Kinesiology Practice Questions - 2000 Verified Questions
Kinesiology Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Kinesiology is the scientific study of human movement, encompassing the physiological, biomechanical, and psychological principles that govern bodily motion. This course explores how muscles, bones, joints, and the nervous system interact to produce movement, with emphasis on the analysis of functional activities, injury prevention, and performance enhancement. Students will gain a foundational understanding of movement mechanics, motor control, and their applications in health, fitness, rehabilitation, and sport settings.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology From Cells to Systems 9th Edition by Lauralee Sherwood
Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology and Homeostasis
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Q1) What compound/molecule produced by connective tissue is a rubber band-like protein fiber?
A)fibrin
B)fibrinogen
C)elastin
D)glucosamine
E)chondroitin
Answer: C
Q2) Glands are formed during ____________________ development by pockets of epithelial tissue.
Answer: embryonic
Q3) Milk-secreting glands are examples of ____________________ glands.
Answer: exocrine
Q4) What are two examples of connective tissue?
A)muscle and tendons
B)bone and tendons
C)ligaments and nerves
D)cartilage and skin
E)blood and muscle
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Cell Physiology
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Q1) On average,how many lysosomes do cells contain?
A)about 10
B)about 50
C)about 100
D)about 300
E)about 1,000
Answer: D
Q2) What is the genetic material in a cell's nucleus called?
A)ribosomal acid (RNA)
B)chromosomal proteins
C)ribonucleic acid (RNA)
D)diatomic nucleic acid (DNA)
E)deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
Answer: E
Q3) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is abundant in cells that specialize in protein synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Plasma Membrane and Membrane
Potential
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Q1) In addition to the concentration gradient,what else affects the movement of ions across plasma membranes?
A)electrical charge
B)molecular weight
C)vibration
D)spin
E)number of atoms
Answer: A
Q2) Describe the three roles of the sodium-potassium pump.
Answer: The Na<sup>+</sup>-K<sup>+</sup> pump plays three important roles: (1)It establishes Na<sup>+</sup> and K<sup>+</sup> concentration gradients across the plasma membrane of all cells;these gradients are critically important in the ability of nerve and muscle cells to generate electrical signals essential to their functioning; (2)It helps regulate cell volume by controlling the concentrations of solutes inside the cell and thus minimizing osmotic effects that would induce swelling or shrinking of the cell; (3)The energy used to run the Na<sup>+</sup>-K<sup>+</sup> pump also indirectly serves as the energy source for secondary active transport.
Q3) If a substance can cross a membrane,the membrane is _____to that substance.
Answer: permeable
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Principles of Neural and Hormonal Communication
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Q1) In addition to neuromodulation,another means of depressing or enhancing synaptic effectiveness is presynaptic ____________________ or
Q2) What ensures the one-way propagation of an action potential away from the initial site of activation?
A)The refractory period
B)The activation period
C)The rest period
D)The salutatory period
E)The electrical period
Q3) The stronger the triggering event,the larger the resultant graded potential.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Many growth factors that help regulate cell growth and division,such as nerve growth factor and epidermal growth factor,act via the JAK/STAT pathway.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________________ is the hindrance to electrical charge movement.
Q6) Describe how drugs can modify synaptic transmission.
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Chapter 5: The Central Nervous System
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Q1) The space between the arachnoid layer and the underlying pia mater,the ____________________ space,is filled with CSF.
Q2) Which number in the accompanying figure shows where CSF is reabsorbed from the subarachnoid space into the venous blood across the arachnoid villi?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q3) Prozac is an example of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). A)True B)False
Q4) Cortical areas that control output to skeletal muscles have a thickened layer V,which contains an abundance of large neurons known as ____________________ cells.
Q5) The only cranial nerve that does NOT arise from the brain stem is the ____________________ nerve.
Q6) Outline the organization and subdivisions of the nervous system.
Q7) List the nine functions of the hypothalamus.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Peripheral Nervous System - Afferent
Division - Special Senses
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Q1) If the aqueous humor is not drained as rapidly as it forms,pressure builds within the eye and creates a condition called cataracts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the most common cause of partial hearing loss (neural presbycusis)?
A)exposure to loud noises over 150 dB
B)degenerative wearing out of hair cells
C)rupture of the eardrum
D)middle ear infections
E)organ of Corti defect
Q3) The intensity or ____________________ of a sound depends on the ____________________ of the sound waves.
Q4) Perception of pain occurs in the thalamus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Besides receptor density,a second factor influencing acuity is ____________________ inhibition.
