Kinesiology and Therapeutic Modalities
Exam Review
Course Introduction
This course explores the foundational principles of kinesiology and their application in therapeutic settings, focusing on the mechanics of human movement and the use of various physical modalities for rehabilitation. Students will examine the anatomical and physiological bases of movement, posture, and musculoskeletal function, as well as the assessment techniques used in clinical environments. Emphasis is placed on the selection, implementation, and evaluation of therapeutic modalities such as heat, cold, ultrasound, electrical stimulation, and manual therapy. The course prepares students to integrate theoretical knowledge with practical skills for designing and administering effective intervention strategies to promote recovery, prevent injury, and enhance performance across diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Michlovitzs Modalities for Therapeutic Intervention 6th Edition by James W. Bellew PT EdD
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17 Chapters
315 Verified Questions
315 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1022 Page 2
Chapter
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the appropriate use of therapeutic modalities for rehabilitation programs?
A) Adjunctive components of a comprehensive therapy program
B) Primary components of most therapy programs
C) Exclusive application for curative purposes
D) Promotion of post-therapy goals and outcomes
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following modalities produces sound frequency ranges that are unable to be heard by human ears?
A) Ultrasound
B) Aquasound
C) Diathermy
D) Vibraphones
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following modalities is capable of delivering heat to tissues?
A) Intermittent compression
B) Handheld ice cups
C) Continuous ultrasound
D) TENS
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Cold Therapy Modalities
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The addition of compression to cold therapy can improve which of the following?
A) Microcirculation and tissue oxygenation
B) Vasoconstriction and histamine release
C) Nerve conduction velocity and tissue hypoxia
D) Analgesia and edema formation
Answer: A
Q2) The physiological effects of cryotherapy are primarily a result of which of the following?
A) Stimulation of free nerve endings in the skin
B) Release of vasodynamic hormones
C) Increase in nerve conduction velocity
D) Decrease in tissue temperature
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following cold therapy modalities has the most research support for effectiveness in the treatment of myofascial pain syndrome?
A) Ice massage
B) Vapocoolant spray
C) Cold compression unit
D) Gel cold pack
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Therapeutic Heat
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the application of heat to the body cause vasodilation of blood vessels remote from the application site?
A) Axon reflex
B) Release of chemical mediators
C) Increased postganglionic sympathetic adrenergic nerve activity
D) Local spinal cord reflex
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following physiological responses to heat will facilitate vasodilation?
A) Increased nerve conduction velocity
B) Release of histamine and prostaglandins
C) Decreased oxygen uptake by heated tissues
D) Increased blood pressure
Answer: B
Q3) The effects of heat on connective tissue include all of the following except
A) Increased elasticity
B) Increased viscosity
C) Decreased joint stiffness
D) Increased muscle flexibility
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Therapeutic Ultrasound
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is strong substantiated evidence for the use of pulsed US to treat A) Various inflammatory conditions including lateral epicondylitis
B) Pain and dysfunction of carpal tunnel syndrome
C) Calcific tendinitis and bursitis
D) There is no compelling evidence for any use of pulsed US.
Q2) Noncontact low-frequency ultrasound (NCLFUS) involves all of the following except
A) It is the aerosolization of saline water to treat wounds.
B) It is commonly known by its commercial name of MIST Therapy.
C) Evidence suggests that the NCLFUS stimulates wound healing by atraumatic selective tissue debridement, wound stimulatory effects, and antibacterial activity.
D) The approach is done by applying ultrasound in the same say as conventional ultrasound using the same frequencies and intensities.
Q3) The best estimate of effective radiating area (ERA) of the ultrasound applicator is A) Area of the faceplate of the applicator
B) Area of the piezoelectric crystal
C) Area of the total applicator including handle
D) There is no way to estimate the ERA.
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Chapter 5: Hydrotherapy: the Use of Water As a Therapeutic Agent
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If your patient has an in-dwelling catheter can he or she participate in pool therapy?
A) No, in-dwelling catheters are a contraindication for pool therapy.
B) Yes, however, all catheters must be removed prior to entering the pool.
C) No, patients with open wounds cannot enter a therapeutic pool.
D) Yes, however, all catheters must be clamped and fixed prior to entering the pool.
Q2) Which of the following will increase the amount of resistance to limb movement in water?
A) Moving a limb slowly in the water
B) Raising the limb upward in the water
C) Moving a limb quickly in the water
D) Keeping the limb close to the surface of the water
Q3) Immersion of a body part in deep water may affect circulatory dynamics because of the effects of which of the following properties of water?
A) Viscosity
B) Hydrostatic pressure
C) Laminar flow
D) Buoyancy
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Electromagnetic Modalities: Laser, Diathermy, and Pulsed Electromagnetic Fields
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true regarding pulsed shortwave diathermy (PSWD)?
A) Mild heat sensation occurs when the mean power of PSWD exceeds 38 watts.
B) The power output monitor on the device is more accurate than patient perception of tissue heating.
C) The amount of heating of tissues is inversely related to tissue resistance.
