IT Support Fundamentals
Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
IT Support Fundamentals introduces students to the essential concepts and skills required to provide effective technical assistance and troubleshooting in various organizational environments. The course covers foundational topics such as hardware and software installation, operating system configuration, network basics, and the principles of customer service. Students will learn how to diagnose and resolve common technical issues, implement security best practices, and utilize support ticketing systems. Through hands-on activities and real-world scenarios, this course prepares learners for entry-level IT support roles and builds a strong base for further specialization in information technology.
Recommended Textbook
Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Guide to Managing and Troubleshooting PCs 5th Edition by Mike Meyers
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Chapter 1: The Path of the PC Tech
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Q1) When will CompTIA incorporate coverage of Windows 10 into its exams?
Answer: Assuming CompTIA stays true to form, there's a very good chance that you'll see a Windows 10 update on the exams within a year or two of the Windows 10 rollout.
Q2) In addition to Microsoft Windows operating systems, what four operating systems are covered in a limited scope in the CompTIA A+ exams?
Answer: In addition to different versions of Microsoft Windows operating systems, objectives in the CompTIA A+ exams cover a specific and limited scope of Linux, Mac OS X, iOS, and Android.
Q3) Which domain is tested in the CompTIA A+ 220-901exam?
A)Windows Operating Systems
B)Security
C)Networking
D)Operational Procedures
Answer: C
Q4) A(n) _______________ is a networking device that controls and directs the flow of information over networks, such as e-mail messages, Web browsing, and so on.
Answer: router
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Chapter 2: Operational Procedures
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Q1) What is an important item to a technician that usually contains a Torx wrench, a Phillips-head screwdriver, a pair of plastic tweezers, and a hemostat?
A)Tech toolkit
B)Boot bag
C)FRU box
D)ZIP tote
Answer: A
Q2) Most companies require a signed _______________ to perform work. Answer:
Authorization of Work
Q3) What do antistatic mats and wrist straps use to prevent anti-static charges from racing through devices?
A)Extractors
B)Resistors
C)Potential depressors
D)Multimeters
Answer: B
Q4) The _______________ follows a set of steps to diagnose and fix a computer. Answer: troubleshooting theory
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Chapter 3: The Visible Computer
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Q1) Pressing the Mission Control button on an Apple keyboard brings up a utility, called _______________, which enables a user to switch between open applications, windows, and more.
Answer: Mission Control
Q2) Modern versions of Windows use subfolders of the _______________ folder to organize files for each user on a PC.
Answer: C : \USERS
Q3) In the Windows _______________ menu, you'll find commonly accessed tools such as System Information and Disk Defragmenter.
Answer: System Tools
Q4) In a Windows system, what would be the preferred download folder for applications for a user named Mike?
A) C:\Users/Downloads
B)C:\Users/Mike/Downloads
C)C:\Users/Downloads\Mike
D)C:\Downloads
Answer: B
Q5) The default Windows 8 interface is called the _______________.
Answer: Start screen
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Chapter 4: Microprocessors
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Q1) What component in modern computers runs at some multiple of the system clock speed?
Q2) In some instances, you can create a system that has no fan for the CPU with what is called fanless or _______________ cooling.
Q3) What is overclocking?
Q4) Intel's _______________ technology, for example, enables the CPU to run in very low power mode and scale up automatically if the user demands more power from the CPU.
Q5) Almost all current CPUs have a(n) _______________, moved from the motherboard chip into the CPU to optimize the flow of information into and out of the CPU.
Q6) The address bus and external data bus (connecting the CPU, MCC, and RAM) were collectively called the _______________ bus.
Q7) How much RAM can 32-bit processors access?
A)Up to 16 EB
B)Up to 16 GB
C)Up to 4 GB
D)Up to 4 EB
Q8) What risks come with overclocking a CPU?
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Chapter 5: Ram
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Q1) A motherboard should detect and automatically set up any DIMM you install, assuming you have the right RAM for the system, using a technology called
Q2) Describe the RAM requirements and recommendations for the Linux OS.
Q3) At what voltage does DDR3U run?
A)1.25 volts (V)
B)1.35 volts (V)
C)1.50 volts (V)
D)1.65 volts (V)
Q4) When installing DRAM, how can you ensure maximum stability in a system?
Q5) Where does Windows display the amount of RAM currently installed in a PC?
A)In the Device Manager Management Console
B)In the System Control Panel applet
C)In the Help and Support center
D)In the defrag computer hard drive report
Q6) Why has DRAM been the standard RAM used in all computers-not just PCs-since the mid-1970s?
Q7) Why is SDRAM considered to be synchronous?