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Q6) The ____________________ is in the exact center of the retina and the region with greatest acuity.
Chapter 7: The Peripheral Nervous System - Efferent
Division
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Q1) Where do the sympathetic nerve fibers originate?
A)The lateral horn of the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord
B)The lateral horn of the thoracic and cervical regions of the spinal cord
C)The medial horn of the cervical and lumbar regions of the spinal cord
D)The medial horn of the lumbar and sacral regions of the spinal cord
E)The posterior horn of the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord
Q2) Long postganglionic fibers originate in the ____________________ chain and end on the ____________________ organs.
Q3) Each autonomic nerve pathway (from the CNS to an innervated organ)consist of how many nerves?
A)six
B)five
C)four
D)three
E)two
Q4) The pons within the brain stem is the region most directly responsible for autonomic output.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the most common motor-neuron disease.
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Chapter 8: Muscle Physiology
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Q1) What does smooth muscle contain that enables it to stretch much more than skeletal muscle?
A)calcium
B)glucosamine
C)sarcomeres
D)connective tissue
E)microfilaments
Q2) What is the first source for supplying additional ATP when exercise begins?
A)oxidative phosphorylation
B)glycolysis
C)lactate
D)creatine phosphate
E)chondroitin
Q3) One motor neuron,plus all the muscle fibers it innervates,is known as a(n):
A)nerve bundle
B)motor unit
C)activated component
D)cross bridge
E)functional unit
Q4) With eccentric contractions,the muscle ____________________.
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Chapter 9: Cardiac Physiology
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Q1) Approximately how many times does the human heart beat over an average lifetime?
A)30 billion
B)3 billion
C)300 million
D)30 million
E)3 million
Q2) What is the range of action potentials per minute for the cells in the AV node?
A)20 - 40
B)40 - 60
C)70 - 80
D)80 - 100
E)100 - 120
Q3) What is the beginning of an atherosclerotic plaque called?
A)fatty streak
B)endothelial plaque
C)myocardial plaque
D)inflammatory plate
E)fibroma
Q4) Atherosclerosis is characterized by __________ forming beneath the vessel lining within arterial walls.
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Chapter 10: The Blood Vessels and Blood Pressure
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Q1) When blood pressure is 120/80,pulse pressure is __________ mm Hg.
Q2) Although ventricular pressure falls to 0 mm Hg during diastole,arterial pressure does not fall to 0 mm Hg because the next cardiac contraction refills the arteries before all the blood drains off.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During systole,no blood enters the arteries,while blood continues to leave,driven by elastic recoil.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the long term,blood volume depends on salt and water balance,which are hormonally controlled by the __________ system and __________,respectively.
Q5) Decreased blood flow in response to enhanced tissue activity is called active hyperemia.
A)True
B)False
Q6) When a small artery reaches the organ it is supplying,it branches into numerous
Q7) Describe the effect of sympathetic activity on venous return.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Blood
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Q1) Plasmin is a plasma protein produced by the spleen and present in the blood in an inactive precursor form,protoplasmin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Type AB individuals are called universal recipients -- lacking both anti-A and anti-B antibodies,they can accept donor blood of any type.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In what form does thrombin normally exist in the plasma?
A)fibrinogen
B)protothrombin
C)prothrombin
D)prethrombin
E)thrombin stabilizing factor
Q4) One of the major consequences of leukemia,a cancerous condition involving reduced WBCs,is inadequate defense capabilities against foreign invasion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Body Defenses
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Q1) What are the phagocytic specialists called that are within the air sacs (alveoli)of the lungs?
A)alveolar macrophages
B)lung neutrophils
C)respiratory phagocytes
D)pulmonary scavengers
E)air sac scavengers
Q2) Describe the role of plasma cells in immunity.
Q3) As a more subtle means of destruction,neutrophils secrete lactoferrin,a protein that tightly binds with iron,making it unavailable for use by invading bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the phagocytic specialists?
A)eosinophils and macrophages
B)neutrophils and macrophages
C)neutrophils and eosinophils
D)basophils and erythrocytes
E)basophils and monocytes
Q5) Discuss the defenses of the urinary system.
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Chapter 13: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Because the amount of atmospheric air that reaches the alveoli and is actually available for exchange with blood is more important than the total amount breathed in and out,alveolar ventilation is more important than pulmonary ventilation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What percentage of the total energy expended by the body is used for quiet breathing?
A)1%
B)3%
C)5%
D)8%
E)10%
Q3) Clustered at the ends of the terminal bronchioles are the __________,the tiny air sacs where gases are exchanged between air and __________.
