Kinesiology is the scientific study of human movement, addressing the anatomical, physiological, biomechanical, and psychological mechanisms underlying physical activity. This course explores the structure and function of the musculoskeletal system, principles of biomechanics, the neural control of movement, and methods for assessing and improving motor function. Through theoretical learning and practical application, students develop foundational knowledge applicable to exercise science, physical therapy, sports performance, and rehabilitation, fostering an understanding of how movement impacts health and well-being.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Kevin T. Patton
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells working together to perform a specific function
A)Chemical
B)Organelle
C)Cellular
D)Tissue
E)Organ
F)System
G)Organism
Answer: D
Q2) The gallbladder lies in the:
A)abdominal cavity.
B)pelvic cavity.
C)dorsal cavity.
D)mediastinum.
Answer: A
Q3) A somatotype characterized by a thin, fragile physique is a(n):
A)ectomorph.
B)mesomorph.
C)endomorph.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop?
A)Effector mechanism
B)Transmitter
C)Sensor
D)Integrating center
Answer: B
Q2) Explain how your set point can change under varying circumstances.
Answer: Your set point can change under varying circumstances due to a variety of factors. For example, changes in your environment, such as temperature or humidity, can cause your body's set point for temperature regulation to shift. Additionally, changes in your diet, exercise habits, or stress levels can also impact your set point for weight and metabolism. Hormonal fluctuations, illness, and aging can also contribute to changes in your set point for various physiological processes. Overall, your set point is not fixed and can be influenced by a range of internal and external factors.
Q3) Explain the feed-forward control system, and give an example of one in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most abundant and important compound(s) in the body is(are):
A)air.
B)water.
C)proteins.
D)nucleic acids.
Answer: B
Q2) Atomic mass is determined by the number of:
A)protons and electrons.
B)neutrons and electrons.
C)neutrons, protons, and electrons.
D)protons and neutrons.
Answer: D
Q3) Trace elements in the body make up about 1% of the body weight.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Acids are electrolytes that produce OH ions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Biomolecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids?
A)Degree of saturation
B)Presence of glycerol
C)Available bonds of hydrocarbons
D)Polarity
Q2) Enzymes are functional proteins that bring molecules together or split them apart in chemical reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nucleic acid that contains thymine and deoxyribose sugar
A)RNA
B)DNA
C)Carbohydrate
D)Fat
E)Steroid
F)Protein
G)Prostaglandins
H)ATP
Q4) Name and describe the structural levels of protein.
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major function of ribosomes is to synthesize:
A)proteins.
B)carbohydrates.
C)fats.
D)cholesterol.
Q2) Centrioles are made up of cylinders of nine bundles of microtubules with three tubules in each bundle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Name and give the functions of the membranous organelles of the cell.
Q4) The identification function of the cell membrane is carried out by the:
A)cholesterol molecules.
B)phospholipid molecules.
C)glycoprotein molecules.
D)channel proteins.
Q5) Joanne, a 75-year-old patient, has an active peptic ulcer. Describe the cellular organelles involved in synthesizing digestive enzymes for the stomach.
Q6) What are molecular motors, and what is their function in the cell?
Q7) Explain the functions of the cell membrane.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cell Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a cell were placed in a hypertonic solution:
A)there would be a net gain of water into the cell.
B)there would be a net loss of water out of the cell.
C)no water would move into or out of the cell.
D)water would move into and out of the cell in equal amounts.
Q2) The _____ pressure of a solution is the pressure that prevents the movement of water by osmosis from pure water into the solution.
A)osmotic
B)potential
C)ionic
D)actual
Q3) Involved in oxidation-reduction reactions
A)Hydrases
B)Hydrolases
C)Phosphorylating enzymes
D)Mutases or isomerases
E)Carboxylases or decarboxylases
F)Oxidases and hydrogenases
Q4) Compare and contrast the processes of diffusion and osmosis.
Q5) Explain the classification system and naming system for enzymes.
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Chapter 7: Cell Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protein synthesis begins with translation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) These parts of the messenger RNA are removed and not sent to the ribosome.
A)Adenine
B)mRNA
C)Intron
D)RNAi
E)Uracil
F)Chaperone protein
G)Transcription
H)tRNA
I)Thymine
J)Exons
K)Proteasomes
L)Telomere
M)Centromere
N)Haploid
O)Diploid
P)Translation
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Introduction to Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both fibronectin and laminin are examples of glycoproteins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Connective tissue membranes differ from cutaneous and serous membranes in that they:
A)contain fewer layers of cells.
