Kinesiology and Human Anatomy
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Kinesiology and Human Anatomy is an integrative course that explores the structure and function of the human musculoskeletal system. Emphasizing anatomical terminology, this course examines bones, joints, muscles, and connective tissues, and their roles in human movement. Students learn about biomechanical principles, muscle actions, and how different body systems interact to produce and control motion. Practical applications in health, exercise, and rehabilitation are discussed, providing foundational knowledge crucial for careers in physical therapy, sports science, fitness instruction, and related disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Visual Anatomy and Physiology 1st Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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26 Chapters
3388 Verified Questions
3388 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person lying face down is in the ________ position.
Answer: prone
Q2) Elimination of excess water, salts and waste products are functions of the ________ system.
A) endocrine
B) digestive C) respiratory
D) urinary
E) lymphatic
Answer: D
Q3) Directing long term changes in the activities of other organ systems is the major function of the ________ system.
A) endocrine
B) cardiovascular C) respiratory
D) lymphatic
E) digestive
Answer: A
Q4) The common name for the patella is the ________.
Answer: kneecap
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Chapter 2: Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) In living cells, complex metabolic reactions proceed in a series of steps called a(n)
Answer: metabolic pathway
Q2) Which of the following is the symbol for an amino group?
A) -COOH
B) -PO
C) -NH
D) -AMO
E) -OH
Answer: C
Q3) The nucleus of an atom consists of
A) electrons.
B) protons.
C) neutrons.
D) protons + neutrons.
E) protons + electrons.
Answer: D
Q4) Individual steroids differ in the ________ attached to the carbon rings. Answer: side chains
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Chapter 3: Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) As each codon arrives at the active site of a ribosome, it attracts another molecule containing the anticodon. This molecule is called
A) DNA.
B) mRNA.
C) rRNA.
D) tRNA.
E) RER.
Answer: D
Q2) Which phase of the cell cycle has the most variable duration?
A) S phase
B) G phase
C) G phase
D) G phase
E) V phase
Answer: B
Q3) The physical process by which a single animal cell separates into two cells is called
Answer: cytokinesis
Q4) ________ is the process of duplicating chromosomes prior to cell division. Answer: DNA replication
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Chapter 4: Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) All four types of body tissue are found in a skeletal muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of cell makes up almost half the volume of blood?
A) red blood cells
B) white blood cells
C) platelet
D) monocyte
E) phagocyte
Q3) The basic shapes of epithelial cells include all of the following, except
A) oval.
B) squamous.
C) cuboidal.
D) columnar.
E) oval and squamous.
Q4) Adipose connective tissue is a type of dense connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The watery fluid component of blood is called ________.
Q6) Interstitial fluid that enters a lymphatic vessel is termed ________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary pigments contained in the epidermis are
A) carotene and xanthophyll.
B) carotene and melanin.
C) melanin and chlorophyll.
D) xanthophyll and melanin.
E) none of the above
Q2) If a fair-skinned person is sunburned, why does his or her skin turn red?
A) The blood flow to the skin increases as part of the inflammatory response.
B) The number of red melanocytes in the skin increases.
C) Melanocytes increase production of red pigments.
D) The blood supply to the skin decreases.
E) Increased heat causes the skin to turn red.
Q3) From what structure does merocrine secretion occur?
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
E) 10
Q4) The substance called sebum is commonly known as ________.
Q5) Melanin is produced by melanocytes within the stratum ________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Osseous Tissue and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Damage to a bone because of extreme load, sudden impact, or stresses applied from an unusual direction is called a(n) ________.
Q2) ________ is the organic component of the matrix in developing or repairing bone.
Q3) Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a(n)
A) fibrous connective-tissue model.
B) cartilage model.
C) membranous model.
D) calcified model.
E) osteoblasts model.
Q4) Would you expect to see changes in blood levels of the hormones calcitonin and PTH as a result of vitamin D deficiency? Explain.
Q5) The hormone calcitonin functions to
A) stimulate osteoclast activity.
B) decrease the rate of calcium excretion.
C) decrease the rate of calcium absorption.
D) decrease the level of calcium ion in the blood.
E) stimulate osteoblasts and inhibit osteoclasts.
Q6) What is the difference between ossification and calcification?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Successive vertebrae articulate at facets on the ________ of the superior vertebra and facets on the ________ of the adjacent inferior vertebrae
Q2) Identify the structure labeled "3."
A) greater trochanter
B) lesser trochanter
C) head
D) lateral epicondyle
E) lateral condyle
Q3) The inferior portion of the nasal septum is formed by the ________.
