
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Judicial Administration explores the principles, structures, and practices involved in managing courts and judicial systems. The course covers topics such as caseflow management, court organization, judicial decision-making, technology in the courtroom, administrative roles of judges and court staff, budgeting, and interagency relationships. Students examine the balance between efficient court operation and the preservation of justice and due process, as well as ethical challenges faced by judicial administrators. The course prepares learners to critically assess and improve court administration processes in various legal environments.
Recommended Textbook
America's Courts and the Criminal Justice System 10th Edition by David W. Neubauer
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17 Chapters
1664 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A court that has a choice as to whether or not to hear the appeal is said to have what kind of appellate jurisdiction?
A)discretionary
B)optional
C)prescient
D)elective
Answer: A
Q2) Once a not guilty verdict is returned the prosecutor cannot _____ the acquittal. Answer: appeal
Q3) The practice of state courts using state constitutions to reinvigorate rights and make policy is called the new judicial
A)federalism.
B)activism.
C)directive.
D)pronouncement.
Answer: A
Q4) The federal government enacted the _____ Protection Act of 2004, which expands judicial review of convictions on the basis of evidence that tends to exonerate. Answer: Innocence
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Sample Questions
Q1) After arrest, arrestees are brought before a judge and advised of their rights, the charges against them, and given a chance to make bail at the:
A)pretrial hearing
B)initial appearance
C)arraignment
D)preliminary hearing
Answer: B
Q2) One of the most fundamental rights granted to those accused of violating the criminal law is _____.
Answer: trial by jury
Q3) The due process model focuses on the rights of the_____. Answer: defendant (or individual)
Q4) The operation of two separate and distinct court systems in the United States is referred to as:
A)a dual court system
B)checks and balances
C)separate but equal
D)judicial federalism
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) This Amendment to the U.S.Constitution guarantees the right to counsel.
A)Fourth
B)Fifth
C)Sixth
D)Eighth
Answer: C
Q2) Brief, limited investigative detentions ("stop and frisk") are also known as _____ stops as a result of the landmark Supreme Court decision authorizing them.
Answer: Terry
Q3) A successful mistake of fact defense negates the _____ of the crime with which the defendant is charged.
Answer: mens rea
Q4) The doctrine of applying the Bill of Rights to the states through the Fourteenth Amendment is known as _____.
Answer: selective incorporation
Q5) _____ are agreements between two or more persons involving a promise supported by mutual obligation.
Answer: Contracts
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Sample Questions
Q1) The United States has a dual court system consisting of:
A)district and superior courts.
B)trial and appellate courts.
C)criminal and civil courts.
D)state and federal courts.
Q2) Appeals from criminal convictions in the U.S.District Courts constitute _____ of the workload of the U.S.Courts of Appeals.
A)less than 10 percent
B)about 21 percent
C)43 percent
D)over 50 percent
Q3) U.S.magistrate judges assist U.S.District Judges by hearing felony cases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The _____ is a Supreme Court custom that allows a minority of the Court to impose on the majority a question that the majority does not think it appropriate to address.
Q5) The particular location or area in which a court having geographical jurisdiction may hear a case is _____.
Q6) The major problem facing the federal courts is _____ caseloads.
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Q1) Some states have no trial courts of limited jurisdiction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both justice of the peace courts and _____ courts are considered lower courts.
Q3) One of the problems facing lower courts is inadequate financing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Intermediate courts of appeals do which of the following?
A)These courts carefully review evidence presented at a trial.
B)These courts determine whether technical violations of the law were committed at trial and release affected defendants.
C)These courts review trial proceedings to make sure the law was followed and that the defendant received a fair trial.
D)All of these answers are correct.
Q5) The principal objective of a _____ court system is a shift in judicial administration from local control to centralized management.
Q6) Explain why intermediate courts of appeals (ICAs) were created? How are ICAs structured differently? How is the court system different in states with and without ICA's?
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Q1) The Speedy Trial Act of 1974 (amended in 1979) allows how many days from indictment to trial?