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Q8) What precautionary measures should be taken while installing SO-DIMM in a laptop?
Chapter 6: Bios
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Q1) What did Intel create to go beyond the limits of the traditional 16-bit BIOS?
A)UEFI
B)TPM
C)DriveLock
D)Chip creep
Q2) What are three advantages of UEFI over the 16-bit BIOS?
Q3) What BIOS feature allows a PC to boot without any local storage by retrieving an OS from a server over a network?
A)BIOS
B)CMOS
C)PXE
D)POST
Q4) The _______________ includes the Northbridge and Southbridge chips on a motherboard.
Q5) Who determines the key combination for entering CMOS setup at boot time?
A)Motherboard manufacturers
B)BIOS manufacturers
C)Users
D)Chip vendors
Q6) A bootable disk is also called a(n) _______________ disk.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Motherboards
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Q1) With a(n) _______________ failure, the computer just will not boot.
Q2) Technicians were required to set jumpers on older motherboards.Why?
Q3) The original PCI bus was _______________ wide and ran at 33 MHz.
A)8 bits
B)16 bits
C)32 bits
D)64 bits
Q4) Briefly describe two ways to install a new device driver on Windows systems.
Q5) A Blue Screen of Death (BSoD) displaying in the midst of heavy computing is an example of a(n) _______________ failure.
Q6) A buggy device driver may cause _______________ symptoms.
Q7) PCI made it into laptops in the specialty _______________ format.
Q8) Describe how motherboards support networking.
Q9) If you need to upgrade the memory, it is best to know how many _______________ the new RAM interface supports, because performance is best when all channels are populated.
Q10) _______________ the BIOS for a motherboard can fix a lot of system stability problems and provide better implementation of built-in technology.
Q11) What is the importance of the motherboard book? Page 9
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Chapter 8: Power Supplies
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Q1) What is the correlation between volts, amperes, and wattage?
Q2) Empty expansion bays must be covered by a _______________ to maintain proper airflow inside the case.
A)case sheath
B)case cover
C)slot lid
D)slot cover
Q3) Why are older power supplies inadequate for today's higher-end equipment power needs?
Q4) Power supplies come with a standard _______________ for the motherboard and interior devices.
A)connector
B)hole
C)pin
D)suppressor
Q5) How many watts of power does a typical hard drive in a PC require?
A)10
B)15
C)20
D)25
11
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Chapter 9: Hard Drive Technologies
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Q1) Drive bay _______________ sit at the front of a bay and blow air across the drive.
Q2) Which SATA variety runs at 6 GBPS?
A)SATA 2.0
B)SATA 1.0
C)SATA 3.0
D)SATA 6.0
Q3) Which PATA standard provides support for very large hard drives and what are the maximum capacities of supported storage size and data transfer speed?
Q4) What hard drive technology typically implements a 1.8-, 2.5-, or rarely a 3.5-inch form factor?
A)SSD
B)PATA
C)SCSI
D)SATA
Q5) Briefly describe the purpose of the Windows trim function.
Q6) Rather than using a master/slave concept, how does SATA function?
Q7) What are the factors that make either software or hardware RAID the best choice?
Q8) Describe the advantages of using disk duplexing over disk mirroring.
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Implementing Hard Drives
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Q1) What is an error correction code (ECC)?
Q2) What is the purpose of the Disk Management program in Windows?
Q3) Briefly describe FAT64.
Q4) A(n) _______________ enables you to use your existing folders to store more data that can fit on a single drive or partition/volume
A)extended partition
B)mount point
C)primary partition
D)secondary partition
Q5) What Windows tool finds additional space on a hard drive?
A)Convert
B)Defrag
C)Disk Cleanup
D)Disk Management
Q6) How many partitions can be active at any given point in time?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Five
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Q7) What would you use to set limits on the amount of drive space usage for users?
Chapter 11: Essential Peripherals
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Q1) All modern CD-R drives are _______________, such that you can go back and burn additional data onto the CD-R disc until the disc is full.
A)multi-CD-Rs
B)multiburner drives
C)multisession drives
D)single-session drives
Q2) A(n) _______________ (otherwise known as a pen tablet) enables users to paint, ink, pencil, or otherwise draw on a computer.
Q3) When using MP3 compression, how far can you shrink a WAV file without losing much sound quality?
Q4) What three technologies does the DVD format use to achieve its capacities?
Q5) The first CDs were designed for playing music and organized the music in a special format called CD-Digital Audio (CDDA), which we usually just call _______________.
Q6) The _______________ is the amount of information (number of bits) transferred from the compressed file to the MP3 decoder in 1 second.