B)do not contain epithelial components.
C)are not smooth and slick.
D)do not secrete fluids.
Q3) The study of how the primary germ layers differentiate into the different kinds of tissues is called histogenesis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Give a brief description of tissue repair, including the varying capacities with which the different types of tissues can accomplish this task.
Q5) The serous membrane covering the lungs is the visceral pleura.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name and briefly describe the four principal types of tissue in the body.
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Chapter 9: Tissue Types
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epithelial tissue produces the glycoprotein part of the basement membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Differentiate among the three types of cartilage: hyaline, fibrous, and elastic.
Q3) Connective tissue can be classified based on the type of matrix it contains.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Smooth muscle fibers tend to be longer, but weaker, than striated muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood?
A)Oligodendrocytes
B)Neurons
C)Astrocytes
D)Microglia
Q6) Because of the stripes visible under the microscope, smooth muscle is called striated muscle.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged exposure to the sun causes decreased melanin production.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When heat must be conserved to maintain a constant body temperature, the dermal blood vessels increase their diameter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the dermal-epidermal junction?
A)It is important in blocking bacteria from passing through the skin.
B)It is composed chiefly of basement membrane.
C)Its function is to "glue" the two layers of skin together.
D)All of the above are true.
Q4) Sensory receptors are found in the epidermis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The stratum granulosum is sometimes called the barrier layer of the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the role of the blood vessels in the skin in the homeostatic regulation of heat loss in the body.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) One effect of parathyroid hormone is stimulation of vitamin D activity to increase absorption of calcium by the intestines.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Name the types of bone found in the body, and give an example of each type.
Q3) Explain all the ways parathyroid hormone helps to increase blood calcium levels.
Q4) Which of the following is not made of elastic cartilage?
A)External ear
B)Tip of the nose
C)Epiglottis
D)Eustachian tubes
Q5) Part of long bone to which tendons attach
A)Periosteum
B)Endosteum
C)Epiphyses
D)Diaphysis
E)Medullary cavity
F)Articular cartilage
Q6) Name, describe, and give the location of the different types of cartilage found in the body.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The top of the skull is also called the calvaria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify the special features of the skull.
Q3) The material that attaches the rib, directly or indirectly, to the sternum
A)Body
B)False ribs
C)Floating ribs
D)Manubrium
E)True rib
F)Xiphoid process
G)Costal cartilage
Q4) False ribs attach only to the thoracic vertebrae.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The number of bones in the skeleton is constant from person to person.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is mastoiditis?
Q7) Differentiate among true ribs, false ribs, and floating ribs.
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Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lateral malleolus
A)Femur
B)Fibula
C)Humerus
D)Coxal
E)Radius
F)Scapula
G)Tibia
H)Ulna
Q2) Only the radius has a direct articulation with the bones of the wrist.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the:
A)pelvic outlet.
B)symphysis pubis.
C)pelvic brim.
D)ilium.
Q4) The only bone of the wrist that is evident from the outside is the lunate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the:
A)amount of synovial fluid in the joint.
B)shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones.
C)presence of bursae in the joint.
D)Both A and B are correct.
Q2) Rotation and circumduction are interchangeable terms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Although sutures are classified as immovable joints, the flexibility of the ligaments holding the bone together do allow for some movement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In terms of structure, which type of articulation has a joint capsule?
A)Fibrous
B)Cartilaginous
C)Synovial
D)Amphiarthrotic
Q5) Extensions of periosteum form a capsule around synovial joints.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pectoralis major is an example of a convergent muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Circular muscles are sometimes called sphincter muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The pectoralis major muscle is an example of a _____ muscle.
A)convergent
B)parallel
C)fusiform
D)pennate
Q4) If a muscle causes the knee to bend, the origin point is above the knee and the insertion point is below the knee.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Both the interspinales and the multifidus groups are muscles of the back.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name and explain the three types of levers. Which type is the most common in the body?
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Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscles that move the forearm are found proximal to the elbow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the foot?
A)Sartorius
B)Peroneus longus
C)Tibialis anterior
D)Soleus
Q3) Which of the following is not a posterior muscle that acts on the shoulder girdle?
