Kinesiology is the scientific study of human movement, focusing on the physiological, biomechanical, and psychological mechanisms that underpin physical activity. This course explores how the body moves, the functional anatomy of the musculoskeletal and nervous systems, and factors that influence performance and injury. Students will gain a foundational understanding of movement analysis, exercise physiology, and the principles used to improve health, enhance sport performance, and rehabilitate injuries. The course also examines the role of physical activity in preventing disease and promoting overall well-being.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by David Shier
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A subcellular structure built of assemblies of macromolecules that carries out a particular function is a(n)________.
Answer: organelle
Q2) When the body is placed in the anatomical position, which of the following is not true?
A)The head is facing to the front.
B)The palms are facing backward.
C)The body is erect.
D)The upper limbs are at the sides.
Answer: B
Q3) Wrinkled and sagging skin results from
A)drinking too much water.
B)heredity only.
C)loss of subcutaneous fat, elastin, and collagen.
D)excess subcutaneous fat.
Answer: C
Q4) Individuals who live more than 100 years are called ________.
Answer: centenarians
Q5) Agriculture began in some countries as recently as ________ years ago.
Answer: 6,000
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A triglyceride consists of
A)3 glycerols and 1 fatty acid.
B)3 glucose molecules.
C)3 fatty acids and 3 phosphate groups.
D)3 fatty acids and 1 glycerol.
Answer: D
Q2) Isotopes of an element have
A)the same atomic number and same atomic weight.
B)the same atomic number but different atomic weights.
C)different atomic numbers but the same atomic weight.
D)different atomic numbers and different atomic weights.
Answer: B
Q3) DNA
A)is a protein.
B)plays no role in the synthesis of fats.
C)stores genetic information, including instructions for enzymes that synthesize fats and carbohydrates.
D)is routinely broken down to provide cellular energy.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Programmed cell death occurs during development, including the removal of webbing between fingers of the fetus. This process is known as
A)cell specialization.
B)apoptosis.
C)mitosis.
D)cell differentiation.
Answer: B
Q2) The major components of the cell membrane are
A)lipids and carbohydrates.
B)proteins and carbohydrates.
C)lipids and proteins.
D)carbohydrates and polysaccharides.
Answer: C
Q3) Cell division consists of mitosis and cell differentiation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A partly specialized cell that is the daughter of a stem cell is a(n) ________ cell. Answer: progenitor
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A single nucleotide polymorphism is a very rare genetic variant that affects health.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the citric acid cycle,
A)carbon dioxide is released. B)oxygen atoms are released.
C)4 ATP molecules are formed. D)hydrochloric acid is released.
Q3) A DNA molecule is a double helix in which A pairs with C and T pairs with G.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If the DNA triplet ACA mutates to GCA, then the encoded amino acid changes from ________ to ________.
Q5) Three types of RNA participate in protein synthesis.
A)True B)False
Q6) Releasing the energy in glucose molecules is an example of catabolism.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Histology is the study of the history of anatomy and physiology.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The band between cardiac muscle cells is called a(n)________ ________.
Q3) Which of the following best describes a characteristic of nervous tissue?
A)It provides cushioning and protection from shearing forces.
B)Some of its cells send electrochemical messages.
C)Its intercellular space is filled with collagen.
D)It contracts to perform movements.
Q4) Which of the following structures would be affected the most by a deficiency in collagen?
A)The liver and spleen
B)The epidermis of the skin
C)The lining of the small intestine
D)The bones
Q5) Sebaceous glands secrete a substance called sebum, which coats the skin and protects it from water. The glands secrete this substance as the cells lining the inside rupture and release their contents, along with the disintegrated cell. Sebaceous glands are ________ glands.
Page 7
Q6) Striations, but not intercalated discs, are seen in ________ muscle tissue.
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the symptoms of Waardenburg syndrome is poliosis, which is the development of a patch of hair that is completely white or prematurely grey. This coloration results from pheomelanin being produced in the patch.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The tough layer of waterproof material that makes up the outermost part of the epidermis is the stratum lucidum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Decreased hair growth, decreased sensory receptors in the skin, and inability to regulate body temperature are all signs of ________.
Q4) The melanocytes in very dark skin
A)are more abundant than they are in light skin.
B)contain single, large, pigment granules.
