Kinesiology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Kinesiology is the scientific study of human movement, encompassing the physiological, biomechanical, and psychological mechanisms that underlie motion. This course explores the fundamental principles of anatomy, motor learning, and exercise physiology, with an emphasis on how muscles, joints, and the nervous system work together to produce coordinated physical activity. Students will gain an understanding of movement analysis, injury prevention, performance enhancement, and the role of physical activity in health and disease. Through both theoretical learning and practical application, the course prepares students for further studies or careers in sports science, physical education, rehabilitation, and related health fields.
Recommended Textbook
Examination of Orthopedic Athletic Injuries 4th Edition by Chad Starkey
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20 Chapters
843 Verified Questions
843 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Examination Process
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not information that would be acquired while taking a patient history?
A) Mechanism of injury
B) Onset of symptoms
C) Posture
D) Treatment to date
Answer: C
Q2) In deep tendon reflex grading,hyperreflexia is graded as which of the following?
A) 0
B) 1+
C) 2+
D) 3+
Answer: D
Q3) What is the best method for palpating an injury?
A) Immediately palpate the most painful site.
B) If there is a bilateral structure, palpate it first.
C) Palpate away from the injury working toward the injury.
D) Palpation doesn't offer any information and shouldn't be performed.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Examination and Management of Acute Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What ROM test(s)must an athlete be able to perform while on the field in order to be allowed to walk off the field?
A) AROM and PROM
B) AROM and RROM, but not PROM
C) AROM only
D) AROM, RROM, and PROM
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following sports requires that the athletic trainer be summoned onto the field/court/mat before entering?
A) Soccer
B) Football
C) Baseball
D) Softball
Answer: A
Q3) What is the term for the temporary cessation of breathing?
A) Apnea
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Dyspnea
D) Allergy
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Practice in the Diagnostic Process
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient-centered approach is best described by which of the following?
A) Patient's needs and values
B) Patient's values but not the patient's needs
C) Patient's long-term goals and needs
D) Patient's needs, values, and long-term goals
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following factors does not influence reliability?
A) Consistency in performing a skill
B) How the results are interpreted
C) Gender of the patient
D) Experience and training of the examiner
Answer: C
Q3) Three clinicians (I,II,III)are working in the clinic and routinely rotate patients so they are familiar with all of their clients.Which of the following combinations of clinicians needs to work to make their skill set more reliable?
A) Interrater reliability between I and III = 0.78
B) Interrater reliability between I and II = 0.98
C) Interrater reliability between II and III = 0.83
D) Intrarater reliability of I = 0.98
Answer: A
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Injury Pathology Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following forces is primarily responsible for a dislocation?
A) Tension
B) Compression
C) Torsion
D) Shear
Q2) Which of the following is more common in the hands and is described as an inflammation of the synovial sheath surrounding a muscle tendon?
A) Tenosynovitis
B) Peritendinitis
C) Tendinitis
D) Tendinosis
Q3) Muscle tissue,including tendons,ligaments,and fascia,are most prone to being injured as the result of what force?
A) Shear
B) Tensile
C) Torsion
D) Compressive
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6
Chapter 5: Musculoskeletal Diagnostic Techniques
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43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures absorbs the most energy during radiographs?
A) Muscle
B) Ligaments
C) Bone
D) Cartilage
Q2) Unlike the ionizing radiation associated with radiographs and CT scans,the energy used during the MRI process produces no known potentially harmful effects.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following imaging techniques involves the use of a contrast medium injected into the vein to visualize blood vessels?
A) Nerve conduction studies
B) CT angiography
C) Diagnostic ultrasound
D) fMRI
Q4) Prior to the bone scan,a radioactive agent must be delivered into a small artery.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Assessment of Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a postural muscle?
A) Upper trapezius
B) Levator scapula
C) Rectus abdominis
D) Tensor fascia latae
Q2) An athlete comes into the athletic training room with forward rounded shoulders.In your assessment,you lay the athlete on the plinth table with his arms at his side.Upon placing the athlete in this position,you observe that the shoulders do not lay flat on the table.This would indicate which of the following as a positive test?
A) Pectoralis major test
B) Pectoralis minor test
C) Rhomboid major test
D) Latissimus dorsi test
Q3) Which of the following represents ideal postural alignment based on the lateral view using a plumb line?
A) Lateral malleolus bisects line
B) Greater trochanter slightly anterior to line
C) Lateral femoral condyle slightly posterior to line
D) Acromion process bisects line
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Evaluation of Gait
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the position of the knee in the weight-bearing limb when the other limb is in the terminal swing phase of gait?