A)Trapezius
B)Pectoralis minor
C)Levator scapulae
D)Rhomboideus
Q4) The circulatory system is responsible for muscle tone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how, during sleep, the muscles of the throat relax and can allow the muscles to partially close the airway, causing sleep apnea.
Q6) What is tenosynovitis, and how is it caused?
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Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscles with less-than-normal tone are described as in tetanus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding muscle tone?
A)Tonic contractions is another name for muscle tone.
B)Muscle tone is important in maintaining posture.
C)Muscles with less than normal muscle tone are referred to as spastic.
D)All of the above statements are correct.
Q3) All of the following are true characteristics of an isometric contraction except:
A)the muscle does not shorten.
B)it can produce work by tightening to resist a force.
C)movement is produced.
D)the tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed on the muscle.
Q4) There are three high-energy bonds in an ATP molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the role of ATP in muscle contraction.
Q6) Describe the physiological process of muscle contraction.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true of a reflex arc?
A)It does not involve the brain.
B)It always consists of an afferent neuron and an efferent neuron.
C)It always consists of an afferent neuron, an efferent neuron, and an interneuron.
D)It always consists of an afferent neuron, an efferent neuron, the brain, and the spinal cord.
Q2) In an ipsilateral arc, the effectors and receptors are on opposite sides of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sometimes called the "rest-and-repair" division
A)Afferent division
B)Autonomic nervous system
C)Central nervous system
D)Efferent division
E)Parasympathetic division
F)PNS
G)Somatic nervous system
H)Sympathetic division
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Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) No impulse can be sent if a nerve cell is in the absolute refractory period.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Synapses between axons are the most common synapses in the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The influx of sodium ions causes the release of neurotransmitters from the synaptic knob.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Absolute refractory periods occur in the axon of the cell; relative refractory periods occur in the dendrite or soma of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Electrical synapses can be found in muscle tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the two types of refractory periods. Explain how the relative refractory period can help determine the strength of the stimulus.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The islands of gray matter inside the hemispheres of the cerebrum are known as the cerebral cortex.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The part of the brain that can directly influence or inhibit the release of hormones from the pituitary is the:
A)hypothalamus.
B)thalamus.
C)medulla.
D)midbrain.
Q3) Name and describe the three important inward extensions of the dura mater.
Q4) The thalamus acts as a relay station for ascending sensory impulses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The part of the brain that assists in the maintenance of balance is the: A)medulla.
B)pons.
C)cerebellum.
D)hypothalamus.
Q6) Explain the functions, formation, and circulation of the cerebrospinal fluid.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A herpes zoster (shingles) outbreak usually affects more than one dermatome pattern on the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nerve impulses over the _____ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate.
A)olfactory
B)trigeminal
C)vagus
D)hypoglossal
Q3) Nerve plexuses of the thoracic region innervate the abdominal organs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a plexus of the spinal nerves?
A)Cervical
B)Brachial
C)Lumbar
D)Thoracic
Q5) List the names, numbers, and functional classifications of the cranial nerves.
Q6) Outline the neural pathway involved in the patellar (knee jerk) reflex.
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Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) One type of receptor stimulated by acetylcholine
A)Sympathetic nervous system
B)Parasympathetic nervous system
C)Alpha receptor
D)Nicotinic receptor
E)Sympathetic trunk
F)Splanchnic nerve
G)"Fight or flight"
H)"Rest and repair"
I)Acetylcholine
J)Norepinephrine
Q2) Which generalization concerning the autonomic nervous system is not true?
A)All of its axons are afferent fibers.
B)It operates without conscious control.
C)It regulates visceral activities.
D)All of its neurons are motor.
Q3) If a nerve impulse is being sent to a gland, it will pass through two neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain physiologically how a beta blocker affects heart muscle activity.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: General Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Free nerve endings respond to all of the following stimuli except:
A)tickling.
B)itching.
C)strength of muscle contractions.
D)pain.
Q2) Chemoreceptors are most likely to be activated by:
A)cold temperatures.
B)noxious odors.
C)pain.
D)a change of receptor position.
Q3) Golgi tendon receptors respond in a way similar to muscle spindles to maintain posture.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Activated by heat or cold
A)Chemoreceptors
B)Mechanoreceptors
C)Nociceptors
D)Photoreceptors
E)Thermoreceptors
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Chapter 24: Special Senses
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Q1) Which of the following structures is not a component of the external ear?