Q7) A(n) _______________ moves the cursor as you move your fingers over its surface.
Q8) Describe the two distinct types of FireWire connectors.
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Chapter 12: Building a PC
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Q1) OEM computer manufacturers such as Dell or HP sometimes include a special _______________ on their hard drives to help you restore a system to its factory settings.
Q2) NetBoot is a tool that allows one to _______________.
A)boot any computer over a network
B)boot a Mac OS X machine remotely.
C)dual-boot Windows and Mac OS X
D)disable network access during booting
Q3) Microsoft eliminated the 30-day grace period in the retail copies of Windows 8, mandating that users provide a(n) _______________ during setup.
Q4) What is the User State Migration Tool (USTM) in Windows?
Q5) What is the advantage of performing a clean installation?
Q6) What is NetBoot, and how is it useful?
Q7) The minimum recommended CPU requirements for a Windows 64-bit thick client are _______________.
A)1 gigahertz (GHz) processor
B)2 GHz processor
C)4 cores
D)an Intel or AMD processor
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Windows Under the Hood
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Q1) What are the five root keys of the Registry?
Q2) What is the function of the ODBC Data Source Administrator?
Q3) _______________, a free tool, gives you the ability to see which processes depend on others.
Q4) The _______________ command can modify the Registry in only one way, adding (or registering) dynamic link library (DLL) files as command components in the Registry.
Q5) To identify a process, use the _______________, not the process name.
Q6) In a BIOS-based system, the BIOS uses its boot order to scan a hard drive for a(n) _______________.
Q7) Which key value data type is limited to exactly 32 bits?
A)QWORD
B)DWORD
C)Binary
D)String
Q8) How many root keys are in the Registry?
A)Seven
B)Four
C)Six
D)Five
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Chapter 14: Users, Groups, and Permissions
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Q1) What three letters are used in a Linux terminal to indicated permissions associated with a file or folder?
A)omc
B)rwx
C)awk
D)lsp
Q2) How are user accounts managed in home editions of Windows as opposed to other editions?
Q3) In a Windows system, members of the Users group are called _______________ users.
Q4) In Linux, the _______________ command is used to change permissions.
Q5) What basic information does Windows ask you to provide in the New Group dialog box?
Q6) _______________ ratings such as E, T, and M can be used to allow or block computer game use.
A)ESRB
B)ETM
C)UAC
D)TPM
Q7) What are the capabilities and limitations of the Power Users group?
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Chapter 15: Maintaining and Optimizing Operating Systems
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Q1) What are the labels on the tab buttons on the Driver tab of the Windows Device Manager?
Q2) Although Mac OS X handles most chores automatically these days, Apple still includes the _______________, a disk maintenance utility/tool.
Q3) To start an application manually in Windows, you should _______________.
A)right-click on the application icon
B)double-click on the disc icon in Explorer of File Explorer
C)initiate an update of the application
D)reboot Windows and start the system in protected mode
Q4) What are the drive requirements for the Time Machine in Mac OS X?
Q5) What does the System Restore tool in Windows enable you to do?
Q6) What information is listed in the Driver Details of the Driver tab of the Windows Device Manager?
Q7) You can run the Windows Error-checking tool by using the _______________ command from an elevated command prompt.
Q8) The _______________ utility in Windows collects information about hardware resources, components, and the software environment.
Page 18
Q9) In Linux, drivers should be updated by using _______________.
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Chapter 16: Working With the Command-Line Interface
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Q1) How is the wildcard character "?" used?
Q2) Because xcopy works on directories, you do not have to specify _______________ as you would in copy.
Q3) What is the purpose of the gpresult tool?
Q4) What is the correct path for a file named Marks.TXT on the C : drive in a directory called Students, which is residing in a directory called REPORT, which is residing in the root directory?
Q5) Entering the command _______________ at a command prompt will scan, detect, and restore important Windows system files, folders, and paths.
Q6) In the Windows command-line syntax, a directory is referred to by which character(s)?
A)/ B)\ C): D)..
Q7) Mac OS X and Linux do not use _______________ to move between drives.
Q8) What is a wildcard used for in the command-line interface?
Q9) What type of file does the Windows extension ".exe" identify?
Q10) What does the command cd \ do?
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Chapter 17: Troubleshooting Operating Systems
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Q1) The Windows Stop Error is also known as the ______________.
Q2) From the Windows Advanced Startup Options menu, if you decide that you just want to log into Windows, without rebooting, choose the ______________ option.
Q3) Which tool enables you to check and replace a number of critical files, including the important DLL cache?
