Kinesiology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Kinesiology is the scientific study of human movement, encompassing the physiological, biomechanical, and psychological mechanisms that underlie physical activity and exercise. This course explores how the bodys musculoskeletal, nervous, and cardiovascular systems work together to produce movement, as well as the impact of physical activity on health and performance. Through lectures, practical activities, and case studies, students learn foundational concepts in anatomy, motor control, biomechanics, and exercise physiology, preparing them for further study or careers in health, fitness, rehabilitation, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 14th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Q1) Which of the following describes a body process that is controlled using a positive feedback loop?
A)increasing body temperature in response to a drop in body temperature
B)decreasing body temperature in response to elevated body temperature
C)decreasing blood [glucose] in response to elevated blood [glucose]
D)increasing strength of uterine contractions in response to cervical stretch
E)decreasing heart rate in response to elevated blood pressure
Answer: D
Q2) Which cavity contains the heart?
A)cranial cavity
B)vertebral cavity
C)abdominal cavity
D)pericardial cavity
E)pleural cavity
Answer: D
Q3) Describe the differences between positive and negative feedback systems.
Answer: A positive feedback system will strengthen or reinforce a change in one of the body's controlled conditions while a negative feedback system will reverse a change in a controlled condition.
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Q1) Which of the following is a monosaccharide that is used by cells to produce energy?
A)glucose
B)sucrose
C)lactose
D)glycogen
E)maltose
Answer: A
Q2) Which type of chemical reaction combines reactants to produce larger products?
A)synthesis
B)decomposition
C)potential
D)exchange
E)activated
Answer: A
Q3) Why is the human digestive system unable to digest cellulose?
Answer: Human digestive system lacks the enzyme to recognize the structure and break the bonds that hold this polysaccharide together.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) This portion of a DNA segment does not code for a protein.
A)RNA
B)introns
C)exons
D)polyribosome
E)ribosome
Answer: B
Q2) This is a measure of a solution's ability to change the volume of cells by altering their water content.
A)filtration
B)normality
C)tonicity
D)equivalency
E)facilitation
Answer: C
Q3) Briefly describe the fluid mosaic model.
Answer: The fluid mosaic model states that the molecular arrangement of the plasma membrane resembles an ever-moving sea of fluid lipids containing a mosaic of many different proteins.
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Q1) Which type of epithelial tissue is found lining the heart,blood vessels and lymphatic vessels?
A)Simple squamous epithelium
B)Simple cuboidal epithelium
C)Stratified squamous epithelium
D)Stratified cuboidal epithelium
E)Simple columnar epithelium
Q2) The pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs are composed of which type of connective tissue?
A)Adipose tissue
B)Elastic cartilage
C)Fibrocartilage
D)Dense irregular connective tissue
E)Reticular connective tissue
Q3) Which of the following is classified as loose connective tissue?
A)Blood
B)Spongy bone
C)Areolar connective tissue
D)Elastic connective tissue
E)Hyaline cartilage
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System Unit Ii: Principles of
Support and Movement
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Q1) List and briefly describe the major functions of the skin.
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to an inflammation of the skin characterized by patches of redness,blistering,and extreme itching?
A)papule
B)laceration
C)keratosis
D)frostbite
E)eczema
Q3) Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus,which is the thickening of the _____ of the epidermis.
A)stratum basale
B)stratum spinosum
C)stratum granulosum
D)stratum lucidum
E)stratum corneum
Q4) Briefly describe the steps in deep wound healing.
Q5) Describe the structural characteristics of the epidermis that contribute to its ability to protect the surface of an animal.
Q6) Briefly describe the steps in epidermal wound healing.
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Q1) Briefly describe the steps in bone resorption.
Q2) Which type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is only seen in children?
A)open
B)comminuted
C)impacted
D)greenstick
E)stress
Q3) What is the fibrous covering on the surface of bone that is involved in thickening of the bone called?
A)periosteum
B)endosteum
C)marrow
D)epiphysis
E)metaphysis
Q4) List and briefly describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.
Q5) Describe the steps in bone repair.
Q6) Describe the signs and symptoms of osteoporosis and describe the risk factors for developing osteoporosis.
Q7) Briefly describe the processes by which bone increases in length and diameter.
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: the Axial Skeleton
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Q1) Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses.
Q2) Which condition is characterized by an increase in the thoracic curve of the vertebral column?
A)herniated disc
B)scoliosis
C)kyphosis
D)lordosis
E)spina bifida
Q3) Sella turcica is a bony depression found in this cranial bone.
A)Sphenoid
B)Frontal
C)Temporal
D)Ethmoid
E)Occipital
Q4) What is inflammation of one or more costal cartilage called?
A)Costochondritis
B)Arthritis
C)Cartilaginous distension
D)Otitis
E)Intercostal space distension
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: the
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Q1) The coxal bones unite anteriorly at a joint called the A)pubic symphysis.
