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IT Project Planning and Control explores the essential methodologies and tools required to successfully initiate, plan, execute, monitor, and close IT projects. The course covers project life cycles, scope definition, resource allocation, scheduling techniques, budgeting, risk management, and quality assurance. Students learn how to use industry-standard project management software, apply best practices for stakeholder communication, and employ metrics to track project progress. Through case studies and hands-on exercises, learners develop critical skills in leadership, problem-solving, and decision-making, preparing them to manage IT projects effectively within scope, time, and budget constraints.
Recommended Textbook
Information Technology Project Management Revised 7th Edition by Kathy Schwalbe
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13 Chapters
1057 Verified Questions
1057 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important tool for project scope management is _____.
A) fast tracking
B) crashing
C) a Gantt chart
D) a work breakdown structure
Answer: D
Q2) To be a successful manager, the only skills an IT project manager needs to possess is excellent technical skills.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) _____ tools, a step up from low-end tools, are designed to handle larger projects, multiple users, and multiple projects.
Answer: Midrange
Q4) Maturity models, statistical methods, and test plans are examples of tools used in quality management.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Describe the concept of a systems approach.
Answer: The term systems approach emerged in the 1950s to describe a holistic and analytical approach to solving complex problems that includes using a systems philosophy, systems analysis, and systems management. A systems philosophy is an overall model for thinking about things as systems. Systems are sets of interacting components working within an environment to fulfill some purpose. For example, the human body is a system composed of many subsystems-the nervous system, the skeletal system, the circulatory system, the digestive system, and so on. Systems analysis is a problem-solving approach that requires defining the scope of the system, dividing it into its components, and then identifying and evaluating its problems, opportunities, constraints, and needs. Once this is completed, the systems analyst then examines alternative solutions for improving the current situation, identifies an optimum, or at least satisfactory, solution or action plan, and examines that plan against the entire system. Systems management addresses the business, technological, and organizational issues associated with creating, maintaining, and modifying a system.
Q2) The _____ frame of an organization relates to the company's culture.
Answer: symbolic
Q3) The three spheres of systems management are business, organization, and _____.
Answer: technology

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Sample Questions
Q1) Administrative activities, such as archiving project files, closing out contracts, documenting lessons learned, and receiving formal acceptance of the delivered work as part of the phase or project, are often involved in _____ processes.
A) monitoring and controlling
B) executing
C) initiating
D) closing
Answer: D
Q2) Key outcomes of the executing process group are formal acceptance of the work and creation of closing documents.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A(n) _____ is the person who ensures that the team is productive, facilitates the daily Scrum, enables close cooperation across all roles and functions, and removes barriers that prevent the team from being effective.
Answer: ScrumMaster
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Sample Questions
Q1) NPV analysis is a method for making equal comparisons between cash flows for multi-year projects.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A positive NPV means the return from a project exceeds the _____, the return available by investing the capital elsewhere.
Q3) What is integrated change control? What are the main objectives of integrated change control?
Q4) _____ involves coordinating all planning efforts to create a consistent, coherent document.
A) Developing the project charter
B) Developing the preliminary project scope statement
C) Developing the project management plan
D) Developing the organizational process assets updates
Q5) As projects progress, the organization must reevaluate the need, funding, and will for each project to determine if the project should be continued, redefined, or terminated.
A)True B)False
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Q1) _____ uses highly organized and intensive workshops to bring together project stakeholders-the sponsor, users, business analysts, programmers, and so on-to jointly define and design information systems.
A) Prototyping
B) JAD
C) RAD
D) Use case modeling
Q2) A(n) ____ is a task at the lowest level of the WBS.
A) variance
B) objective
C) deliverable
D) work package
Q3) The scope of a project is clear and specific from the start.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Information from the project charter provides a basis for further defining the project scope.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The main outputs of scope definition are the _____ and project document updates.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost is known as _____.
A) dependency
B) crashing
C) critical chain scheduling
D) feeding buffers
Q2) A merge occurs when one node precedes mutiple nodes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The final process in project time management is developing the schedule.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In project time management, the next step after sequencing activities is to define these activities.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The arrows in a network diagram represent missed milestones in a project. A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data.
Q2) IT project managers must be able to present and discuss project information both in financial and technical terms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Earned value management involves calculating three values for each activity or summary activity from a project's WBS. Describe each of these three values with examples.
Q4) In addition to providing input for budgetary estimates, the process of _____ provides a cost baseline.
Q5) In a bottom-up estimate, the size of the individual work items is one of the factors that drives the accuracy of the estimates.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A(n) _____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance.
Q7) What are the three basic types of cost estimating? Describe each type.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the quality assurance process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Six Sigma's target for perfection is the achievement of no more than _____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities.
A) 1.34
B) 3.4
C) 34
D) 13.4
Q3) _____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer.
A) Prevention cost
B) Appraisal cost
C) Internal failure cost
D) External failure cost
Q4) The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) defines _____ as "the totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs."
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Q1) A(n) _____ or draft contract often provides the basis for defining and finalizing work requirements.
Q2) According to Covey, project managers must use a win/lose approach in making decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Maslow's hierarchy of needs states that people's behaviors are guided or motivated by a sequence of needs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ is listening with the intent to understand.
Q5) A(n) _____ is a specific type of organizational chart that shows which organizational units are responsible for which work items.
Q6) Recognizing an employee as the "Star Performer of the Month" would be satisfying the _____ need of the Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
A) esteem
B) self-actualization
C) physiological
D) safety
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Q1) Research has indicated that in a face-to-face interaction, _____ percent of information is through body language.
A) 58
B) 35
C) 7
D) 75
Q2) As the number of people involved in a project _____, the complexity of communications _____.
A) increases, decreases
B) decreases, increases
C) increases, stays constant
D) increases, increases
Q3) According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) _____ is a medium that is "excellent" for encouraging creative thinking.
A) phone call
B) e-mail
C) meeting
D) Web Site
Q4) What are the guidelines for conducting effective meetings?
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Q1) _____ risks refer to those that are direct results of implementing risk responses.
A) Architectural
B) Primary
C) Residual
D) Secondary
Q2) Explain the basic steps involved in performing a Monte Carlo analysis.
Q3) Performing qualitative and quantitative risk analyses are subprocesses of the _____ process of project risk management.
A) planning
B) executing
C) monitoring and controlling
D) closing
Q4) Quantitative risk analysis need not be done for projects that are large and complex.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) _____ is a hierarchy of potential risk categories for a project.
Q6) A project _____ is an uncertainty that can have a negative or positive effect on meeting project objectives.
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Sample Questions
Q1) With a(n) _____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs.
A) CPFF
B) FPIF
C) CPAF
D) CPIF
Q2) The contractual relationship is a legal relationship, which means it is subject to state and federal contract laws.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n) _____ decision is one in which an organization decides if it is in its best interests to make certain products or perform certain services inside the organization, or if it is better to buy them from an outside organization.
Q4) _____ management includes the processes required to acquire goods and services for a project from outside the performing organization.
Q5) _____ refers to the process of acquiring goods and/or services from an outside source.
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Q1) Projects often do not cause any changes in an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) _____ is a technique for analyzing information to determine which stakeholders' interests to focus on and how to increase stakeholder support throughout the project.
Q3) The project sponsor, project team and the support staff would be the _____ project stakeholders.
Q4) The main output of the identifying stakeholders process is the project charter.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The stakeholder management plan should not be accessible to all stakeholders. A)True
B)False
Q6) Project management software tools normally do not promote the use of Facebook as a forum to promote project activities.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What must be the contents of the stakeholder management plan?
Q8) The main output of the identifying stakeholders process is the _____.
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