A)Auricle
B)Cerumen-secreting glands
C)Eustachian tube
D)External auditory meatus
Q2) Explain the olfactory pathway. Why is it possible to link odors so powerfully to memory?
Q3) Usually the closer an object is, the greater the degree of convergence that is necessary to maintain single vision.
Q5) The transmission pathway for olfactory sensations is olfactory cilia, olfactory bulb, olfactory tract, and cerebral cortex.
A)True
B)False
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation
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Q1) Most hormones are highly specific in their action.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The target cell in the endocrine system is similar to the postganglionic neuron in the nervous system, because they both have receptors that respond to the presence of a chemical.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Luteinizing hormone
A)Steroid
B)Protein
C)Glycoprotein
D)Peptide
E)Amine
Q4) Endocrine glands release their hormones into ducts that eventually empty into the circulatory system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are prostaglandins? From what substance are they made? Name two effects prostaglandins have on the body.
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Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands
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Q1) Because growth hormone is always needed in the body to maintain muscle mass, it is released at a constant rate by the pituitary gland.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by the: A)testes.
B)ovaries.
C)heart.
D)placenta.
Q3) The thymus plays an important role in the development of T cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Aldosterone secretion is controlled mainly by the renin-angiotensin mechanism and by the blood potassium concentration.
A)True B)False
Q5) Glucocorticoids stimulate the conversion of protein to sugar. A)True B)False
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Chapter 27: Blood
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Q1) What substance involved in the process of blood clot formation is not made by the liver?
A)Fibrinogen
B)Prothrombin
C)Vitamin K
D)All of the above are made by the liver.
Q2) Material that is composed of lipoproteins and phospholipids released by damaged cells
A)Tissue factor
B)Calcium
C)Fibrinogen
D)Prothrombin activator
E)Fibrin
F)Prothrombin
G)Vitamin K
H)Thrombin
I)Plasmin
Q3) One of the functions of basophils is to protect the body from parasitic worms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bundle that facilitates the rapid conduction to the left atrium
A)Interatrial bundles
B)Atrioventricular node
C)Sinoatrial node
D)Purkinje fibers
E)Bundles of His
F)Internodal bundles
Q2) The pulmonary and aortic valves are also called _____ valves.
A)cuspid
B)semilunar
C)aortic
D)pulmonary
Q3) The veins in the heart are called cardiac, but the arteries in the heart are called coronary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chordae tendineae are cordlike structures that connect semilunar valves to papillary muscles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Blood Vessels
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Q1) Precapillary sphincters increase the flow of blood through a tissue when they relax.
A)True
B)False
Q2) After birth the ductus venosus closes and:
A)allows blood to flow to the lungs.
B)allows blood to flow to the liver.
C)prevents blood from moving from the right to the left atrium.
D)stops blood flow to the placenta.
Q3) The most important blood vessels in the cardiovascular system are the: A)capillaries.
B)arteries.
C)veins.
D)arterioles.
Q4) The tunica intima of arteries provides a smooth lining with valves to ensure one-way flow.
A)True B)False
Q5) Name and describe the types of arteries from largest to smallest. What is the function of each?
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Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood
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Q1) Which of the following is not a true statement about cardiac output?
A)It can be calculated by dividing the stroke volume by the heart rate.
B)It is the amount of blood that flows out of a ventricle per unit of time.
C)In can be computed by using Fick's Formula.
D)All of the above are true statements about cardiac output.
Q2) Deep, rapid breathing will increase the return of blood to the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Vasomotor control mechanisms influence:
A)diameter of capillaries.
B)stroke volume.
C)cardiac output.
D)diameter of arterioles.
Q4) If a pulse were taken at the popliteal and dorsalis pedis arteries at the same time, it would be felt at the popliteal artery first.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The capillaries perform the transport function of the circulatory system.
A)True
B)False
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of lymph from the breast enters the axillary lymph nodes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lymph does not have the ability to clot.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compare and contrast mechanisms for the movement of lymph through lymphatic vessels with the movement of blood through veins.
Q4) The lymphatic tissue of lymph nodes serves as the site of the final stages of maturation for some types of lymphocytes and monocytes that have migrated from the bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Germinal centers are areas of rapidly dividing lymphocytes within a cortical node.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss the role lymphatic vessels and nodes can play in handling the healing process when swelling and infection are present.