B)sacroiliac joint.
C)hip.
D)acetabulum.
E)None of these choices are correct.
Q2) The glenohumeral joint is formed by articulation of the A)humerus,radius and ulna.
B)humerus and radius.
C)humerus and clavicle.
D)humerus and ulna.
E)humerus and scapula.
Q3) Which of the following structures on the ulna receives the trochlea of the humerus?
A)Olecranon fossa
B)Coronoid process
C)Trochlear notch
D)Radial notch
E)Capitulum
Q4) Name the bones that are included in each lower limb.
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) List the three functional classifications of joints,and briefly describe the basis for the functional classification of joints.
Q2) A condyloid joint
A)is also called an ellipsoidal joint.
B)is considered to be biaxial.
C)allows both flexion-extension and abduction-adduction of the joint.
D)can be found in the wrist.
E)is All of these choices
Q3) The epiphyseal plate in a long bone is an example of which type of joint?
A)Gomphosis
B)Suture
C)Symphysis
D)Synovial
E)Synchondrosis
Q4) Which of the following is NOT an anatomical component of the elbow?
A)articular capsule.
B)ulnar collateral ligament.
C)radial collateral ligament.
D)anular ligament of the radius.
E)tendon of the biceps brachii muscle.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Q1) Discuss the steps involved in contraction of smooth muscle and explain why smooth muscle has a slower contraction cycle.
Q2) This is the outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle.
A)tendon
B)ligament
C)endomysium
D)epimysium
E)perimysium
Q3) Release of calcium from these structures triggers skeletal muscle contraction.
A)myofibrils
B)mitochondria
C)terminal cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum
D)T-tubules
E)none of the answer choices
Q4) What are the three ways that ATP can be produced in muscle fibers?
Q5) Compare and contrast the structural characteristics of the three different types of muscular tissue.
Q6) In embryonic muscle development,what happens to the somites?
Q7) What is the major difference between the two types of smooth muscle tissue?
Q8) How does a nerve impulse elicit a muscle action potential?
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System Unit Iii: Control Systems of the Human Body
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Q1) A muscle that raises or elevates a body part is called a A)pronator.
B)tensor.
C)flexor.
D)depressor.
E)levator.
Q2) Briefly describe the three categories of levers based on the position of their fulcrum.Give an example of each type of lever and state whether the lever works at a mechanical advantage,disadvantage or both.
Q3) Contraction of this muscle presses the cheeks against the teeth and lips as would be observed in whistling,blowing or sucking.
A)buccinator
B)zygomaticus
C)frontalis
D)epicranius
E)occipitalis
Q4) What anatomical structures of the musculoskeletal system correspond to the components of a lever system? Describe the arrangement of these parts in first,second,and third class lever systems.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following types of neurons is the most common type of neuron found in the brain and spinal cord?
A)bipolar neuron
B)multipolar neuron
C)unipolar neuron
D)nonpolar neuron
E)pseudounipolar
Q2) Schwann's cells begin to form myelin sheaths around axons in the peripheral nervous system
A)when neurons are injured.
B)during fetal development.
C)after birth.
D)only in response to electrical stimulation by neuroglial cells.
E)during the early onset of Alzheimer's disease.
Q3) A polarized cell
A)has a charge imbalance across its membrane.
B)includes most cells of the body.
C)exhibits a membrane potential.
D)includes most cells of the body and exhibits a membrane potential.
E)All of these choices are correct.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) In response to a muscle being stretched,a muscle spindle initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes
1)contraction of the agonist muscle.
2)relaxation of the antagonist muscle.
3)contraction of the antagonist muscle.
4)relaxation of the agonist muscle.
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)4 only
E)1 and 2
Q2) A typical spinal nerve has how many connections to the spinal cord?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q3) Describe the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q4) Describe the basic anatomy of a spinal nerve plexus.
Q5) Discuss the clinical significance of dermatomes.
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) A common type of disabling senile dementia that affects about 11% of the population over 65 and results in loss of reasoning and ability to care for oneself,is called A)agnosia.
B)prosopagnosia.
C)Alzheimer disease.
D)transient ischemic attack syndrome.
E)amylotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Q2) Which of the following structures conducts nerve impulses between the two different hemispheres of the cerebrum?
A)Association tracts
B)Corpus callosum
C)Projection tracts
D)Pyramids
E)Sulci
Q3) Describe the structural and functional relationship between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland.
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) Autonomic tone is regulated by the A)medulla oblongata.
B)cerebellum.
C)cerebrum.
D)vermis.
E)hypothalamus.
Q2) Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon?
A)Somatic motor neurons
B)Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
C)Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
D)Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
E)Somatosensory neurons.
