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Kinesiology is the scientific study of human movement, encompassing the physiological, biomechanical, and psychological dynamic processes that underlie physical activity and exercise. This course explores how the bodys musculoskeletal, nervous, and cardiovascular systems interact to produce motion and maintain health. Students will gain an understanding of movement analysis, motor learning, and how physical activity can enhance wellness, prevent injury, and aid in rehabilitation. Practical applications in sports performance, fitness, and therapy are integrated, providing a comprehensive basis for future studies and careers in health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 5th Edition by Lynn S. Lippert PT MS
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Q1) When a person steps forward to release a bowling ball,what type of motion of the body is occurring?
A) Angular motion
B) Linear motion
C) Kinematic motion
D) Torque motion
Answer: B
Q2) In moving from anatomical position into fundamental position,the forearm moves into
A) pronation.
B) supination.
C) inversion.
D) eversion.
Answer: A
Q3) The ulna is where in relation to the humerus?
A) Medial
B) Lateral
C) Proximal
D) Distal
Answer: D
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Q1) A bone marking that consists of a hollow or depression is called a A) foramen.
B) crest.
C) head.
D) fossa.
Answer: D
Q2) A skeletal pathology characterized by pain in the knee area due to issues with traction epiphysis is which of the following?
A) Osgood-Schlatter disease
B) Slipped femoral capital epiphysis
C) Osteoporosis
D) Osteomyelitis
Answer: A
Q3) Which type of bone makes up the dense,hard outer shell?
A) Compact bone
B) Cancellous bone
C) Marrow
D) Periosteum
Answer: A
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Q1) The two bones of a joint are held together and supported by which of the following structures?
A) Tendon
B) Bursa
C) Ligament
D) Fibrocartilage
Answer: C
Q2) The wrist is an example of which type of joint?
A) Nonaxial
B) Uniaxial
C) Biaxial
D) Triaxial
Answer: C
Q3) Joints serve which of the following functions?
A) Bear weight and provide stability
B) Allow motion
C) Contain fluid that lubricates and nourishes the cartilage
D) All of the above
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) Motions occurring within the joint that are necessary for joint motion but are not under voluntary control are called
A) osteokinematic movement.
B) accessory movement.
C) springy block.
D) manipulation.
Q2) The loose-packed position of the hip is best described as
A) 30 degrees flexion,30 degrees abduction,and slight external rotation.
B) full extension.
C) full extension and internal rotation.
D) full flexion.
Q3) According to the convex-concave law,the convex femoral head during hip flexion moves in which direction in relation to the direction the femur moves?
A) Same direction
B) Opposite direction
C) First the same direction,then the opposite direction at the end of the movement
D) It depends on whether the person is standing or lying down.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of an eccentric contraction?
A) Contraction produces a greater force than a concentric contraction.
B) Contraction is used as an acceleration activity.
C) Muscle attachments move farther apart.
D) Movement occurs with gravity.
Q2) The majority of lower extremity functional activity occurs in a closed chain manner.
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a person threw a Frisbee and wanted wrist radial deviation,which muscle group would be the antagonist?
A) Wrist radial deviators
B) Wrist ulnar deviators
C) Wrist flexors
D) Wrist extensors
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Q1) A person with "wrist drop" has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
Q2) The nerve plexus formed by the rami of C5 through T1 is called the
A) cervical plexus.
B) brachial plexus.
C) thoracic plexus.
D) lumbosacral plexus.
Q3) At which level of the spinal column is damage to the spinal cord no longer a concern?
A) C7
B) T8
C) T10
D) L1
Q4) The "stress-response" and stimulation part of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)is the sympathetic nervous system.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) At which vertebral level does the descending aorta branch into the common iliac arteries?
A) T10
B) T12
C) L2
D) L4
Q2) Each of the following differences between a lymph vessel and a vein are accurate EXCEPT
A) lymph vessels are wider than veins.
B) lymph vessels have thicker walls than veins.
C) lymph vessels contain more valves than veins.
D) lymph vessels contain nodes.
Q3) The joining of vessels to provide alternate circulation in case of a blood vessel blockage is referred to as which of the following?
A) Aneurysm
B) Anastomosis
C) Arteriole
D) Angion
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Q1) Two forces acting in equal but opposite directions and resulting in a turning effect is called a
A) stabilizing force.
B) dislocating force.
C) moment of force.
D) force couple.
Q2) The reason that a large-handled object is easier to turn is that the mechanical advantage is larger.