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Chapter 32: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In phagocytosis, a footlike projection, called a phagosome, extends toward a microorganism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ability of our immune system to attack abnormal or foreign cells but spare our own normal cells is called innate immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diapedesis is the process by which microbes are marked for destruction by phagocytic cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Toll-like receptors help facilitate the overall innate immune response.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cytokines are chemicals released from cells to trigger or regulate both innate and adaptive immune responses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibody molecules can have as many as eight antigen-binding sites.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the apparent basis for autoimmune diseases. Give two examples of such diseases.
Q3) The fetal liver may act as the site for the first stage of T cell development.
A)True B)False
Q4) The letters "CD" following a T cell stand for "cellular diversity."
A)True
B)False
Q5) The antibody produced after initial contact with an antigen is:
A)IgE.
B)IgG.
C)IgM.
D)IgA.
Q6) Interleukins are cytokinins. A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the development and activation of B cells.
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Chapter 34: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the article published in 1936, Selye coined the term stress as it is used today.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One characteristic of the stage of resistance of the general adaptation syndrome is:
A)increased rate of secretion by the adrenal cortex.
B)decreased allergic responses.
C)hyperglycemia.
D)normal rate of secretion by the adrenal medulla.
Q3) The level of glucocorticoids would be at their lowest during which stage of stress?
A)Exhaustion
B)Alarm
C)Resistance
D)Recovery
Q4) Allostasis and allostatic load are not influenced by feelings of anticipation, anxiety, and worry about an upcoming event.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pleural space containing a lubricating fluid separates two layers of pleura.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The palatine bone is both the roof of the mouth and the floor of the nose.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lower pair of folds in the mucous membrane of the larynx serve as the true vocal cords.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The respiratory portion of the nasal passage is lined with a mucous membrane made up of _____ epithelium.
A)stratified columnar
B)pseudostratified columnar
C)simple squamous
D)simple columnar
Q5) The palatine tonsils are located at the base of the tongue. A)True
B)False
Q6) List the functions of the respiratory system.
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Chapter 36: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dyspnea while lying down
A)Dyspnea
B)Cheyne-Stokes respiration
C)Eupnea
D)Hypoventilation
E)Biot breathing
F)Hyperventilation
G)Hyperpnea
H)Orthopnea
I)Apneusis
J)Apnea
Q2) Dyspnea is often associated with hyperventilation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The gas laws are based on the concept of a standard gas whose molecules are so far apart that they rarely collide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the terms ventilation and perfusion. Explain how they must work together to allow efficient gas exchange in the lung.
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Chapter 37: Gas Exchange Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxygenated blood contains equal amounts of both dissolved oxygen and oxygen combined with hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Carbonic acid forms when carbon dioxide reacts with water in the blood plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One reason that carbon monoxide gas is so dangerous is that it attaches to hemoglobin more readily than does oxygen gas.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The transport of carbon dioxide will tend to lower blood pH.
A)True
B)False
Q5) About 20% of the carbon dioxide that is carried in the blood is carried on hemoglobin attached to the acid group of an amino acid.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the process by which carbon dioxide is transported by the blood.
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Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hard inorganic substance that covers the crown of the tooth
A)Sublingual salivary gland
B)Submucosa layer
C)Dentin
D)Muscularis layer
E)Mucosa layer
F)Parotid salivary gland
G)Enamel
H)Submandibular salivary gland
I)Tongue
J)Serosa layer
Q2) lower part of the stomach that connects to the small intestine
A)Pharynx
B)Body of the stomach
C)Esophagus
D)Fundus of the stomach
E)Pylorus of the stomach
Q3) List the functions of the stomach.
Q4) Explain why soluble drugs can be absorbed rapidly if placed under the tongue.
Q5) Give the complete definition of digestion.
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Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The microbiome is a name for the normal community of bacteria that inhabit the colon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cholesterol is a component of bile.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Duct that carries bile from both the liver and gallbladder to the small intestine
A)Liver
B)Common bile duct
C)Mesentery
D)Ascending colon
E)Jejunum
F)Duodenum
G)Cystic duct
H)Ileum
I)Gallbladder
J)Descending colon
K)Pancreas
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) To propel food from the pharynx into the esophagus, three openings must be blocked.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the openings that must be blocked when food moves from the pharynx into the esophagus?
