Kinesiology Study Guide Questions - 2459 Verified Questions
Kinesiology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Kinesiology is the scientific study of human movement, performance, and function, drawing upon principles from anatomy, physiology, biomechanics, psychology, and neuroscience. This course explores how the body moves, the mechanics of movement, and the role of physical activity in health, fitness, and rehabilitation. Students will examine motor development, movement analysis, and the effects of exercise on body systems, gaining foundational knowledge for careers in health, sports, and physical education.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy Physiology 13th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Q1) The two organ systems that regulate and maintain homeostasis are the
A)cardiovascular and integumentary systems.
B)nervous and endocrine systems.
C)cardiovascular and respiratory systems.
D)respiratory and muscular systems.
E)urinary and integumentary systems.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic types of tissues found in the human body?
A)epithelial tissue
B)connective tissue
C)muscular tissue
D)necrotic tissue
E)nervous tissue
Answer: D
Q3) List the basic processes of life.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Describe the differences between positive and negative feedback systems.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Q1) Which of the following describes the major significance of the element magnesium in the human body?
A)ionized form makes body fluids acidic
B)ionized form is most plentiful anion in extracellular fluid
C)ionized form is needed for action of many enzymes
D)is a component of all proteins and nucleic acids
E)ionized form is most plentiful cation in extracellular fluid
Answer: C
Q2) In a polar covalent bond,the atom that has the most electronegativity will have a
A)full negative charge (-1).
B)full positive charge (+1).
C)partial negative charge.
D)partial positive charge.
E)neutral charge.
Answer: C
Q3) What is the difference between atomic mass,mass number and atomic number?
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Why is the human digestive system unable to digest cellulose?
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Q1) The human body contains approximately __________ cells,which can be classified into about __________ different cell types.
A)1 billion;200
B)1 trillion;200
C)100 trillion;200
D)1 trillion;4
E)100 trillion;4
Answer: C
Q2) Compare mitosis to meiosis.
Answer: No Answer
Q3) The following is a particular sequence of base triplet on a DNA molecule: ATG.What is the corresponding codon for the mRNA?
A)TAC
B)GUA
C)GTA
D)CTA
E)UAC
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Q1) Which of the following types of tissues is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body?
A)skeletal muscle
B)smooth muscle
C)cardiac muscle
D)intercalated cells
E)myoblasts
Q2) This type of epithelial tissue forms the most superficial layer of the skin.
A)Simple squamous epithelium
B)Simple cuboidal epithelium
C)Stratified squamous epithelium
D)Stratified cuboidal epithelium
E)Simple columnar epithelium
Q3) Which of the following types of tissues contains multinucleated cells whose movements are under voluntary control?
A)skeletal muscle
B)smooth muscle
C)cardiac muscle
D)transitional epithelium
E)areolar tissue
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Q1) Which of the following terms refers to an irregular tear of the skin?
A)abrasion
B)papule
C)keloid
D)laceration
E)cyst
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to a Hardened and thickened area of skin resulting from persistent pressure and friction?
A)callus
B)blister
C)wart
D)papule
E)fever blister
Q3) This epidermal cell has a role in immunity and disease resistance.
A)Langerhans cells
B)Keratinocytes
C)Melanocytes
D)Merkel cells
E)Podocytes
Q4) Describe the major differences between thin skin and thick skin.
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Q1) Patient X has a tumor of the parathyroid glands that causes a hypersecretion of PTH from these glands.Predict the effect this hypersecretion would have on the skeletal system and on the secretion of calcitonin from the thyroid gland.
Q2) These are considered bone-dissolving cells.
A)osteogenic cells
B)osteoclast
C)osteocytes
D)osteoblasts
E)all of these choices
Q3) Briefly describe the steps in bone resorption.
Q4) Describe the signs and symptoms of osteoporosis and describe the risk factors for developing osteoporosis.
Q5) One function of this long bone structure is the storage of energy in the form of triglycerides.
A)diaphysis
B)epiphysis
C)metaphysis
D)periosteum
E)marrow
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: The Axial Skeleton
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Q1) These cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance,and articulate with the mandible.
A)Frontal
B)Temporal
C)Parietal
D)Occipital
E)Nasal
Q2) What is inflammation of one or more costal cartilage called?