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. A)True
B)False
Q3) The law of motion best demonstrated when a person in a wheelchair gains speed when she pushes on the rims is the
A) law of inertia.
B) law of acceleration.
C) law of action-reaction.
D) law of physics.
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Q1) The levator scapula and rhomboids have which of the following motions in common?
A) Elevation
B) Depression
C) Upward rotation
D) Depression.
Q2) If shoulder girdle retraction is the desired motion,which two muscles are agonists in this motion?
A) Pectoralis minor and pectoralis major
B) Levator scapula and upper trapezius
C) Middle trapezius and rhomboids
D) Serratus anterior and latissimus dorsi
Q3) A person experiencing pain on the superior lateral aspect of the scapula may have pathology involving which of the following structures?
A) Acromion process
B) Glenoid fossa
C) Coracoid process
D) Deltoid tubercle
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Q1) The pectoralis major,latissimus dorsi,and teres major have which of the following shoulder motions in common?
A) Horizontal abduction
B) Adduction
C) Lateral rotation
D) Flexion
Q2) Damage to which of the following nerves could result in weakness of the coracobrachialis muscle?
A) Radial nerve
B) Musculocutaneous nerve
C) Axillary nerve
D) Suprascapular nerve
Q3) Horizontal abduction of the shoulder occurs in which plane and through which axis?
A) Transverse plane through a transverse axis
B) Transverse plane through a vertical axis
C) Frontal plane through a sagittal axis
D) Frontal plane through a vertical axis
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Q1) A common elbow pathology often caused by repetitive wrist extension activities is which of the following?
A) Medial epicondylitis
B) Lateral epicondylitis
C) Tendonitis of biceps tendon
D) Volkmann's ischemic contracture
Q2) The triceps is responsible for which of the following actions?
A) Elbow flexion and forearm supination
B) Forearm supination
C) Elbow extension
D) Elbow extension and wrist radial deviation
Q3) Which muscle originates on the humeral lateral condyle and inserts on the radial styloid process?
A) Brachioradialis
B) Flexor carpi radialis
C) Pronator teres
D) Pronator quadratus
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Q1) If the emphasis for the above exercise is eccentric strengthening,how would you instruct your client to pace the exercise?
A) Emphasis on the "up" motion
B) Emphasis on the "down" motion
C) Both directions will work the muscle eccentrically.
D) Emphasis on holding the wrist in neutral position for 5 to 10 seconds
Q2) When the flexor carpi radialis and the extensor carpi radialis longus contract simultaneously,which motion results?
A) Supination of the forearm
B) Wrist extension
C) Wrist radial deviation
D) Wrist circumduction
Q3) When the extensor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi ulnaris contract simultaneously,which motions are neutralized?
A) Flexion and extension of the wrist
B) Radial and ulnar deviation
C) Wrist circumduction
D) None of the above
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Q1) Your patient had trauma to the ulnar nerve and cannot actively abduct and adduct her fingers.You note weakness of which of the following muscles as a result of this?
A) Lumbricales three and four
B) Opponens digiti minimi
C) Dorsal and palmar interossei
D) Flexor digiti minimi
Q2) The structure that spans the posterior side of the wrist from the ulnar styloid process to the lateral radius is called the
A) flexor retinaculum.
B) extensor retinaculum.
C) extensor hood.
D) palmar carpal ligament.
Q3) Which muscle originates on the hamate and flexor retinaculum and inserts on the fifth metacarpal?
A) Opponens pollicis
B) Opponens digiti minimi
C) Lumbricales
D) Palmar interossei
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Q1) Which prime movers of the TMJ are innervated by the facial nerve?
A) Temporalis
B) Masseter
C) Lateral pterygoid
D) None of the above
Q2) The bony landmark of the mandible that forms the posterior projection that articulates with the temporal bone is called the A) angle.
B) styloid process.
C) condyle.
D) ramus.
Q3) Which cranial nerve is involved if your client has sensory loss to the face?
A) Cranial nerve V
B) Cranial nerve VI
C) Cranial nerve VII
D) A and C
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Q1) The muscle of the cervical spine that is innervated by cranial nerve XI is the A) sternocleidomastoid.
B) scalene.
C) splenius capitis.
D) splenius cervicis.
Q2) Which muscle originates on the transverse process of a vertebra and inserts on the spinous process of the vertebra above?
A) Interspinalis
B) Intertransversarii
C) Transversospinalis
D) Erector spinae
Q3) The muscle that originates on the iliac crest and inserts on the 12th rib and transverse processes of T12 to L5 is the A) iliopsoas.