A)20
B)30
C)50
D)70
Q2) Legal ethics is an example of applied and _____ ethics.
Q3) _____ justice explains why few cases receive individual treatment.
Q4) Judges, lawyers, clerks, court stenographers, law clerks, and bailiffs work inside the courtroom.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The problems in prosecuting and convicting Barker indicate what is often needed in interpreting the law?
A)discretion
B)rigidity
C)Rule
D)Humility
Q6) In essence _____ crimes represent a group sense of justice.
Q7) Speedy-trial laws are not based on an analysis of why _____ occurs.
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Q1) The role of the prosecutor involves broad discretion and A)decentralization
B)Streamlining
C)centralization
D)guidelining
Q2) U.S.attorneys and their assistants prosecute the vast majority of criminal cases in federal courts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Who is the most important member of the courtroom work group?
A)The prosecutor.
B)The judge.
C)The court clerk.
D)The stenographer.
Q4) Identify the three agencies involved in prosecution in state courts.What are the differences and similarities of these agencies?
Q5) In _____ prosecution, separate prosecutors are assigned to specific court functions, such as initial appearance, charging, grand jury, trial, or appeal.
Q6) The _____ is the most important member of the courtroom work group.
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Q1) Despite the legal presumption of innocence, once defendants are arrested, the public assumes they are guilty.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Court's most significant holding regarding the effective assistance of counsel came in 1984 in what case?
A)Strickland v.Washington.
B)Miranda v.Arizona.
C)United States.v.Wade.
D)Brady v.United States.
Q3) The method by which defense attorneys seek to reach the best possible solution for their clients is directly related to their relationships with other members of
A)the prosecutor's office.
B)the police department.
C)their law office.
D)the courtroom work group.
Q4) Statements made by a client to his or her attorney are considered _____ communication.
Q5) Lawyers must assert valid defense and ensure _____.
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Q1) What percent of federal judges had prior government experience?
A)Less than 10
B)33
C)50
D)80
Q2) According to the Breyer Commission approximately what percent of "high-profile complaints filed by attorneys, court personnel, or public officials" were mismanaged by the federal judiciary?
A)10 percent
B)25 percent
C)35 percent
D)50 percent
Q3) In what case did the U.S.Supreme Court announce that candidates for judicial office are free to announce their views on key issues?
A)Republican Party v.White, 2002
B)Clark v.Edwards, 1988
C)Chisom v.Roemer, 1991
D)Gregory v.Ashcroft, 1991
Q4) In _____ elections, the candidate's political party is listed on the ballot.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest victim advocacy group is
A)the American Association of Retired People.
B)Mothers Against Drunk Driving.
C)the Center for Missing and Exploited Children.
D)Handgun Control Incorporated.
Q2) Compared to the average citizen, a felony defendant is more likely to be
A)younger
B)male
C)a racial minority
D)All of these answers are correct
Q3) What types of organizations are involved in the victims' rights movement?
A)local organizations
B)state organizations
C)national organizations
D)local, state, and national organizations
Q4) What are victim/witness assistance programs designed to do?
A)help navigate the court process
B)provide economic assistance
C)provide rights for victims
D)All of these answers are correct

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Q1) Which of the following is a major weakness of the Uniform Crime Reports?
A)The data are only available for some states.
B)It is based only on crimes reported to the police.
C)It provides information only for serious, violent offenses.
D)It only reports federal crimes.
Q2) Which of the following is a power of the grand jury?
A)All of these are powers of the grand jury
B)To subpoena witnesses
C)To indict defendants
D)To grant witness immunity
Q3) The bail agent makes a profit by specializing on high risk offenders.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which Amendment states: "In all criminal prosecutions, the accused shall enjoy the right to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation"?
A)4th Amendment
B)5th Amendment
C)6th Amendment
D)8th Amendment
Q5) How do arrests made by the police impact the criminal court process?
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Q1) What types of evidence must always be turned over by the prosecutor to the defense in virtually all jurisdictions?