D) PSWD is capable of performing vigorous heating of soft tissue.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the results of research studies on the effects of diathermy on tissue flexibility?
A) There was insignificant changes in flexibility of soft tissues.
B) It must be combined with frequent, brief-duration stretching to be effective.
C) Studies are inconclusive.
D) There was increased flexibility with or without stretching of tissues.
Q3) Which of the following correctly describes the inductive method of diathermy?
A) Creation of electromagnetic eddy currents in conductive tissues
B) Preferential heating of tissues with high electrical resistance
C) Induction of capacitive currents around the electrical field
D) Body part between electrodes becomes part of the electrical field
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Spinal Traction
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much traction force is required to overcome friction of the lower body when doing lumbar traction?
A) One-half to three-quarters of body weight
B) Approximately 20 pounds
C) Up to approximately one-half of body weight
D) Greater than 150 pounds
Q2) The most commonly used parameters for cervical traction are which of the following?
A) Neutral cervical spine, intermittent, up to 50 pounds
B) Cervical flexion of 15 to 35 degrees, constant, no more than weight of the head (about 10 to 15 pounds)
C) Extension of the upper cervical spine, intermittent, 15 to 30 pounds
D) Cervical flexion, intermittent, 10 to 25 pounds
Q3) Which of the following is the most important parameter to consider when the goal of traction is separation of lumbar vertebral bodies?
A) Using heat before and during traction
B) Selecting an appropriate force
C) Using the supine position with the legs supported on a small stool
D) Using an intermittent setting
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Intermittent Pneumatic Compression
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following treatment parameters for IPC would be best for a patient with upper extremity post-mastectomy stage 1 or 2 lymphedema?
A) 30 to 50 mmHg for 60 minutes once or twice per day
B) 50 to 80 mmHg for 30 minutes three or four times per day
C) 80 to 100 mmHg for 20 minutes once per day
D) 100 to 120 mmHg for 10 minutes every 2 hours
Q2) Which of the following instructions would be most helpful for a patient who has just completed the first IPC treatment for lower extremity edema?
A) Put the leg in a dependent position as soon as possible to prevent ischemia.
B) Compensatory swelling in other areas of the body is an expected response to IPC.
C) Avoid moving the treated limb for as long as possible.
D) Wear compression garments to maintain changes in limb volume.
Q3) Which of the following is a contraindication for IPC?
A) Persistent lower extremity edema secondary to congestive heart failure
B) Chronic venous stasis ulcer on the foot
C) Acute local dermatological infection
D) Lymphatic edema following mastectomy
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Chapter 9: Foundations of Clinical Electrotherapy
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does electric current depolarize nerves more easily than it does skeletal muscles?
A) Nerves are closer to the surface of the skin than most muscles.
B) The resting membrane potential of nerves is more negative than that of muscles.
C) The resting membrane potential of nerves is less negative than that of muscles.
D) The neurolemma of nerves is thinner than the sarcolemma of muscles.
Q2) When stimulating a mixed peripheral nerve, which type of nerve fibers will be recruited first?
A) Type A alpha
B) Type A beta
C) Type A delta
D) Type C
Q3) Which of the following is the correct description of "charge"?
A) An object that has an equal number of protons and electrons
B) Movement of a current along a conductor
C) Gain or loss of protons by an atom
D) Addition or removal of electrons, creating an electromagnetic force
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11
Chapter 10: Clinical Electrical Stimulation: Application and Techniques
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements best summarizes the research on neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES) for muscle strengthening?
A) The strength benefits of NMES are superior to no exercise at all for healthy muscle.
B) In the initial periods of rehabilitation the strength benefits of NMES are not superior to voluntary exercise in weakened muscle.
C) There is no correlation between the intensity of NMES and strength gains.
D) NMES is no better than exercise for strengthening healthy muscle.
Q2) What is the relationship between current density and electrode size?
A) Current density is directly proportional to electrode size.
B) Density depends on the intensity of the current and not electrode size.
C) For every square centimeter of electrode there is a twofold increase in density.
D) Current density is inversely proportional to electrode size.
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Chapter 11: Mechanisms of Pain and Use of Therapeutic Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Analgesic tolerance is most likely to occur with what type of opioid receptor?
A) Kappa
B) Mu
C) Delta
D) Gamma
Q2) Which of the following modes of TENS is administered with a pulse frequency of 100 Hz and a pulse duration of 100 µsec?
A) Acupuncture TENS
B) Brief-intense TENS
C) Burst-train TENS
D) Conventional TENS
Q3) Which of the following best describes the evidence regarding concurrent use of caffeine and TENS for pain modulation?
A) Caffeine consumption may decrease the effectiveness of TENS.
B) Caffeine consumption increases the analgesic effect of TENS.
C) Concurrent use of caffeine and TENS may result in analgesic tolerance.
D) Caffeine acts as a competitive agonist on the opioid receptors, thereby increasing the analgesic effect of TENS.
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Chapter 12: Therapeutic Modalities for Improving Range of Motion
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following modalities is most appropriate for use over the Achilles tendon to facilitate an increase in dorsiflexion ROM?