C)lack pigment but shrivel up and turn black.
D)contain many small pigment granules.
Q5) A certain acne medication works by significantly slowing down production of sebum. The structures targeted by this medication are the ________ glands.
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The axial skeleton includes
A)the upper and lower limbs and pelvic and pectoral girdles.
B)the skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, and vertebral column.
C)the radius, ulna, carpals, and phalanges.
D)the femur, tibia, and fibula.
Q2) A martial artist receives a punch that causes the xiphoid process to break. This suggests that the punch hit the pectoral girdle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient has to have surgery as a result of a sports accident. Several of their carpal bones must be removed after being smashed. The surgery is occurring in the foot.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The femur
A)is the longest bone in the body.
B)is part of the pelvic girdle.
C)directly articulates with the fibula.
D)possesses a medial malleolus.
Q5) The scapula is part of the ________ girdle.
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A football player suffers from a partially torn anterior cruciate ligament. Which joint has been injured?
A)Shoulder
B)Elbow
C)Hip
D)Knee
Q2) In which of the following is rotational movement possible?
A)Ball-and-socket joint
B)Condylar joint
C)Hinge joint
D)Pelvic joint
Q3) Joints are also called
A)annotations.
B)articulations.
C)affectations.
D)affiliations.
Q4) The hamate and capitate are two adjacent carpal bones. They articulate with each other at completely flat edges that allow sliding motions when needed. The joint between the hamate and capitate is a ________ joint.
Q5) In ________, joints are inflamed, swollen, and painful.
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared to skeletal muscle, smooth muscle
A)contracts more slowly and relaxes more slowly.
B)contracts more slowly and relaxes more rapidly.
C)contracts more rapidly and relaxes more slowly.
D)contracts more rapidly and relaxes more rapidly.
Q2) Muscles that assist an agonist are called ________.
Q3) During muscle contraction, ATP supplies energy for
A)creatine phosphate synthesis.
B)glycogen synthesis.
C)myofilament movement.
D)enzyme activity.
Q4) When a muscle undergoes atrophy in response to disuse
A)motor neurons grow and invade abnormally.
B)the size of actin and myosin filaments decreases.
C)capillaries and vessels rupture.
D)the muscle swells.
Q5) You bend your arms at the elbow and forcefully press your palms into each other. Your hands do not move and the muscles of your upper arms do not shorten, but tension greatly increases in them. This muscle contraction is described as being ________.
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I: Basic Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neuron is exposed to a drug that completely blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, but has no effect on non-gated channels or the sodium-potassium pump. Which of the following describes the effect on action potential generation?
A)Threshold will never be crossed, and therefore an action potential will never be generated.
B)Repolarization will never occur after threshold is crossed and sodium will continue to flow into the neuron.
C)Repolarization will still occur, but at an inefficiently slow rate.
D)Resting potential would not be maintained, as potassium could not leak out of the neuron.
Q2) Neuropeptides that affect a neuron's response to other neurotransmitters are called
Q3) Myelin
A)is released from a neuron and travels to another neuron.
B)consists of layers of lipids and proteins that wrap around an axon.
C)is produced in response to bacterial infection.
D)is a form of chromatophilic substance that fills Schwann cells.
Q4) Sheaths of ________ cells often enclose the larger axons outside of the brain and spinal cord.
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II: Divisions of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The epineurium is composed of nervous tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following terms and definitions is correct?
A)Cerebral cortex-a thin layer of gray matter forming the outermost part of the cerebrum
B)Hemisphere dominance-the largest cerebral hemisphere with the thickest cerebral cortex
C)Limbic system-interconnected brain structures that activate skeletal muscle
D)Cerebral cortex-a thick layer of white matter forming the innermost part of the cerebrum
Q3) Which of the following is a major portion of the diencephalon?
A)Thalamus
B)Cerebral aqueduct
C)Cerebral peduncles
D)Midbrain
Q4) The arbor vitae is in the cerebrum.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The middle layer of the meninges is the ________ mater.
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Chapter 12: Nervous System III: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Receptors stimulated by changes in temperature are called ________.
Q2) Sensory impulses originate at receptors in response to A)neurotransmitters.
B)decreasing permeability of nerve cell membranes.
C)subthreshold potential.
D)local changes in their cell membrane potentials.