B) quadratus lumborum.
C) rectus abdominis.
D) internal oblique.
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Q1) You read in a trauma patient's chart that he has rib fractures and a collapsed lung.Another term for collapsed lung is which of the following?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Pneumonia
C) Pleurisy
D) Hyperventilation
Q2) Which muscle originates on the xiphoid process,the ribs,and the lumbar vertebra and inserts on the central tendon?
A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Diaphragm
D) Pectoralis major
Q3) Quiet inspiration requires the use of which of the following?
A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Gravity
D) Recoil of the diaphragm
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Q1) A normal finding for a lumbosacral angle would be which of the following?
A) 10 degrees
B) 30 degrees
C) 45 degrees
D) 60 degrees
Q2) The bony landmark of the sacrum that makes up the lateral surface and articulates with the ilium is called the
A) ala.
B) auricular surface.
C) superior articular process.
D) pelvic surface.
Q3) The rotation of the pelvis when the left foot begins the swing phase in gait is
A) anterior left rotation.
B) posterior left rotation.
C) anterior right rotation.
D) posterior right rotation.
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Q1) The sartorius functions in a combination of which hip motions?
A) Flexion,adduction,and medial rotation
B) Extension,abduction,and lateral rotation
C) Flexion,abduction,and lateral rotation
D) Extension,adduction,and medial rotation
Q2) Which one-joint muscle extends the hip?
A) Biceps femoris
B) Semitendinosus
C) Vastus intermedialis
D) Gluteus maximus
Q3) If a patient lifts his left foot off the ground and the left hip drops,which hip abductors need strengthening?
A) Left hip abductors
B) Right hip abductors
C) Right and left hip abductors
D) There is not enough information given to make a choice.
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Q1) Which of the following ligaments prevents excessive forward movement of the tibia on the femur?
A) Lateral meniscus
B) Medial collateral
C) Anterior cruciate ligament
D) Genu labrum
Q2) A crush injury to the tibial nerve could cause weakness of which of the following muscles?
A) Rectus femoris
B) Semimembranosus
C) Short head of biceps femoris
D) Gastrocnemius
Q3) Which muscles are prime movers in knee extension?
A) Rectus femoris,vastus medialis,vastus lateralis
B) Biceps femoris,semitendinosus,semimembranosus
C) Vastus medialis,plantaris,vastus intermedialis
D) Semitendinosus,gluteus maximus,semimembranosus
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Q1) Your patient has suffered a sprain to the deltoid ligament,and you are asked to strengthen muscles on the same side of the ankle.Which of the following exercises would best achieve this?
A) Seated with cuff weight around dorsum of foot,evert foot
B) Seated with cuff weight around dorsum of foot,invert foot
C) Seated with cuff weight around dorsum of foot,dorsiflex foot
D) Seated with cuff weight around dorsum of foot,plantarflex foot
Q2) Shin splints is an overuse syndrome that can be caused by which of the following?
A) Sports that involve repetitive jumping
B) Running on tiptoes
C) Running on hard surfaces
D) Any of the above
Q3) You are asked to strengthen the muscles that support the arch of the foot (stirrup muscles).You would choose exercises for which of the following pairs of muscles?
A) Peroneus longus and anterior tibialis
B) Anterior tibialis and posterior tibialis
C) Peroneus longus and extensor hallucis longus
D) Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis
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Q1) The pelvis is considered to be in a neutral position when which of the following landmarks are in the same plane?
A) The anterior inferior iliac spines and posterior inferior iliac spines are level
B) The anterior superior iliac spines and posterior superior iliac spines are level
C) The anterior superior iliac spines and symphysis pubis are in the same vertical plane
D) B and C
Q2) A person with a facet joint problem in the spine is generally most comfortable in which of the following positions?
A) Lying prone
B) Lying supine with legs extended
C) Side-lying with top leg extended behind the body
D) Side-lying with both legs flexed toward the chest
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Q1) When pain is present in the leg,which phase of the gait cycle is shortened?
A) Preswing
B) Midswing
C) Swing
D) Stance
Q2) The period of the stance phase when the body is directly over the weight-bearing limb and the vertical displacement of the pelvis is at its highest point is
A) initial contact.
B) loading response.
C) midstance.
D) terminal stance.
Q3) A difficulty or slowness in initiating gait is characteristic of which of the following conditions?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Nonfunctioning gastrocnemius muscle
C) Parkinsonism
D) Muscular dystrophy
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