A)System File Checker
B)System Configuration utility
C)Recovery Console
D)Windows Recovery Environment
Q4) The Action Center is found in which version of Windows?
A)Windows XP
B)Windows Vista
C)Windows 7/8/8.1
D)Windows Server 2008
Q5) What does the bootrec /scanos command do?
Q6) Your system won't boot, and you suspect that the boot.ini file is corrupt.To fix this problem, you enter ______________ from the Recovery Console.
Q7) Describe the Windows Preinstallation Environment (PE).
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Virtualization
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Q1) Describe the hardware factors that affect virtualization scalability.
Q2) _______________ is an example of virtualization software for the Mac platform.
Q3) Which of these tools is considered a Web application?
A)Microsoft Word
B)Linux
C)VirtualBox
D)DropBox
Q4) What is a hardware concern of emulation?
Q5) What is a popular VMM in the Linux world?
A)Hyper-V
B)Parallels
C)Fusion
D)KVM
Q6) Once you have installed a hypervisor of your choice on a machine, you will have a _______________ that acts as the primary source to create, start, stop, save, and delete guest virtual machines.
Q7) Discuss how virtualization eases the task of system recovery.
Q8) Where is hardware virtualization support for Intel and AMD processors enabled?
Q9) Microsoft's hypervisor is known as _______________.
Q10) Describe the role of a supervisor in the context of single-OS machines. Page 21
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Chapter 19: Display Technologies
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Q1) What are the advantages of TFT over passive displays?
Q2) Which DVI connector accepts either a DVI-D or DVI-A connection?
A)DVI-I
B)DVI-DI
C)DVI-A
D)DVI-B
Q3) A true 3-D object is composed of a group of points called _______________.
A)pixels
B)dimensions
C)triodes
D)vertices
Q4) How would you use an analog VGA monitor with a DVI-I connector?
Q5) No other area of the PC world reflects the amazing acceleration of technological improvements more than 3-D graphics-in particular, 3-D _______________-which attempts to create images with the same depth and texture as objects seen in the real world.
Q6) Explain the differences between single-link and dual-link DVI-D and DVI-I connectors in terms of bandwidth, resolution, and throughput.
Q7) Why is PCIe a natural fit for video?
Q8) How do you update video drivers in a Windows system?
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Chapter 20: Essentials of Networking
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Q1) What are the challenges with Ethernet over Power?
Q2) A networked host that enables you to access multiple files and folders is called a(n) _______________ server.
Q3) What term describes a group of networked computers that are typically located no more than a few hundred meters apart at most?
A)LAN
B)Homegroup
C)Domain
D)Workgroup
Q4) Network people call anything that one computer might share with another a _______________.
A)segment
B)datagram
C)resource
D)frame
Q5) Describe the shapes and names of the three fiber optic cable connector types.
Q6) Why is the network interface card (NIC) referred to as a network interface controller?
Q7) What are two popular Web server programs?
Page 24
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Chapter 21: Local Area Networking
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Q1) The vast majority of network disconnection problems occur at the _______________.
Q2) What is the first thing to check when a computer can't access the network?
Q3) ::1 is the IPv6 _______________.
Q4) How many bits are in an IP/v6 address?
A)32
B)64
C)48
D)128
Q5) An IPv6 address that begins FE80:: is a(n) _______________address.
Q6) What does DNS stand for and what does it do?
Q7) Suppose a network is characterized as /20.What does this mean? How many host IDs can the network support?
Q8) Describe the Wake-on-LAN feature.
Q9) Originally, DNS names all ended with one of seven domain name qualifiers, called
Q10) What is the binary equivalent of the number 255?
Q11) The address of the port connected to your LAN, also called a(n) _______________ sends data outside of a LAN. Page 25
Q12) What area is the source for most network cabling failures?
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Chapter 22: Wireless Networking
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Q1) A service area that is extended by adding WAPs is called a(n) _____________.
Q2) Why should a user upgrade from WEP or WPA to WPA2?
Q3) Antennas and the signals that they transmit have an electromagnetic property called ______________.
Q4) What is the purpose of a wireless access point?
Q5) What is the function of WEP?
Q6) With ______________, you only need to plug a single Ethernet cable into the WAP to provide both power and a network connection.
Q7) At what frequency range does the 802.11a-based wireless technology operate?
A)7 GHz
B)5 GHz
C)3 GHz
D)1 GHz
Q8) Describe spread-spectrum.
Q9) What is the gain from a typical WAP?