A)all open files of any type
B)all exculpatory evidence and all impeachment evidence
C)all witness statements
D)all statements made by the defendant
Q2) The majority of searches are conducted without a warrant. A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the requirements for the application for search warrants, the issuance of search warrants, and the execution of search warrants.
Q4) Search warrants must be executed in a _____ manner to prevent the information that established probable cause from going stale.
Q5) Exculpatory evidence is any evidence that may be favorable to the defendant. A)True
B)False
Q6) A _____ search authorizes law enforcement to search and seize any contraband or illegal items if they are in the immediate vision of the officers.
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Q1) The main difference between a guilty plea and a no contest (nolo contendere) plea is that the latter
A)cannot be used in a civil proceeding against the defendant.
B)results only in a conditional conviction.
C)cannot be entered in felony cases.
D)cannot be entered by defendants charged with violent offenses.
Q2) The overwhelming majority of all state and federal felony convictions are obtained as a result of a defendant entering a negotiated plea of guilt.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a key consideration for prosecutors when deciding whether to offer a defendant a plea deal?
A)a defendant's willingness to avoid incarceration
B)a victim's desire to have the case go to trial
C)the strength of the case
D)a defendant's willingness to testify in another case
Q4) In _____ bargaining, in return for the defendant's plea of guilt to one or more charges, the prosecutor dismisses the remaining charges.
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Q1) What type of evidence serves as an auditory or visual aid to assist the fact-finder in understanding the evidence?
A)scientific evidence
B)real evidence
C)testimonial evidence
D)demonstrative evidence
Q2) Which of the following types of evidence is generally not admissible at trial?
A)DNA
B)fingerprint
C)hair analysis
D)Polygraph
Q3) Jury _____ use social science research to _____ jurors.
Q4) What Amendment guarantees that "in all criminal prosecutions, the accused shall enjoy the right to a speedy and public trial, by an impartial jury?"
A)4th
B)5th
C)6th
D)7th
Q5) The standard of proof in a criminal case is proof beyond a _____ doubt.
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Q1) What philosophy best fits the sentence that Joe received?
A)rehabilitation
B)deterrence
C)incapacitation
D)retribution
Q2) In what case, in 1976, did the U.S.Supreme Court upheld guided discretion death penalty laws.
A)Thurman v.Georgia
B)Granger v.Georgia
C)Tinsley v.Georgia
D)Gregg v.Georgia
Q3) Incapacitation that focuses on offenders with a high risk of serious recidivism is termed
A)focused incapacitation
B)special incapacitation
C)selective incapacitation
D)restricted incapacitation
Q4) There are more white offenders on death row than minority offenders.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Factors such as young age, lack of mental capacity, and lower social stability may have an influence on sentencing and are called
A)mitigating factors.
B)positive and negative sanctions.
C)latent and patent considerations.
D)exacerbating and exculpatory factors.
Q2) The federal government and many states use sentencing _____ to limit judicial discretion in sentencing.
Q3) What is the main objective of changes in sentencing structure?
A)increase in judicial discretion
B)reduction in judicial discretion
C)reduction in prosecutorial discretion
D)increase in prosecutorial discretion
Q4) What is the victim-offender dyad? Why is the victim-offender dyad important in research of capital punishment? What other factors are important to research of capital punishment?
Q5) A(n) _____ prison sentence is one in which the judge imposes a minimum and a maximum term of incarceration.
Q6) Sentencing guidelines direct the _____ to specific actions that should be taken.
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Q1) Explain how the juvenile court differs from the adult court. Provide at least four examples of how proceedings differ.
Q2) Juvenile courts are based on _____ law.
Q3) In child-victim cases the child has committed no crime.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Generally speaking, juvenile courts do not utilize jury trials.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Less serious juvenile cases are handled
A)informally
B)through family court
C)formally
D)through probationary court
Q6) The conference in juvenile court is roughly equivalent to a trial in an adult proceeding.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Some states set no _____ age for transfer of juveniles to adult court.
Q8) What are the different ways that a juvenile may be transferred to adult court?
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