A)Oropharynx
B)Nasopharynx
C)Larynx
D)Mouth
Q3) Which of the following protein-digesting enzymes is made in the stomach?
A)Trypsin
B)Chymotrypsin
C)Pepsin
D)Peptidase
Q4) Amylases are found in saliva and in pancreatic juice.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the process of protein digestion.
Q6) Explain the process of fat digestion.
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Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both the appetite and the satiety center are found in the hypothalamus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not considered a macronutrient?
A)Carbohydrates
B)Calcium
C)Iron
D)Neither B nor C is considered a macronutrient.
Q3) In the human body, anabolism would not be possible without catabolism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When the blood glucose level starts to decrease toward lower than normal:
A)liver cells increase the rate at which they convert glycogen, amino acids, and fats to glucose.
B)there is an increase in glycogenolysis.
C)there is an increase in gluconeogenesis.
D)all of the above occur.
Q5) Foods coming from plants do not contain cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Part of the nephron that establishes a countercurrent multiplier mechanism
A)Distal convoluted tubule
B)Glomerulus
C)Glomerular capsule
D)Nephron loop
E)Proximal convoluted tubule
F)Collecting duct
G)Peritubular capillary
H)Vasa recta
Q2) Capsular osmotic pressure can be assumed to be zero.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A hydrostatic pressure gradient drives the filtration of much of the plasma into the nephron.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In both males and females, the urethra serves urinary and reproductive functions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diuretics, used cautiously, can be used to treat hypovolemia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because fat tissue contains the least amount of water of any tissue in the body, obese people tend to have a lower percentage of body water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Electrolytes are substances that dissociate in solution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl, the positive electrode would attract: A)cations. B)anions.
C)chloride ions.
D)Both B and C are correct.
Q5) Respiration contributes to the obligatory water loss of the body. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in blood pH accelerates the renal tubule excretion of both hydrogen and ammonia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Stomach acid is the most alkaline substance in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mineral elements that are acidic include potassium, calcium, and sodium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A solution with pH of 7 would contain _____ times the number of hydrogen ions as a solution with a pH of 8.
A)2
B)3
C)5
D)10
Q5) Protein catabolism can produce both phosphoric and sulfuric acid.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name and explain the two types of pH control mechanisms used by the body.
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Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contraction of both the dartos and cremaster muscles, which pull the testes upward against the perineum, is caused by:
A)sexual arousal.
B)cold temperatures.
C)urination.
D)both A and B.
Q2) Which of the following is not an effect of testosterone?
A)Promotes excretion of potassium by kidneys
B)Promotes anabolism of proteins
C)Promotes growth of skeletal muscles
D)Promotes lengthening of long bones
Q3) Impotence is caused by a reduction in the production of sperm cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a secreting gland in the male reproductive system?
A)Seminal vesicle
B)Bulbourethral gland
C)Prostate gland
D)All of the above are secreting glands in the male reproductive system
Q5) Explain structure and the function of the scrotum.
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Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shortly before menstruation:
A)blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease.
B)blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase.
C)blood levels of FSH stabilize.
D)the corpus luteum secretes progesterone.
Q2) The ovaries are similar to the testes in that they produce both reproductive cells and hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain how the process of lactation is regulated.
Q4) The anterior pituitary gland secretes estrogen.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The region between the vaginal orifice and the anus is called the:
A)mons pubic.
B)labia majora.
C)labia minora.
D)perineum.
Q6) Explain the physiological basis of why a pill containing estrogen and progesterone can prevent pregnancy.
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Chapter 47: Growth, Development, and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrition typically does not have any effect on aging.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ova are produced by spermatogenesis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Insemination is the expulsion of the mature ovum from the mature ovarian follicle into the uterine tubes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An acrosome reaction occurs when enzymes from the acrosome break down the outer layers of the ovum, rendering it inactive.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A pluripotent cell is the ancestor to all body cell types.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Some gerontologists believe that aging is "preprogrammed."
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pair of chromosomes in the human genome that determine sex
A)Recessive
B)Codominance
C)Monosomy
D)Autosome
E)Karyotype
F)Sex-linked trait
G)Dominant
H)Trisomy
I)Punnett square
J)Genome
K)Sex chromosome
L)Heterozygous
M)Homozygous
N)Genetics
Q2) Genetic diseases may be caused by abnormality in a single gene or by a chromosomal defect.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain how the regulation of enzyme production can regulate cell activity.
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