A)Costochondritis
B)Arthritis
C)Cartilaginous distension
D)Otitis
E)Intercostal space distension
Q3) Which of the following cranial bones are paired bones in the human skull?
A)temporal
B)parietal
C)sphenoid
D)ethmoid
E)more than one selection is correct
Q4) Briefly discuss the main structural features of the temporal bones.
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The coxal bones unite anteriorly at a joint called the A)pubic symphysis.
B)sacroiliac joint.
C)hip.
D)acetabulum.
E)None of these choices are correct.
Q2) In the standard anatomical position,the _____ is the bone of the pelvis found the most superior.
A)Ilium
B)Pubis
C)Ischium
D)Both ilium and ishium.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) The lesser tubercle of the humerus
A)articulates with the ulna.
B)articulates with the radius.
C)is found on the lateral side of the olecranon fossa.
D)projects anteriorly.
E)is proximal to the glenohumeral joint.
Q4) Name the bones that are included in each upper limb.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) The epiphyseal plate in a long bone is an example of this type of joint.
A)Gomphosis
B)Suture
C)Symphysis
D)Synovial
E)Synchondrosis
Q2) Which of the following structures is used to reduce friction in joints??1.Bursae?2.Synovial fluid?3.Accessory ligaments?4.Elastic fibers
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)4 only
E)1 and 2
Q3) Another term for menisci is
A)articular fat pads.
B)articular discs.
C)articular spaces.
D)capsular fat pads.
E)capsular discs.
Q4) List and briefly describe the three common types of arthritis.
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Q1) Describe the factors that lead to muscle fatigue.
Q2) Which of the following regions of the sarcomere contain thick filaments?
A)zone of overlap
B)A band
C)H zone
D)both A band and H zone
E)All of these answer choices are correct.
Q3) Leg muscles are predominantly composed of which type of muscle fiber?
A)slow oxidative
B)fast glycolytic
C)fast oxidative-glycolytic
D)slow glycolytic
E)fast oxidative
Q4) Which of the following functions as a motor protein in all three types of muscle tissue?
A)actin
B)myosin
C)troponin
D)titin
E)tropomyosin
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Q1) If one is stabbed on the lateral side of the abdomen,what abdominal muscles,in order from superior to deep,will the knife go through?
Q2) This muscle,which is found in the neck,functions to elevate the hyoid bone and help press the tongue against the roof of the mouth during swallowing.
A)mylohyoid
B)sternothryroid
C)sternocleidomastoid
D)digastric
E)masseter
Q3) What anatomical structures of the musculoskeletal system correspond to the components of a lever system? Describe the arrangement of these parts in first,second,and third class lever systems.
Q4) Briefly describe four main benefits of stretching before exercising.
Q5) Discuss the roles of agonists,antagonists,synergists,and fixators in movement.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to chemical binding and is found in dendrites of some sensory receptors like pain receptors,and in the dendrites and cell bodies of interneurons and motor neurons.
A)leakage channel
B)ligand-gated channels
C)mechanically gated channels
D)voltage-gated channels
E)pressure-sensitive channel
Q2) Hearing your cell phone ring in an otherwise quiet lecture hall is an example of which of the following types of nervous system functions?
A)Sensory function
B)Integrative function
C)Motor function
D)More than one of the types of nervous system functions
E)None of the types of nervous system functions
Q3) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron.
Q4) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?
Q5) List the three ways that neurotransmitters can be removed from a synapse.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc monitors body conditions?
A)Sensory receptor
B)Integrating center
C)Motor neuron
D)Effector
E)Interneuron
Q2) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q3) Denticulate ligaments are thickenings of
A)arachnoid mater.
B)pia mater.
C)dura mater.
D)interstitial fluid.
E)subdural space.
Q4) These white matter tracts of the spinal cord carry sensory information.
A)Ascending tracts
B)Descending tracts
C)Integration tracts
D)Columnar tracts
E)Epidural tracts
Q5) Name and describe the locations of the four major plexuses of spinal nerves.
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following are NOT controlled by the hypothalamus?
A)Hunger
B)Thirst
C)Blood calcium concentration
D)Emotional behavior
E)Body temperature
Q2) Hand preference when writing or throwing is an example of
A)cranial nerve damage.
B)hemispheric lateralization.
C)damage to the olfactory nerve.
D)damage to the Broca's area.
E)None of these choices.