Q4) A difference in partial pressure between the venous blood and the surrounding structures is known as a partial pressure gradient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: The Urinary System
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Q1) If a H O deficit exists relative to the solute load,the body fluids are too concentrated or are hypertonic,having an osmolarity greater than 300 mOsm/L.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following represents the highest pressure to the lowest?
Q3) Outline the role of the kidneys in the urinary system.
Q4) Discuss the drugs that affect sodium absorption.
Q5) The renal medulla is made up of striated structures called the renal __________.
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Chapter 15: Fluid and Acid Base Balance
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Q1) Synovial fluid is an example of __________ fluid.
Q2) The relationship between [H+] and the members of a buffer pair can be expressed according to the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What sort of dietary strategy creates a physiological need for salt or "salt hunger"?
A)carnivorous
B)omnivorous
C)avoidance of dairy
D)herbivorous
E)avoidance of fruit
Q4) How much water resides in the intracellular fluid compartment?
A)about 1/3
B)about half
C)about 2/3
D)about 3/4
E)about 90%
Q5) Dietary proteins found abundantly in meat contain a large quantity of __________ and phosphorus.
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Chapter 16: The Digestive System
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Q1) The accessory digestive organs include the salivary glands,the exocrine pancreas,and the biliary system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the digestive tract wall.
Q3) Which section of the stomach has the thickest musculature?
A)body
B)antrum
C)fundus
D)phloric sphincter
E)esophagus
Q4) What are the main constituents of bile?
A)salts,amylase,digestive enzymes,and bilirubin
B)HCl,cholesterol,lecithin,and digestive enzymes
C)salts,digestive enzymes,lecithin,and bilirubin
D)HCl,cholesterol,lecithin,and amylase
E)salts,cholesterol,lecithin,and bilirubin
Q5) Special hair-like projections on the luminal surface of the small intestine epithelial cells,the microvilli,form the __________.
Page 18
Q6) Explain malabsorption and give an example.
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Chapter 17: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation
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Q1) Cells capture a portion of the nutrient energy in the high-energy phosphate bonds of
Q2) The core temperature is monitored by central thermoreceptors,which are located in the hypothalamus itself,and in the abdominal organs and elsewhere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most striking feature of heat stroke is a lack of compensatory heat-loss measures,such as __________.
Q4) The basic unit of heat energy is the kilocalorie,which is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of H O by 1°C.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Non-shivering thermogenesis is mediated on cold exposure by the __________ nervous system,which increases heat production by stimulating __________ fat.
Q6) As thyroid hormone increases,the BMR __________.
Q7) __________,one of the most potent appetite stimulators ever found,leads to increased food intake,thus promoting weight gain.
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Chapter 18: Principles of Endocrinology - the Central
Endocrine
Glands
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Q1) The major control for hypothalamic-induced release of vasopressin from the anterior pituitary is input from hypothalamic receptor cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many hypothalamic hypophysiotropic hormones control growth hormone secretion?
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
E)five
Q3) Which number in the figure represents the optic chiasm?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q4) Hydrophilic peptides most commonly are inactivated by __________ of peptide bonds.
Q5) Discuss the various roles of oxytocin.
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Chapter 19: The Peripheral Endocrine Glands
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Q1) What cell type constitutes the highest percentage of islet cells within the pancreas?
A)epsilon cells
B)alpha cells
C)beta cells
D)delta cells
E)gamma cells
Q2) How many glucose transporters (GLUTs)have been identified?
A)2
B)5
C)8
D)10
E)14
Q3) What does Cushing's syndrome reflect?
A)excessive aldosterone secretion
B)insufficient aldosterone secretion
C)androgen hypersecretion
D)excessive cortisol secretion
E)insufficient cortisol secretion
Q4) Closely related to thyroid hormone's metabolic effect is its __________ effect.
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Chapter 20: The Reproductive Systembrad
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Q1) The primary reproductive organs,or __________,consist of a pair of __________ in the male and a pair of ovaries in the female.
Q2) Which number in the figure represents the pathway to the ovum created by acrosomal enzymes digesting the zona pellucida?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q3) What is the male equivalent of the female clitoris?
A)prostate gland
B)scrotum
C)testes
D)penis
E)epididymis
Q4) The oocyte and granulosa cells secrete glycoproteins that form a thick,gel-like __________ that covers the oocyte and separates it from the surrounding granulosa cells.
Q5) __________ is the primary stimulant of milk secretion.
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