Q3) Which endocrine gland is directly innervated by sympathetic preganglionic axons?
A)Pituitary gland
B)Hypothalamus
C)Pancreas
D)Adrenal gland
E)Thyroid gland
Q4) Explain how blood flow to tissues changes during the fight-or-flight response.
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems
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Q1) Which disorder is characterized by difficulty in falling asleep and staying asleep?
A)narcolepsy
B)insomnia
C)sleep apnea
D)coma
E)amnesia
Q2) The main function of muscle spindles is
A)to sense tension applied to a tendon.
B)to sense referred pain.
C)to perceive cutaneous sensations.
D)to sense changes in muscle length.
E)to sense muscle fatigue.
Q3) Synesthesia is a condition in which stimulation of one sensory modality results in perception of another.One man reportedly tastes shapes.Many synesthetic people hear colors.Based on what you know about sensation,propose a physiological mechanism that explains the phenomenon of synesthesia.
Q4) A viral infection has damaged a patient's tectospinal tract.What signs of this damage probably helped the physicians diagnose the problem?
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Q1) Cataract leads to blindness due to
A)loss of transparency of the lens.
B)a high intraocular pressure.
C)photophobia.
D)scotoma.
E)trachoma.
Q2) Which of the following structures senses change in rotational acceleration of the head in order to help maintain dynamic equilibrium?
A)cochlea
B)semicircular canals
C)maculae of the vestibule
D)organ of Corti
E)vestibulocochlear nerve
Q3) The first step in the visual transduction process that occurs in the retina is
A)activation of amacrine cells.
B)absorption of scattered light by the pigmented epithelium.
C)interruption of the dark current.
D)absorption of light by photopigments.
E)generation of action potentials in the optic nerve.
Q4) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System Unit Iv: Maintenance of the Human Body
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Q1) Endocrine tissues that secrete steroid hormones are derived from A)mesoderm.
B)endoderm.
C)ectoderm.
D)a combination of two or more layers.
E)none of the layers that are listed.
Q2) The amount of ADH that is secreted by the posterior pituitary glands varies with A)blood osmotic pressure.
B)blood calcium levels.
C)blood oxygen levels.
D)blood glucose levels.
E)All of these choices.
Q3) All prostaglandins are derived from a 20-carbon precursor molecule called A)thromboxane.
B)intrinsic factor.
C)thymopoietin.
D)arachidonic acid.
E)cholesterol.
Q4) Compare and contrast the mechanisms of action of lipid-soluble versus water-soluble hormones.
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: the Blood
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Q1) What percentage of blood plasma is water?
A)95.1%
B)91.5%
C)88.5%
D)4)9%
E)8)5%
Q2) Which of the following opposes the action of thromboxane A2 by inhibiting platelet adhesion and release?
A)Heparin
B)Fibrinogen
C)Plasmin
D)Antithrombin
E)Prostacyclin
Q3) Which of the following blood cells are the main soldiers in the immune system defense of the body against microbial invaders?
A)Eosinophil
B)Macrophage
C)Lymphocyte
D)Basophil
E)Platelet
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Q1) Which of the following blood vessel is used to distribute oxygenated blood to the myocardium?
A)Coronary artery
B)Coronary vein
C)Coronary sinus
D)Vena cava
E)Myocardial vein
Q2) Which valve below prevents blood from flowing back into the right ventricle?
A)Tricuspid valve
B)Bicuspid valve
C)Pulmonary semilunar valve
D)Aortic semilunar valve
E)Mitral valve
Q3) In comparison to a sedentary individual,a well-trained athlete will usually have all the following characteristics EXCEPT
A)a higher cardiac reserve.
B)a higher resting cardiac output.
C)a higher stroke volume.
D)hypertrophy of the heart.
E)resting bradycardia.
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Q1) In resting individuals,which vessels serve as a large blood reservoir from which blood can be quickly diverted to other vessels as needed?
A)Arteries and arterioles
B)Arterioles and capillaries
C)Venules and capillaries
D)Veins and venules
E)Aorta and veins
Q2) During embryonic development,blood cells are formed from A)endodermal cells.
B)pluripotent stem cells.
C)angioblasts.
D)fibroblasts.
E)osteoblasts.
Q3) Normal blood pressure for a young adult male is
A)120/80.
B)130/90.
C)80/120.
D)100/80.
E)150/85.
Q4) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System, Nonspecific Resistance to Disease, and Immunity
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Q1) Which cells increase the permeability of blood vessels by releasing histamine?
A)neutrophils
B)eosinophils
C)lymphocytes
D)mast cells
E)macrophages
Q2) The left subclavian vein receives lymph from the
A)Left axillary vein
B)Lumbar trunk
C)Jugular trunk
D)Thoracic duct
E)Right lymphatic duct
Q3) Which of the following stimulates an immune response ONLY when it is attached to a large carrier molecule?