Q4) The ligament that surrounds the ________ attaches to the tibial tuberosity.
Q5) Identify the structure labeled "12."
A) greater trochanter
B) linea aspera
C) head
D) lateral epicondyle
E) lateral condyle
Q6) The second cervical vertebra is usually called the ________.
Q7) Describe how the arches of the foot assist in weight distribution.
Q8) The two pubic bones join medially at the ________.
Q9) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female. Page 9
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Chapter 8: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following joints is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?
A) elbow
B) knee
C) ankle
D) wrist
E) shoulder
Q2) A herniated intervertebral disc is caused by
A) loss of annulus fibrosis elasticity.
B) slippage of the fibrocartilage disc.
C) ossification of the vertebral disc.
D) protrusion of the nucleus pulposus.
E) transformation of fibrocartilage to hyaline cartilage.
Q3) ________ is a general term for pain and stiffness that affects the skeletal or muscular system.
Q4) A suture is an example of a(n)
A) synarthrosis.
B) syndesmosis.
C) symphysis.
D) diarthrosis.
E) amphiarthrosis.
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Skeletal Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is thought to happen in a muscle during the response shown in graph (a)?
A) It is getting stronger with exercise.
B) There is a gradual increase in the concentration of calcium ions in the sarcoplasm.
C) It is fatigued and must make repeated efforts to twitch normally.
D) It is aged and has lost contractile proteins.
E) It is producing more ATP as tension increases.
Q2) The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of
A) actin, myosin, and filaments.
B) a transverse tubule and two terminal cisternae.
C) filaments, myofibrils, and sarcomeres.
D) A bands, H bands, and I bands.
E) actin, myosin, and sarcomeres.
Q3) Since each myofibril is attached at either end of the muscle fiber, when sarcomeres shorten, the muscle fiber
A) lengthens.
B) shortens.
C) strengthens.
D) weakens.
E) not enough information to say
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The insertion of the flexor hallucis longus is
A) above the femoral condyles.
B) the superior surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe.
C) the inferior surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe.
D) the lateral condyle of the tibia and anterior surface of the fibula.
E) the posterior surface of the medial condyle of the tibia.
Q2) Muscles of the rotator cuff include all of the following, except the A) supraspinatus.
B) infraspinatus.
C) subscapularis.
D) teres minor.
E) rhomboid.
Q3) The muscle that inserts on the iliotibial tract and gluteal tuberosity of the femur is the
A) tensor fasciae latae.
B) piriformis.
C) gluteus minimus.
D) gluteus medius.
E) gluteus maximus.
Q4) In a ________ muscle fascicles form a common angel on a tendon.
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Neural Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ principle states that the size and speed of the action potential are independent of the stimulus strength.
Q2) Which area of the graph shows when membrane potential approaches the potassium equilibrium potential?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q3) Ions can move across the plasma membrane in which of the following ways?
A) through voltage-gated channels as in the action potential
B) through passive or leak channels
C) by ATP-dependent ion pumps like the sodium-potassium exchange pump
D) through chemically-gated channels as in neuromuscular transmission
E) all of the above
Q4) ________ provide information about the external environment.
Q5) ________ monitor the digestive, respiratory, cardiovascular, urinary, and reproductive systems.
Q6) The ________ nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular activity.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The white matter of the spinal cord contains
A) bundles of axons with common origins, destinations, and functions.
B) bundles of dendrites with common origins, destinations, and functions.
C) sensory and motor nuclei.
D) both axons and dendrites.
E) interneurons.
Q2) The ventral rami of spinal nerves C4 to T1 contribute fibers to the ________ plexus.
A) cervical
B) brachial
C) lumbar
D) sacral
E) thoracic
Q3) The reflex that prevents a muscle from exerting too much tension is the ________ reflex.
A) stretch
B) tendon
C) flexor
D) crossed extensor
E) reciprocal
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Chapter 13: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hemisphere of the brain that performs spatial visualization and analysis is the ________ hemisphere.
Q2) Conscious and subconscious motor commands control skeletal muscles by traveling over the
A) corticospinal pathway.
B) medial pathway.
C) lateral pathway.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) ________ is a reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus.
Q4) The medulla oblongata relays auditory information to the A) substantia nigra.
B) red nuclei.
C) cerebral peduncles.
D) superior colliculi.
E) inferior colliculi.
Q5) In most cases, the general interpretive center and the speech center are located in the ________ cerebral hemisphere.
