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IT Systems Analysis and Design introduces students to the methodologies and tools used in developing effective information systems tailored to organizational needs. The course covers the entire systems development life cycle (SDLC), including requirements gathering, process modeling, system design, and implementation strategies. Students learn techniques for stakeholder analysis, data flow diagramming, use case modeling, and documentation standards. The course emphasizes a balance between theoretical frameworks and hands-on experience through group projects and case studies, preparing students to critically analyze existing systems, propose improvements, and design robust, user-centered IT solutions.
Recommended Textbook
Information Technology Project Management Revised 7th Edition by Kathy Schwalbe
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1057 Verified Questions
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95 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Projects should be developed in increments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A(n) _____ is "a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits and control not available from managing them individually."
Answer: program
Q3) Stakeholder analyses, work requests, and project charters are tools used in integration management.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) _____ refers to the process in which organizations group and manage projects and programs as a cluster of investments that contribute to the entire enterprise's success.
Answer: Project portfolio management
Q5) _____ include people, hardware, software, or other assets.
Answer: Resources
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Q1) In organizational culture, people focus refers to _____.
A) the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment
B) the degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee and control employee behavior
C) the degree to which management 's decisions take into account the effect of outcomes on employees within the organization
D) the degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking
Answer: C
Q2) According to the symbolic frame, the most important aspect of any event in an organization is not what actually happened, but what it means.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) In a(n) _____ organizational structure, project managers have little or no authority. Answer: functional
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Sample Questions
Q1) Initiating processes are not required to end a project.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following activities is a part of the planning process of the Scrum?
A) Determining how many sprints will compose each release
B) Demonstrating the product during a sprint review meeting
C) Completing tasks each day during sprints
D) Creating sprint backlog
Answer: D
Q3) In Scrum, a(n) _____ is a useful object created by people.
Answer: artifact
Q4) The improvement of the product and process in the Scrum method is discussed at the _____.
A) sprint reflection meeting
B) sprint review meeting
C) kick-off meeting
D) daily Scrum meeting
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interface management involves identifying and managing the points of interaction between various elements of a project.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ involves identifying and controlling the functional and physical design characteristics of products and their support documentation, and ensures that the descriptions of the project's products are correct and complete.
A) NPV analysis
B) Project management information systems
C) Configuration management
D) Project time management
Q3) It is necessary that IT project managers have prior technical experience in creating and managing IT products.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a project charter? Discuss the inputs that can aid the development of a project charter.
Q5) The _____ is the discount rate that results in an NPV of zero for a project.
Q6) What are the methods for categorizing information technology projects?
Page 6
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Q1) Project scope statements must include the project boundaries, constraints, and assumptions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List and briefly describe the six main processes involved in project scope management.
Q3) Creating the WBS is a subprocess associated with the _____ process in project scope management.
A) planning
B) monitoring and controlling
C) closing
D) executing
Q4) The WBS is organized solely around project phases.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _____ involves controlling changes to the project scope while keeping project goals and business strategy in mind.
Q6) What are some of the suggestions for improving the requirements process?
Q7) The main outputs of _____are the project scope statement and updates to project documents.
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the main outputs of estimating activity resources process?
A) Project documents update
B) Milestone list
C) Work breakdown structure
D) Activity duration estimate
Q2) After reviewing the project management plan, project charter, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets, the project team uses expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings to develop the _____.
Q3) In a project schedule, the variable that has the least amount of flexibility is _____.
Q4) What are milestones? Describe.
Q5) _____ states that if something can go wrong, it will.
Q6) In project time management, the primary output of defining activities is a schedule management plan.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe critical path analysis. How is the critical path calculated?
Page 8
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Q1) A negative schedule variance means that it took lesser than planned to perform the work.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ costing considers the total cost of ownership, or development plus support costs, for a project.
Q3) If an important supplier goes out of business, management reserves can be set aside to cover the resulting costs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is most likely to be a reason for inaccuracies in information technology cost estimates?