Q3) Referred pain occurs when the brain projects the sensation back to the original source in the body from which the pain originated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The optic disc is medial to the fovea centralis and is the site from which nerve fibers from the retina leave the eye and become part of the optic nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Receptors that are stimulated by changes in chemical concentrations are called thermoreceptors.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ________ ________ muscle rotates the eye away from the midline.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sweat gland is an example of a(n)________ gland.
A)exocrine
B)paracrine
C)endocrine
D)autocrine
Q2) The thalamus controls secretion of pituitary hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compared to the nervous system, the endocrine system
A)does not use receptors.
B)may have a longer lasting effect.
C)takes only seconds.
D)is not essential to life.
Q4) Tropic hormones
A)only function in the tropics.
B)function in only one sex.
C)stimulate certain endocrine glands to secrete hormones.
D)block the actions of hormones that endocrine glands secrete.
Q5) A hormone whose effects last a long time has a ________ half-life.
Q6) Calcitonin is produced in the ________ gland.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient experiencing pain, nausea, and lack of urination goes to the hospital and is given a blood test. The test reveals high amounts of nonprotein nitrogenous substances in the blood plasma, particularly urea. Which of the following organs is most likely malfunctioning?
A)Liver
B)Heart
C) Kidneys
D)Small intestine
Q2) As a result of starvation or a protein-deficient diet, blood protein concentration
A)increases and water accumulates in tissue spaces.
B)decreases and water accumulates in tissue spaces.
C)increases and water accumulates in cells.
D)decreases and water accumulates in cells.
Q3) "Formed elements" are
A)sodium and potassium.
B)blood cells and platelets.
C)serum and plasma.
D)blood and lymph.
Q4) A clot that breaks loose and travels in the blood flow is called a(n)________.
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Circulation is vital because it
A)supplies oxygen and nutrients to and removes wastes from tissues.
B)inflates the lungs.
C)delivers carbon dioxide to tissues and removes excess oxygen.
D)delivers wastes to tissues.
Q2) Listening with a stethoscope just to the right near the lower end of the sternum, sounds come most distinctly from the A)aortic valve.
B)tricuspid valve.
C)pulmonary valve.
D)mitral valve.
Q3) The external carotid arteries branch to supply structures in the A)shoulders.
B)upper chest.
C)eyeballs.
D)neck and face.
Q4) Metarterioles connect arterioles and venules, and allow blood to bypass the capillaries.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primary immune response ________, and a secondary immune response
A)is very important; is less important to the body's ability to protect itself
B)produces antibodies within five to ten days of exposure to antigens; produces antibodies within a day or two of a subsequent exposure to the same antigen
C)is very rapid in producing antibodies after exposure to antigens; is very slow in producing antibodies after exposure to antigens
D)occurs only in children; occurs only in adults
Q2) Lymphatic capillaries are thin-walled, closed-ended tubes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If lymph nodes existed without macrophages, the lymph nodes would lose the ability to
A)remove excess fluid from the body.
B) manufacture lymphocytes.
C)prevent edema in the tissues of the body.
D)clear cellular debris and initiate immune responses.
Q4) Widely distributed phagocytic cells that remain fixed in position are part of the
Q5) ________ are masses of partially encapsulated lymphatic nodules in the pharynx.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parietal cells of gastric glands secrete A)mucus.
B)pepsinogen.
C)hydrochloric acid.
D)pepsin.
Q2) Bile is composed of HCl, pepsin, mucus, and intrinsic factor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The pyloric sphincter serves as a valve that controls the movement of food between the esophagus and stomach.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Gallstones may form if A)bile is too concentrated.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intake of at least 10 grams of carbohydrate is needed daily to avoid protein breakdown.
A)True
B)False
Q2) People suffering mineral deficiencies sometimes compulsively eat non-nutritive substances, such as laundry starch, dirt, hair, and clay. This condition is called A)anorexia.
B)obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C)pica.
D)pernicious anemia.
Q3) Excess potassium
A)is deposited in the blood.
B)causes brittle bones.
C)disrupts body pH.
D)is excreted in urine.
Q4) The instrument that measures the caloric content of a food sample is a(n)________.
Q5) Niacin can be synthesized in human cells from the essential amino acid ________.
Q6) Proteins are digested into ________.