Q6) Why is injury to the medulla oblongata frequently fatal?
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Q7) The ________, a narrow stalk, connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland.
Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During sympathetic activation, ________ occurs.
A) elevated heart rate
B) elevated blood pressure
C) sweating
D) elevated blood glucose
E) all of the above
Q2) The celiac ganglia innervate which of the following?
A) liver
B) spleen
C) stomach
D) pancreas
E) all of the above
Q3) ________ perform the simplest functions of the autonomic nervous system.
Q4) A certain drug decreases heart rate by blocking a receptor on cardiac pacemaker cells. This drug probably binds to ________ receptors.
A) nicotinic cholinergic
B) muscarinic cholinergic
C) alpha-1 adrenergic
D) alpha-2 adrenergic
E) beta-1 adrenergic
Page 17
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a component of the lamina propria of the olfactory organ?
A) areolar tissue
B) blood vessels
C) nerves
D) olfactory glands
E) none of the above
Q2) ________, or pinkeye, results from damage to or irritation of the conjunctival surface.
Q3) Which of the following statements about the retina is True ?
A) Ganglion cells send axons to the brain as cranial nerve II.
B) Axons carrying its output synapse in the thalamus.
C) It has photoreceptors that do not respond to dim light.
D) It has photoreceptors that do not respond to red light.
E) all of the above are True
Q4) ________ fills the membranous labyrinth.
Q5) ________ cells connect photoreceptors to ganglion cells.
Q6) When light encounters a medium of different density, it is bent or ________.
Q7) When you spin quickly, you may feel dizzy. Which component of the inner ear generates the sensations that can lead to this feeling?
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) there is
A) decreased blood flow to skeletal muscles and skin.
B) decreased mental alertness.
C) mobilization of energy reserves.
D) increased urine release.
E) decreased rate of respiration.
Q2) Which of the following organs contain target cells for oxytocin?
A) prostate
B) ductus deferens
C) mammary glands
D) uterus
E) all of the above
Q3) The kidneys secrete
A) renin.
B) erythropoietin.
C) calcitriol.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) The outer layer of the adrenal gland is the ________.
Q5) The hormone that dominates the alarm phase of the stress response is ________.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Blood and Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a deep vein of the forearm?
A) azygos
B) hemiazygos
C) cephalic
D) radial
E) basilic
Q2) Capillaries are continuous or ________.
Q3) The inferior vena cava is classified as a(n)
A) large vein.
B) venule.
C) medium vein.
D) arteriovenule.
E) venous valve.
Q4) The two common iliac veins form the
A) femoral vein.
B) greater saphenous vein.
C) inferior vena cava.
D) hepatic portal vein.
E) innominate vein.
Q5) ________ is responsible for the RBC's ability to transport oxygen and CO .
Page 20
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Chapter 18: The Heart and Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Materials can move across capillary walls by
A) diffusion.
B) filtration.
C) reabsorption.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) ________ is to contraction as ________ is to relaxation.
A) Systole; diastole
B) Diastole; systole
C) Filling; relaxing
D) Ejection; filling
E) Systole; diastole or Ejection; filling
Q3) What occurs at the area labeled "D" on the graph?
A) AV valve opens
B) semilunar valve opens
C) diastolic refilling begins
D) both AV valve opens and diastolic refilling begins
E) both semilunar valve opens and diastolic refilling begins
Q4) ________ are the only blood vessels whose walls are thin enough to permit blood-tissue exchange.
21
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Chapter 19: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Helper T cells do all of the following, except
A) activate sensitized B cells by costimulation.
B) destroy target cells using perforins.
C) enhance cell-mediated immunity.
D) secrete cytokines to stimulate production of plasma cells.
E) enhance antibody-mediated immunity.
Q2) List and briefly describe the four general properties of immunity.
Q3) The process by which antibodies bind to the antigen on the surface of cells, forming large immune complexes, is called ________.
Q4) ________ develop when the immune response mistakenly targets normal body cells and tissues.
Q5) Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the following changes that occur during inflammation, except
A) redness of the inflamed tissue.
B) chemotaxis of phagocytes.
C) heat of the inflamed tissue.
D) movement of defense proteins and cells into the interstitial space.
E) swelling of the inflamed tissue.
Q6) A substance that provokes an immune response is called a(n) ________.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the structures labeled "12"?
A) cause air to swirl within the respiratory passageway
B) improve warming of incoming air
C) create narrow passages
D) help olfaction
E) all of the above
Q2) Which of the following systems is (are) responsible for gas exchange?
