulnar
C) Radial
D) Musculocutaneous
Q2) What is the special test used to support or refute the presence of de Quervain syndrome?
A) Finkelstein's test
B) Phalen's test
C) Adson's test
D) Tinel's sign
Q3) Which nerve travels through the tunnel of Guyon?
A) Ulnar
B) Median
C) Radial
D) Musculocutaneous
Q4) Name the two muscles of the flexor grouping that are not innervated by the median nerve.
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Chapter 18: Eye Pathologies
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Q1) What may be indicated when a patient reports a loss of portions of the visual field,typically described as resembling a shade or curtain being pulled over the eye?
A) Detached retina
B) Hyphema
C) Subconjunctival hematoma
D) Corneal laceration
Q2) What is a fracture of the orbital roof called?
A) Blow-out
B) Blow-up
C) Comminuted
D) Blow-in
Q3) An inspection of the eye reveals the globe to be bulging anteriorly.What is this medically known as?
A) Exophthalmos
B) Enophthalmos
C) Hypermetropia
D) Emmetropia
Q4) When checking pupillary reaction,what is considered a positive test?
Q5) Name the bones that form the eye orbit.
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Chapter 19: Face and Related Structure Pathologies
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Q1) The nasal septum is formed on its posterior half by the vomer bone and the perpendicular plate of which of the following?
A) Hard palate
B) Soft palate
C) Maxillary bones
D) Ethmoid bone
Q2) If a tooth is avulsed and cannot be reimplanted,which of the following is an appropriate step?
A) Clean and scrub the debris off the tooth, rinse with saline, and place the tooth in gauze inside of the mouth.
B) Store the tooth in skim milk.
C) Sterilize the tooth, then store in a biocompatible storage environment.
D) Rinse the tooth with saline and store in whole milk if an emergency tooth preserving kit is not available.
Q3) What are three signs and symptoms of a potentially catastrophic injury resulting from a blow to the throat?
Q4) Explain how to perform Weber's test and what is considered a positive test.
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Chapter 20: Head and Acute Cervical Spine Pathologies
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Q1) Which of the following would be considered a coup injury? Select all that apply.
A) A hockey player is struck in the head with a puck.
B) A cheerleader falls from the top of a pyramid, hitting her head on the ground.
C) A volleyball player lands on her buttocks.
D) A boxer gets hit in the temple region of the head and is knocked out.
Q2) List two ways to elicit a pain response from an unconscious patient.
Q3) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)originates from which of the following?
A) Circle of Willis
B) Choroid plexuses
C) Subdural space
D) Subarachnoid space
Q4) What stage of chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)is associated with depression,explosive behavior,and short-term memory loss?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q5) Which cranial nerve(s)are responsible for eye movement?
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