Q3) Which of the following regions of the brain contains the inferior olivary nucleus?
A)Pons
B)Medulla oblongata
C)Pyramids
D)Hypothalamus
E)Midbrain
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) These ganglia contain the cell bodies of the parasympathetic postganglionic neurons that serve the parotid salivary glands.
A)Ciliary ganglia
B)Pterygopalatine ganglia
C)Submandibular ganglia
D)Otic ganglia
E)None of these choices
Q2) Which of the following does NOT describe the sympathetic division of the ANS?
A)Ganglia primarily found in the head
B)Stimulates sweat glands
C)Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessel walls
D)Short preganglionic neurons
E)Thoracolumbar output
Q3) The autonomic nervous system is NOT involved in controlling A)exocrine glands.
B)skeletal muscle.
C)cardiac muscle.
D)smooth muscle.
E)endocrine glands.
Q4) Explain how blood flow to tissues changes during the fight-or-flight response.
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems
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Q1) How many sensory modalities can a single sensory neuron have?
A)One
B)Dozens
C)Hundreds
D)Thousands
E)None
Q2) Which of the following are proprioceptors found in the articular capsules of synovial joints?
A)Tendon organs
B)Gamma motor neurons
C)Muscle spindles
D)Kinesthetic receptors
E)Tactile receptors
Q3) Synesthesia is a condition in which stimulation of one sensory modality results in perception of another.One man reportedly tastes shapes.Many synesthetic people hear colors.Based on what you know about sensation,propose a physiological mechanism that explains the phenomenon of synesthesia.
Q4) A viral infection has damaged a patient's tectospinal tract.What signs of this damage probably helped the physicians diagnose the problem?
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Q1) Which of the following layers of the developing embryo do the eyes develop from?
A)endoderm
B)mesoderm
C)ectoderm
D)more than one layer contributes
E)none of these choices
Q2) The main function of this structure is to regulate the amount of light entering the eyeball through the pupil.
A)Retina
B)Cornea
C)Iris
D)Choroid
E)Ciliary muscle
Q3) Binocular vision
A)gives better depth perception.
B)provides more accurate color vision.
C)is only seen in humans.
D)occurs when one eye focuses on two separate objects.
E)is all of these choices
Q4) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Q1) What is a goiter? Explain how goiters can develop in both hyposecretion and hypersecretion disorders.In these hyposecretion and hypersecretion disorders,would you expect the levels of other regulatory hormones involved in control of thyroid hormone secretion to be high or low? Why?
Q2) Which of the following conditions would result from hyposecretion of aldosterone?
A)Decreased heart rate
B)Decreased airway dilation
C)Dehydration
D)Decreased oxygen delivery to the brain
E)Metabolic acidosis
Q3) All the following hormones are produced and secreted by the ovaries EXCEPT A)estradiol.
B)estrone.
C)progesterone.
D)inhibin.
E)follicle-stimulating hormone.
Q4) Compare and contrast the mechanisms of action of lipid-soluble versus water-soluble hormones.
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: The Blood
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Q1) Reduced vitamin B absorption from the small intestine due to reduced intrinsic factor production in the stomach results in condition called
A)hemorrhagic anemia.
B)aplastic anemia.
C)megaloblastic anemia.
D)pernicious anemia.
E)iron deficiency anemia.
Q2) Which of following correctly lists the sequence of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel?
Q3) Explain the proposed role of hemoglobin in the regulation of blood flow and blood pressure.
Q4) List and briefly describe the three mechanisms used to reduce blood loss from a damaged blood vessel.
Q5) List and briefly describe the major functions of blood.
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: The Heart
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Q1) Blood leaving the left ventricle passes through which of the following structures?
A)Right atrium
B)Interventricular septum
C)Bicuspid valve
D)Aortic semilunar valve
E)Pulmonary semilunar valve
Q2) In a fetus,this structure allows blood to flow directly from the pulmonary trunk into the aorta.
A)Fossa ovalis
B)Foramen ovale
C)Trabeculae carneae
D)Descending aorta
E)Ductus arteriosus
Q3) Which valve below prevents blood from flowing back into the right ventricle?
A)Tricuspid valve
B)Bicuspid valve
C)Pulmonary semilunar valve
D)Aortic semilunar valve
E)Mitral valve
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Q1) Capillaries are also referred to as
A)exchange vessels.