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these laryngeal cartilages is unpaired?
A)Cricoid
B)Arytenoid
C)Corniculate
D)Cuneiform
Q2) Increased blood concentration of carbon dioxide leads to a(n)________ in levels of hydrogen ions, with both causing similar effects upon the respiratory areas.
A)increase
B)decrease
Q3) Carbon dioxide is sometimes added to the air that a patient breathes in order to A)increase the rate and decrease the depth of breathing.
B)increase the rate and depth of breathing.
C)decrease the rate and increase the depth of breathing.
D)decrease the rate and depth of breathing.
Q4) The volume of air that enters the lungs during forced maximal inspiration is the A)inspiratory reserve volume.
B)expiratory reserve volume.
C)vital capacity.
D)tidal volume.
Q5) The bronchus and blood vessels enter a lung through the ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the glomerular filtrate list that would indicate an improperly functioning glomerular filtration system.
Q2) During development, the embryo is injected with anti-VEGF (which negates VEGF functions). Which of the following effects will occur?
A)Mesangial cells will be hyper-stimulated to specialize because VEGF is inhibited, so glomerular filtration rate will be highly decreased.
B)VEGF won't stimulate growth of the proximal convoluted tubule.
C)The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule will not be formed, as the squamous epithelium won't be attracted to VEGF.
D)Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)will be mass-produced and cause unchecked growth and development of mesangial cells.
Q3) The urinary bladder is superior to the parietal peritoneum.
A)True
B)False
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22
Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ratio of intracellular to extracellular fluids in the body of an average male is
A)1:1
B)1:2
C)2:1
D)3:2
Q2) Carbon dioxide reacts with water to form ________.
Q3) Heather donated the maximum allowed amount of blood at a blood drive, which is around 10% of her total blood volume. How will this affect her thirst mechanism?
A)Distension of her stomach by the loss of blood will trigger thirst.
B)Her loss of blood volume will stimulate the cardiovascular system to signal the thirst center and make her feel thirsty.
C)Her loss of blood volume will stimulate the cardiovascular system to signal the thirst center and stop her from feeling thirsty.
D)The renin-angiotensin system will release hormones to stop her from feeling thirsty.
Q4) The ________ fluid compartment includes all water and electrolytes enclosed by a cell membrane.
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Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) In a certain male individual, primary spermatocytes do not divide into secondary spermatocytes, yet still undergo spermiogenesis and form mature sperm. These sperm then fertilize a normal oocyte. What will be true of the zygote?
A)The zygote will have 46 chromosomes instead of 23.
B)The zygote will be diploid instead of haploid.
C)The zygote will have 69 chromosomes instead of 46.
D)The zygote will have only paternal chromosomes.
Q2) Gonadotropins include FSH and LH.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Each epididymis emerges from the bottom of a testis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The primary organs of the female reproductive system are the uterus and vagina.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Ciliary action aids movement of an egg through a uterine tube.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Q1) In an adult heart, the previous location of the foramen ovale is marked by a depression called the ________.
Q2) The major body part(s)derived from ectoderm is/are
A)nervous system and skin.
B)muscle tissue.
C)bone tissue.
D)liver and pancreas.
Q3) Factors that can cause congenital malformations by affecting an embryo during its periods of rapid growth and development are called teratogens.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a pregnant woman becomes infected with the Varicella (chicken pox)virus during the embryonic stage, the fetus can develop eye problems, mental retardation, and delayed growth. The Varicella virus is a(n)________.
Q5) The adolescent period begins at the end of the first year and completes at puberty.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The process of growing old is called ________.
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Q1) The approximate number of protein-encoding genes on the Y chromosome is A)>1,500.
B)231.
C)10.
D)greater in males than females.
Q2) After receiving a karyotype of a fetus, it is discovered that it has Klinefelter's syndrome. What does this designation indicate?
A)The fetus is female and resulted from one of the gametes having an extra X chromosome.
B)The fetus is an XY male.
C)The fetus is male and the result of a Y-bearing sperm fertilizing an XX egg.
D)The fetus is female and the result of only one gamete possessing an X chromosome.
Q3) Cells from a woman with Turner syndrome have A)an extra X chromosome.
B)one X and two Y chromosomes.
C)only one X chromosome.
D)no sex chromosomes.
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