A) 0°; tibia externally rotates
B) 30° to 70° flexion; tibia internally rotates
C) 30° to 0° flexion; tibia externally rotates
D) 0°; tibia internally rotates
Q2) What effect would a decreased ability to dorsiflex have on the terminal stance phase of the gait cycle in the weight-bearing limb?
A) Decreased heel rise
B) Premature heel rise
C) Increased ability to toe-off
D) Decreased ability to supinate
Q3) What is considered the functional unit of gait?
A) Cadence
B) Step length
C) Stride
D) Step width
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Chapter 8: Foot and Toe Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) An athlete presents in the athletic training room with a bump on the back of the heel. It is red,swollen,and painful to the touch.The athlete states that it has been there for a while,but the new shoes he is wearing have irritated it.What does this athlete have?
A) Retrocalcaneal exostosis
B) Os trigonum
C) Achilles tendonitis
D) Plantarcalcaneal exostosis
Q2) The foot's intrinsic muscles originate and insert from the foot and are grouped into how many layers?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q3) Which muscular layer of the foot contains the abductor hallucis,flexor digitorum brevis,and abductor digiti minimi?
A) Superficial
B) Middle
C) Deep
D) Interosseous
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Ankle and Leg Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not contained in the anterior compartment?
A) Tibialis anterior
B) Peroneus tertius
C) Extensor hallucis longus
D) Peroneus longus
Q2) The anterior talofibular ligament limits anterior translation of the talus on the tibia and tightens to provide support during what motion?
A) Eversion
B) Inversion
C) Plantar flexion
D) Dorsiflexion
Q3) Which of the following is the difference between traumatic compartment syndrome and chronic exertional compartment syndrome?
A) Signs of the injury
B) Onset of the injury
C) Symptoms of the injury
D) Treatment of the injury
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11
Chapter 10: Knee Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What test can be used as a clinical evaluation tool for the presence of osteochondral defects on the knee's articular surface?
A) Thessaly test
B) Wilson's test
C) Ober test
D) Jerk test
Q2) Which of the following is the strongest ligament of the knee and the primary stabilizer?
A) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
B) Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
C) Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
D) Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
Q3) In what position should the knee be placed when performing the anterior drawer test?
A) Full extension
B) 30° of knee flexion
C) 60° of knee flexion
D) 90° of knee flexion
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Chapter 11: Patellofemoral Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Internal rotation of the tibia has what effect on Q angle?
A) It increases it.
B) It decreases it.
C) It doesn't have an effect on Q angle.
D) It depends on whether the person is weight-bearing versus non-weight-bearing.
Q2) At what degree of knee flexion is the patella most likely to dislocate?
A) 0° to 10°
B) 20° to 30°
C) 40° to 50°
D) 60° to 70°
Q3) Which test can be completed to assess tension of the iliotibial band?
A) Ober test
B) Navicular drop test
C) Stutter test
D) Clarke's sign
Q4) Which of the following would increase the patellofemoral joint force?
A) Weak hip adductors
B) Tight hamstrings
C) Tight soleus
D) Weak hip abductors
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Chapter 12: Pelvis and Thigh Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anterior fibers of the iliofemoral ligament function to limit hyperextension of the hip.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What combination of movements is used during the anterior impingement test?
A) Flexion, internal rotation, and adduction of the hip
B) Extension, internal rotation, and adduction of the hip
C) Flexion, external rotation, and adduction of the hip
D) Extension, external rotation, and adduction of the hip
Q3) Which of the following may increase symptoms of piriformis syndrome?
A) Straight-leg-raise test
B) Passive external rotation
C) Resisted internal rotation
D) Resisted hip adduction
Q4) The pelvis is formed by pairs of three fused bones and joined anteriorly by which of the following?
A) Ischial tuberosity
B) Pubic symphysis
C) Sacroiliac (SI) joint
D) Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Lumbosacral Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the muscle group that is the primary mover for spinal extension and controls the rate of spinal flexion against gravity through eccentric contractions?
A) Erector spinae
B) Transversospinal
C) Iliocostalis
D) Longissimus
Q2) Lumbarization is a condition that is normally symptomatic and will require one to seek medical attention.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following ligaments resist flexion and rotation? Select all that apply.