A)Epitope
B)Antigen
C)Hapten
D)MHC antigen
E)CD8
Q4) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels.
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory system?
A)Nose
B)Oral cavity
C)Pharynx
D)Trachea
E)Nasal meatuses
Q2) The gas law that describes the pressure changes that occur during pulmonary ventilation is
A)Boyle's law
B)Charles' law
C)Henry's law
D)The inhalation law
E)The law of partial pressure
Q3) Which of the following is a long drawn and deep inhalation immediately followed by a shorter but forceful exhalation?
A)sobbing
B)yawning
C)sighing
D)hiccupping
E)Valsalva maneuver
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Q1) Describe the structural characteristics of the small intestine that enhance its function as the major absorber of nutrients.
Q2) Which portion of the peritoneum is largely responsible for carrying blood and lymph vessels to the intestines?
A)Greater omentum
B)Falciform ligament
C)Lesser omentum
D)Mesentery
E)Mesocolon
Q3) Why do emotions such as anger or fear slow digestion?
A)Because they stimulate the parasympathetic nerves supplying the GI tract
B)Because they stimulate the somatic nerves that supply the GI tract
C)Because they stimulate the sympathetic nerves that supply the GI tract
D)They do not affect digestion
E)Because all emotions are controlled by the Vagus nerve
Q4) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system.
Q5) Explain why food does not normally go up into your nasal cavity or down into your lungs when you swallow-even if you are standing on your head when you swallow.
Q6) Describe the role of the liver in protein metabolism.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Metabolism
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Q1) Identify the different types of lipoproteins and describe the function of each.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a postabsorptive state reaction?
A)Breakdown of liver glycogen
B)Lipogenesis
C)Gluconeogenesis using lactic acid
D)Gluconeogenesis using amino acids
E)None of these choices
Q3) When the terminal phosphate is cut off of ATP what is formed?
A)Adenosine diphosphate
B)GTP
C)Adenosine monophosphate
D)Metabolic water
E)Glucose
Q4) Describe the role of the hypothalamus in regulation of food intake.
Q5) Lipogenesis occurs when
A)More calories are consumed than required for ATP need
B)Less calories are consumed than required for ATP need
C)More cholesterol is consumed than required for ATP need
D)Less cholesterol is consumed than required for ATP need
E)Gluconeogenesis fails
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) What is the normal volume of urine produced in humans?
A)1L / hr
B)2L / day
C)2L / hr
D)3L / week
E)10L / 24 hours
Q2) What is the normal specific gravity range of urine in humans?
A)2)350 - 3.700
B)0)002 - 1.000
C)4)6 - 8.0
D)1)001 - 1.035
E)1)04 - 2.60
Q3) Water accounts for which percentage of the total volume of urine?
A)25%
B)50%
C)75%
D)80%
E)95%
Q4) Describe the structural features of the renal corpuscle that enhance its blood filtering capacity.
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Homeostasis
Unit V: Continuity
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Q1) In intracellular fluid the most abundant anion is
A)Na<sup>+</sup>
B)Cl<sup>-</sup>
C)K<sup>+</sup>
D)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>
E)HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q2) Which of the following is the most common cause of metabolic alkalosis?
A)Hemorrhage
B)Vomiting
C)Pneumothroax
D)Diabetes
E)Cancer
Q3) Most of the phosphate in a body is present as
A)Lipids
B)Plasma membranes
C)DNA
D)Calcium phosphate salt
E)Carbohydrates
Q4) Describe the fluid and electrolyte disorders to which the elderly are particularly susceptible.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive Systems
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Q1) The function of the epididymis is
A)Sperm maturation
B)Produce sperm
C)Spermatid storage
D)Provide nutrition to sperm
E)Absorption of calcium
Q2) Which of the following is a fungal disease of the reproductive system?
A)Syphilis
B)Gonorrhea
C)Candidiasis
D)Genital Herpes
E)Chlamydia
Q3) Which of the following is the site of fertilization?
A)Ureters
B)Urethra
C)Uterine tubes
D)Ovaries
E)Vagina
Q4) Describe the positive feedback loop involved in ovulation.
Q5) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following is a series of functional changes that sperm go through when they are in the female reproductive tract?
A)Acrosomal reaction
B)Maturation
C)Fertilization
D)Capacitation
E)Polyspermy
Q2) Which of the terms below describes the development of an organism from an undifferentiated cell?
A)Conceptus
B)Primordium
C)Epigenesis
D)Karyotype
E)Fertilization age
Q3) Distinguish between genotype and phenotype and explain how the environment may affect each.
Q4) Describe the process and purpose of amniocentesis.
Q5) Describe the products of the three primary germ layers.
Q6) Describe the hormonal events surrounding parturition.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31