A) Estimates take a long time to be worked out.
B) People lack estimating experience.
C) Human beings are biased toward overestimation.
D) Only software development provides the scope for estimates to be accurate.
Q5) Project costs, like project schedules, grow out of the basic documents that initiate a project, like the _____.
Q6) Describe three tools used in developing a good cost estimate.
Page 9
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Q1) A ____ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed).
A) skewed distribution
B) normal distribution
C) bimodal distribution
D) degenerate distribution
Q2) The _____ model focuses on defining user requirements and planning software projects.
Q3) _____ measures how much variation exists in a distribution of data.
Q4) Projects that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follow a five-phase improvement process called _____.
A) DMAIC
B) weighted scoring model
C) configuration management
D) use case modeling
Q5) Project managers are ultimately responsible for quality management on their projects.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) _____ is a relation of harmony, conformity, accord, or affinity and is important for communication.
Q2) Managers who believe in McGregor's _____ assume that individuals do not inherently dislike work, but consider it as natural as play or rest.
Q3) Resource leveling results in fewer problems for project personnel and accounting departments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Psychologist David Merril describes _____ as reactive and task-oriented.
A) "Expressives"
B) "Drivers"
C) "Analyticals"
D) "Amiables"
Q5) Assignment, budget, promotion, money, and penalty influence bases are automatically available to project managers as part of their position.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _____ is the concept that the whole is equal to more than the sum of its parts.
Q7) _____ power is getting people to do things based on a position of authority.
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Q1) A facilitator can help the team solve any communication problems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following questions is typically addressed by a project forecast?
A) How much more money will be needed to complete the project?
B) Does the quality of output match our goals?
C) Are our clients satisfied with the speed and quality of work on this project?
D) How comfortable are employees with the software and technology being used on the project?
Q3) Research has indicated that in a face-to-face interaction, _____ percent of information is through body language.
A) 58
B) 35
C) 7
D) 75
Q4) Many experts agree that the greatest threat to the success of any project, especially information technology projects, is a failure to _____.
Q5) _____ communication happens when two or more people to exchange information via meetings, phone calls, or video conferencing.
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Q1) Risk _____ refers to reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence.
Q2) _____ is a technique by which a group attempts to generate ideas or find a solution for a specific problem by amassing ideas spontaneously and without judgment.
Q3) Risk utility rises at a decreasing rate for a _____ person.
A) risk-seeking
B) risk-averse
C) risk-neutral
D) risk-indifferent
Q4) _____ are unplanned responses to risk events used when project teams do not have contingency plans in place.
A) Workarounds
B) Fallback plans
C) Contingency plans
D) Triggers
Q5) A(n) _____ is a document that contains results of various risk management processes.
Q6) The _____ is the person who will own or take responsibility for the risk.
Q7) _____ involves accepting the consequences should a risk occur.
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Q1) The fee in a CPFF contract constantly varies even when the scope of a contract remains the same.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In project procurement management, which of the following is an output of the executing process?
A) Make-or-buy decisions
B) Statements of work
C) Source selection criteria
D) Resource calendars
Q3) What are the four types of cost-reimbursable contracts? Briefly describe each type.
Q4) The main sections of an RFP can include the statement of work and schedule information.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) _____ is a contract clause that allows the buyer or supplier to end the contract.
Q6) A(n) _____ is also known as a tender or quote, short for quotation.
Q7) The final process in project procurement management is _____.
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Q1) A simple way to document basic information on project stakeholders is by creating a(n) _____.
Q2) Communication and interpersonal skills are important for successful project stakeholder management.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Stakeholders might change during a project due to employee turnover, partnerships, and other events.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The project team must take corrective action if stakeholders with _____ are categorized as resistant or unaware.
A) high interest/low power
B) high interest and high power
C) low interest/ low power
D) low interest/high power
Q5) The stakeholder management plan should not be accessible to all stakeholders. A)True
B)False

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