A)1 dB
B)2 dB
C)10 dB
D)12 dB
Q10) Name the two wireless network modes. Page 27
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Chapter 23: The Internet
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Q1) Every Tier 1 and Tier 2 provider leases connections to the Internet to companies called
A)Internet Connection Sharing (ICS)
B)Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
C)Internet service providers (ISPs)
D)World Wide Web (WWW)
Q2) Which servers provide Web sites you access by using the HTTP protocol on port 80?
A)File
B)Mail
C)Network
D)Web
Q3) Many computers can share a smaller pool of routable IP addresses with
A)DNAT
B)IMAP4
C)Port 80
D)Remote Desktop
Q4) Review the steps you might take to solve a limited connectivity problem.
Q5) How do satellite connections to the Internet exchange data?
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Chapter 24: Portable Computing
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Q1) Name the types of RAM used in both older and newer laptops.
Q2) To take full advantage of SMM, Intel put forward the _______________ (APM) specification in 1992 and the _______________ (ACPI) standard in 1996.
Q3) In the ACPI _______________ level, the CPU stops processing and power to CPU and memory (RAM) is maintained.
Q4) Some laptop screens use _______________ panels, which provide for the greater viewing angle and better color quality.
Q5) Describe the ACPI G1 state and its four S states.
Q6) What term refers to a laptop that features a massive screen, a full size keyboard, an optical drive (or maybe two), and plenty of hard drive space?
A)Netbook
B)Chromebook
C)Notebook
D)Desktop Replacement
Q7) ExpressCards connect either to the _______________ bus or a(n) _______________ bus.
Q8) Two technologies that are not used on portables are _______________ and organic light-emitting diode (OLED).
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Chapter 25: Understanding Mobile Devices
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Q1) The term _______________ refers to mobile operating systems tracking and in many cases recording your location for an extended amount of time.
Q2) A(n) _______________ refers to the component that provides the "touch" part of a touch screen.
Q3) The most common way to connect to a Wi-Fi network is through the _______________ app.
A)Configuration
B)Settings
C)General
D)Mode
Q4) iOS apps are almost exclusively purchased, installed, and updated through Apple's _______________ Store.
Q5) Secure POP3 uses TCP port _______________.
Q6) Which identifier is a number that is tied to the user's account with the carrier and is included with a mobile device's SIM?
A)EMI
B)IMSI
C)SSID
D)ICCID
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Chapter 26: Care and Feeding of Mobile Devices
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Q1) What are some clues that your device may have a swollen battery?
Q2) Setting up equipment to spoof a carrier's tower and infrastructure is known as _______________.
A)network ghosting
B)cell tower control
C)network analysis
D)tower spoofing
Q3) Exceeding the _______________ limits that your carrier sets can also lead to slow data speeds.
Q4) What is an app scanner?
Q5) What are the two ways to view battery life?
Q6) Performance can suffer when there are too many apps running at the same time, which eat up _______________.
Q7) All of the mobile operating systems provide at least one way to close running applications-the most common is to swipe the app in a particular direction from the device's list of _______________.
Q8) What is data transmission overlimit?
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Q9) Some devices have _______________ modes and may even be able to display _______________ instead of full color.
Chapter 27: Printers and Multifunction Devices
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43824
Sample Questions
Q1) Most laser printers have a special ______________ filter that needs to be vacuumed or replaced periodically.
Q2) During the laser printer process, after the erase lamp exposes the entire surface of the photosensitive drum to light, what happens to the photosensitive coating?
A)It becomes bright.
B)It becomes electrically charged.
C)It becomes conductive.
D)It becomes nonconductive.
Q3) A laser printer creates an image of dots and holds it in memory before printing it.What is this image of dots called?
A)Raster image
B)Laser image
C)Vector image
D)High-resolution image
Q4) A(n) ______________ contains important information regarding hazardous materials and safety procedures.
Q5) How do impact printers and laser printers differ with regard to transfer of data to the printer?
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Chapter 28: Securing Computers
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43825
Sample Questions
Q1) Sally is a member of multiple groups.A file has been granted different permissions to these different groups.What is Sally's effective permission?
A)Combined permissions of all groups
B)Full Control
C)Most restrictive permissions of all groups
D)No permission until explicitly granter
Q2) A common _______________ attack is where an attacker uses the telephone and convinces a user to give up secure information.
Q3) The term _______________ refers to any program or code that's designed to do something on a system or a network that the user does not want done.
Q4) Describe a security token and an RSA token.
Q5) Boot sector viruses that use various methods to hide from antivirus software are known as _______________ viruses.
Q6) Define malware and list some types of malware.
Q7) What is a Trojan horse?
Q8) The list of virus signatures that your antivirus program can recognize is called the
Q9) What is a rootkit?
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