A) Anterior longitudinal
B) Interspinous
C) Ligamentum flavum
D) Posterior longitudinal
Q4) The primary movement occurring between the L1 and L4 vertebrae is rotation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Cervical and Thoracic Spine and Thorax Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first position of the ULTT includes passive lateral flexion of the cervical spine toward the side not being tested and depression of the shoulder girdle on the side not being tested.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Wry neck
A)Nystagmus
B)Patency
C)Torticollis
D)Myelopathy
Q3) Freely open
A)Nystagmus
B)Patency
C)Torticollis
D)Myelopathy
Q4) What is inflamed in an athlete who has mononucleosis?
A) Liver
B) Gallbladder
C) Spleen
D) Pancreas
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Chapter 15: Shoulder and Upper Arm Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a weak site in the GH capsule that is often torn during an anterior GH dislocation?
A) Weitbrecht's foramen
B) Inferior pouch
C) Coracohumeral ligament
D) Conoid ligament
Q2) Tears most commonly occur in which rotator cuff muscle?
A) Supraspinatus
B) Subscapularis
C) Infraspinatus
D) Teres minor
Q3) What is the pain during the follow-through phase of the pitching motion commonly associated with?
A) Rotator cuff pathology
B) Instability or impingement
C) Superior labral tear from anterior to posterior (SLAP) lesion or biceps tendon pathology
D) Limited internal rotation
Q4) Name all the muscles that have a direct action on the scapula.
Q5) Define the plane of the scapula.
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Chapter 16: Elbow and Forearm Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following joints does not allow pronation to occur?
A) Humeroradial
B) Humeroulnar
C) Proximal radioulnar
D) Distal radioulnar
Q2) Which of the following is not correct in performing the test for lateral epicondylalgia?
A) The patient is positioned with the elbow flexed and the forearm supinated.
B) The examiner palpates the lateral epicondyle.
C) The examiner resists wrist extension through full range of motion.
D) The test may also be performed with the elbow extended.
Q3) Which of the following is a muscle of the wrist flexor group?
A) Palmaris longus
B) Supinator
C) Extensor carpi radialis longus
D) Abductor pollicis longus
Q4) The "terrible triad" of the elbow involves which type of injury to what structures?
Q5) Name the four individual articulations of the elbow.
Q6) List the structures within the cubital fossa.
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Chapter 17: Wrist, Hand, and Finger Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nerve travels through the carpal tunnel in the wrist?
A) Ulnar
B) Median
C) Radial
D) Musculocutaneous
Q2) Which pulleys are located on the distal aspect of the metacarpal and the most proximal member of the pulley system?
A) Cruciate
B) Annular
C) Palmar aponeurosis
D) Lumbrical
Q3) Which nerve supplies the primary innervation for wrist flexion and radial deviation?
A) Median
B) Ulnar
C) Radial
D) Musculocutaneous
Q4) Name the two muscles of the flexor grouping that are not innervated by the median nerve.
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19
Chapter 18: Eye Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name the bones that form the eye orbit.
Q2) An inspection of the eye reveals the globe to be bulging anteriorly.What is this medically known as?
A) Exophthalmos
B) Enophthalmos
C) Hypermetropia
D) Emmetropia
Q3) What is a fracture of the orbital roof called?
A) Blow-out
B) Blow-up
C) Comminuted
D) Blow-in
Q4) Which of the following is not a typical treatment option for viral conjunctivitis?
A) Antibacterial ointment
B) Topical antibiotic
C) Topical antiviral
D) Topical steroid
Q5) When checking pupillary reaction,what is considered a positive test?
Q6) What are you looking for when assessing eye movement?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Face and Related Structure Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of tooth luxation is marked by a depression into the alveolar process relative to the contiguous teeth and to its match on the opposite side?
A) Intruded
B) Extruded
C) Avulsed
D) Fractured
Q2) Which cranial nerve (CN)can become impaired when an auricular hematoma is present?
A) CN V
B) CV VIII
C) CV I
D) CN IV
Q3) Which of the following describes the area of a patient's mouth that represents everything past the teeth and leading to the trachea?
A) Vermilion border
B) Oral cavity
C) Oral vestibule
D) Larynx
Q4) Explain how to perform Weber's test and what is considered a positive test.
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Chapter 20: Head and Acute Cervical Spine Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would indicate a nasal fracture and/or a skull fracture?
A) Nystagmus
B) Raccoon eyes
C) Bleeding from the forehead
D) Bleeding from the mouth
Q2) At which levels do cervical dislocations primarily occur?
A) C6-C7
B) C4-C6
C) C3-C4
D) C1-C3
Q3) Although spearing is illegal in football,it still occurs in 19% of football plays.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What stage of chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)is associated with depression,explosive behavior,and short-term memory loss?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
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