B)vasoconstrictors.
C)vasodilators.
D)pressure reservoirs.
E)distributing vessels.
Q2) Which of the following structures are found in veins but NOT in arteries?
A)tunica externa
B)tunica media
C)tunica interna
D)valve
E)lumen
Q3) The volume of blood that circulates through the systemic (or pulmonary)blood vessels per minute is called
A)stroke volume.
B)tidal volume.
C)cardiac output.
D)cardiac reserve.
E)total peripheral resistance.
Q4) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System, Nonspecific Resistance to Disease, and Immunity
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Q1) Lack of resistance is also known as:
A)Pathogenic
B)Innate
C)Specific
D)Susceptibility
E)Lymphatic
Q2) The primary response will peak how many days after an exposure?
A)1 day or less
B)2-7
C)10-17
D)20-30
E)Over a month
Q3) Genetic recombination generates diversity in what part (s)of the immune system?
A)Antigen receptors
B)MHC antigen
C)Hapten
D)MHC antigen and antigen receptors
E)Epitopes
Q4) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels.
Q5) List the five actions of antibodies.
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following pancreatic enzymes digests lipids?
A)Trypsin
B)Elastase
C)Lipase
D)Pepsin
E)All of these choices
Q2) Explain why food does not normally go up into your nasal cavity or down into your lungs when you swallow-even if you are standing on your head when you swallow.
Q3) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system.
Q4) This is found on the liver and is a remnant of the umbilical cord in a fetus.
A)Coronary ligament
B)Falciform ligament
C)Round ligament
D)Kupffer ligament
E)Bile ductules
Q5) Describe the structural characteristics of the small intestine that enhance its function as the major absorber of nutrients.
Q6) Describe the role of the liver in protein metabolism.
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Chapter 24: Metabolism
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Q1) Cardiac muscles can produce ATP from
A)Lactic acid
B)Pyruvic acid
C)Glucose-6-phosphate
D)Proteins
E)Lipids
Q2) Glycogenesis is NOT
A)performed by the hepatocytes
B)performed by muscle fibers
C)one way to make glycogen
D)one way to make glucose
E)only seen in the liver
Q3) Why is Calorie always spelled with a capital "C"?
A)It is named after Dr.Calorie
B)It is named for the country where it was discovered
C)It is named after the province where it was discovered
D)To distinguish it from the chemistry term calory
E)None of these choices
Q4) Identify the different types of lipoproteins and describe the function of each.
Q5) Briefly outline the possible fates of glucose in the body.
26
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Q1) This layer of the ureter is composed of connective tissue,collagen and elastic fibers.
A)Mucosa
B)Transitional epithelium
C)Lamina propria
D)Adventitia
E)Lamina elastica
Q2) This occurs when stretching triggers contraction of smooth muscle walls in afferent arterioles.
A)glomerular filtration rate
B)tubulomerular feedback
C)myogenic mechanism
D)renal autoregulation
E)capsular hydrostatic pressure
Q3) This hormone is released when the blood volume increases.
A)Parathyroid Hormone
B)Renin
C)ADH
D)Atrial Natriuretic Peptide
E)Aldosterone
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Chapter 26: The Reproductive Systems
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Q1) These cells secrete testosterone.
A)Sertoli cells
B)Spermatogenic cells
C)Leydig cells
D)Oogonia
E)Chief cells
Q2) The major hormone secreted from granulosa cells is
A)Progesterone
B)Estrogen
C)Testosterone
D)Aldosterone
E)Relaxin
Q3) This is the portion of the uterus that opens into the vagina.
A)Urethra
B)Cervix
C)Uterine tubes
D)Inguinal canal
E)Ovaries
Q4) Describe the positive feedback loop involved in ovulation.
Q5) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
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Chapter 27: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the terms below describes the development of an organism from an undifferentiated cell?
A)conceptus
B)primordium
C)epigenesis
D)karyotype
E)fertilization age
Q2) Distinguish between genotype and phenotype and explain how the environment may affect each.
Q3) This is a permanent change in an allele.
A)Mutation
B)Phenotype
C)Genotype
D)Dominant
E)Recessive
Q4) Describe the products of the three primary germ layers.
Q5) Describe the hormonal events surrounding parturition.
Q6) Describe the process and purpose of amniocentesis.
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