A) urinary
B) respiratory
C) digestive
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Secondary bronchi supply air to the
A) lungs.
B) lobes of the lungs.
C) lobules of the lungs.
D) alveoli.
E) alveolar ducts.
Q4) The movement of chloride ions into the RBCs in exchange for bicarbonate ions is known as the ________.
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What provides access for blood vessels entering and leaving the liver?
A) falciform ligament
B) greater omentum
C) mesentery proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm
Q2) Which structure controls the contraction of the muscularis externa?
A) 2
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
E) 11
Q3) Which of the following contains adipose tissue and provides padding for the anterior and lateral portions of the abdomen?
A) falciform ligament
B) greater omentum
C) mesentery proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm
Q4) Bile salts aid in the digestion of fats by ________ large fat droplets.
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vitamin that is essential for the production of several clotting factors is vitamin A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) E.
E) K.
Q2) Impaired fat absorption in the intestine would interfere with the absorption of A) vitamin A.
B) vitamin B .
C) vitamin C.
D) niacin.
E) riboflavin.
Q3) Catabolism of all of the following is fairly common for energy production, except A) carbohydrates.
B) lipids.
C) glucose.
D) protein.
Q4) A(n) ________ contains all of the essential amino acids.
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Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The portion of the nephron that empties into the collecting duct is the
A) nephron loop (loop of Henle).
B) proximal convoluted tubule.
C) distal convoluted tubule.
D) papillary tubule.
E) calyx.
Q2) All of the following are True of the kidneys, except that they are
A) located in a position that is retroperitoneal.
B) surrounded by a fibrous capsule.
C) located partly within the pelvic cavity.
D) held in place by the renal fascia.
E) covered by peritoneum.
Q3) Chloride ion is reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb by
A) simple diffusion.
B) facilitated diffusion.
C) active transport.
D) cotransport with Na ions.
E) countertransport for bicarbonate ion.
Q4) Physicians often ask for urine samples collected over a 24-hour period, rather than a single sample. Why?
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) ________ promotes water reabsorption at the kidneys and stimulates thirst.
Q2) Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder respiratory alkalosis?
A) consequence of hyperventilation, for example in fever or mental illness
B) consequence of prolonged vomiting
C) consequence of reduced alveolar ventilation, for example due to COPD
D) consequence of tissue hypoxia, for example in ischemic conditions
Q3) Why does potassium concentration rise in patients with acidosis?
What is this called?
What effects does it have?
Q4) Hypoventilation leads to
A) respiratory acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
Q5) The normal pH range for ECF is ________ to ________.
Q6) When the pH rises above 7.45, a state of ________ exists.
Q7) A (n) ________ acid is an acid that can leave solution and enter the atmosphere.
Page 27
Q8) When the pH falls below 7.35, a state of ________ exists.
Q9) A(n) ________ consists of a combination of a weak acid and its associated anion.
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Chapter 25: The Reproductive System
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Q1) Enlargement of the prostate gland, or ________, typically occurs spontaneously in men over age 50.
Q2) The portion of the uterus that projects into the vagina is called the ________.
Q3) The middle piece of the sperm contains the ________ in a spiral arrangement.
Q4) The portion of the urethra that penetrates the urogenital diaphragm is the ________.
Q5) A mature follicle releases an ovum in response to a surge in
A) follicle-stimulating hormone.
B) luteinizing hormone.
C) estrogen.
D) progesterone.
E) oxytocin.
Q6) This is the structure that ruptures during ovulation.
A) cortical gyrus
B) tertiary follicle
C) secondary follicle
D) theca interna
E) all of the above
Q7) Spermatids mature into spermatozoa by the process of ________.
Q8) Sperm enter the cervical canal through the external ________.
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Chapter 26: Development and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is not one of the extraembryonic membranes?
A) yolk sac
B) amnion
C) allantois
D) chorion
E) umbilical cord
Q2) The mesoderm and the trophoblast combine to form the A) amnion.
B) amniotic sac.
C) chorion.
D) allantois.
E) none of the above
Q3) The ________ stage is the stage of labor during which the placenta is expelled from the uterus.
Q4) List and briefly characterize the three trimesters of gestation.
Q5) A trimester is ________ months long.
Q6) The ________ chromosomes determine gender.
Q7) ________ is the time spent in prenatal development.
Page 30
Q8) Genes that appear on the X chromosome are said to be ________.
Q9) A zygote whose genotype is XY will develop as a ________.
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