A) Heating pack
B) Fluidotherapy
C) Continuous ultrasound
D) Paraffin wax
Q2) Which one of the following is not a commonly used clinical method of using electrical stimulation for improving range of motion (ROM) affected by spasticity?
A) Motor level stimulation over the antagonist muscle
B) Motor level stimulation over the spastic muscle
C) Sensory level stimulation over the spastic muscle
D) Sensory level stimulation over the antagonist muscle
Q3) When heating muscle tissues prior to stretching, what is the minimum increase in temperature for eliciting plastic deformation in the tissues?
A) 39°F
B) 15°F
C) 60°F
D) 100°F
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Chapter 13: Electrotherapy for Musculoskeletal Disorders
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ranges of frequencies represents the force-frequency relationship?
A) 10 to 20 Hz
B) 30 to 50 Hz
C) 50 to 80 Hz
D) 80 to 100 Hz
Q2) Increases in strength of the quadriceps following the first 2 weeks of neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES) treatments are most likely secondary to which of the following?
A) Changes in motor unit recruitment
B) Increases in nerve conduction velocity
C) Hypertrophy of muscle size
D) Decreases in tissue resistance to current
Q3) The recommended amplitude for NMES to achieve a given level of muscle force is termed which of the following?
A) Dosage
B) Quantum
C) Threshold
D) Frequency
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulation Nmes
and Functional Electrical Stimulation Fes in Patients With
Neurological Diagnoses
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies have shown that NMES for patients with neurological problems who have muscle weakness
A) May help increase muscle strength, especially in the stroke population
B) Shows minimal improvements in muscle strength
C) Results in significant increases in strength, especially in spinal cord injured patients
D) Shows no improvements in muscle strength
Q2) FES for decreasing shoulder subluxation in patients post-CVA
A) Is most effective when postponed until 6 months post-CVA
B) Should be applied to the posterior deltoid and supraspinatus muscles
C) Should be applied over the upper trapezius muscle to elevate the shoulder girdle
D) Is effective when applied for 10 minutes per day over a 3-week period
Q3) Which parameters would most likely be effective when the goal of NMES is to enhance strength?
A) 75 pps, 10 seconds on : 50 seconds off, 10 minutes
B) 30 pps, 10 seconds on : 30 seconds off, 10 contractions
C) 75 pps, 4 seconds on : 4 seconds off, 10 contractions
D) 30 pps, 4 seconds on : 4 seconds off, 10 minutes
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Chapter 15: Therapeutic Modalities for Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a proposed mechanical effect of intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC) that promotes wound healing?
A) Increased peak blood flow velocity
B) Decreased arterial blood pressure
C) Increased venous blood pressure
D) Decreased oxygenated blood
Q2) The recommended range of water pressure for pulsed lavage with concurrent suction (PLWCS) is
A) 4 to 15 pounds per square inch
B) 20 to 40 kilograms per cubic centimeter
C) 100 to 150 pounds per square foot
D) 500 to 1,000 grams per cubic meter
Q3) Which of the following is thought to be the primary mechanism of action of negative-pressure wound therapy (NPWT) for wound healing?
A) Decreased blood flow
B) Microdeformation of cells
C) Facilitation of fibrinolysis
D) Bacteriocidal effects
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Chapter 16: Alternative Modalities for Pain and Tissue
Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the type of electromagnetic waves produced by monochromatic infrared energy (MIRE) devices?
A) Invisible short radio waves at 690 nm
B) Visible long-infrared waves at 6,823 nm
C) Invisible microwaves below 1,000 nm
D) Visible near-infrared waves at 890 nm
Q2) Which of the following will create a magnetic field?
A) Metals of different atomic number combined in an alloy
B) Resistance to movement of ionic charges in a conductor
C) Forces opposed to normal variation of polar conductance
D) Movement of charges in an electric current
Q3) There is some evidence that therapeutic magnets may be effective for treatment of which of the following?
A) Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
B) Urinary incontinence
C) Chronic low back pain
D) Osteoarthritis of the knees
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Chapter 17: Electrophysiological Testing of Nerves and Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an electromyography (EMG) exam of a patient there is a brief burst of electrical activity when the needle electrode is inserted into the muscle. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this finding?
A) Neuromuscular junction disease
B) Myopathic disorder
C) Demyelination of the motor neuron
D) Normal response caused by movement of the needle electrode
Q2) Which of the following are primary indicators of demyelination of a nerve?
A) Positive sharp waves and decreased sensory and muscle action potentials
B) Prolonged distal latencies and slowing of nerve conduction velocity
C) Decreased amplitude and blocked nerve conduction
D) Shorter distal latencies and increased nerve conduction velocity
Q3) Which of the following is a benefit of saltatory conduction of myelinated nerves?
A) Speed of conduction is significantly lower.
B) More space is needed for myelinated nerves to conduct impulses.
C) Conduction amplitudes are much greater and last longer.
D) Amount of energy needed to propagate a nerve impulse is considerably less.
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