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IT Project Management introduces students to the essential principles, tools, and techniques required to effectively plan, execute, and complete information technology projects. The course covers project life cycles, scope management, scheduling, budgeting, risk assessment, resource allocation, and quality assurance within the context of IT projects. Emphasis is placed on mastering project management methodologies such as Agile and Waterfall, communication strategies, leadership skills, and team dynamics necessary to deliver successful technology solutions on time and within budget. Students gain practical experience through case studies, simulations, and real-world project scenarios to develop their capability to manage complex IT initiatives.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Systems Analysis and Design 7th Edition by Jeffrey A. Hoffer
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19 Chapters
2076 Verified Questions
2076 Flashcards
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155 Verified Questions
155 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the ________ of RUP,analysts define the scope,determine the feasibility of the project,understand user requirements,and prepare a software development plan.
Answer: inception phase
Q2) Planning for cutover must begin early because the RAD approach is so fast.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Microsoft's Security Development Lifecycle is an example of a specialized SDLC. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Documentation and training programs are finalized during the physical design phase.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q5) ________ is an approach to develop information systems that promises better and cheaper systems as well as rapid deployment.
Answer: Rapid Application Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) An organization may move to outsourcing for political reasons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) When facilitated reuse is implemented,developers are not required to practice reuse but are encouraged to do so.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Some of the most well-known and popular open source software names are:
A)Linux
B)mySQL
C)Firefox
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q4) One method for validating purchased software information is to contact current users of the software.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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159 Verified Questions
159 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which of the following activities do you use the information regarding tasks and resource availability to assign time estimates to each activity in the work breakdown structure?
A)dividing the project into manageable tasks
B)develop a preliminary schedule
C)describing project scope,alternatives,and feasibility
D)developing a Statement of Work
Answer: B
Q2) Managing conflict within a project team to assure that conflict is not too high or too low best defines which of the following project manager activities:
A)conflict management
B)leadership
C)team management
D)problem solving
Answer: A
Q3) A ________ is a systems analyst with a diverse set of skills-management,leadership,technical,conflict management,and customer relationship-who is responsible for initiating,planning,executing,and closing down a project.
Answer: project manager
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139 Verified Questions
139 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An orderly means of assessing the information needs of an organization and defining the systems,databases,and technologies that will best satisfy those needs best defines:
A)information systems planning
B)mission statement
C)objective statement
D)competitive strategy
Q2) Top-down planning is an ISP methodology which attempts to gain a specific understanding of the information system needs of a part of the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A company should define its competitive strategy and then define its mission and objectives.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ are a series of statements that express an organization's qualitative and quantitative goals for reaching a desired future position.
Q5) Briefly discuss three generic competitive strategies.Provide an example of each.
Page 6
Q6) Define and briefly discuss information systems planning.
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134 Verified Questions
134 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cost associated with an information system that cannot be easily measured in terms of dollars or with certainty refers to:
A)economic cost
B)tangible cost
C)intangible cost
D)one-time cost
Q2) Briefly define walkthrough and describe the role of each participant.
Q3) Assume a proposed system has a useful life of 5 years,one-time costs of $1,000,000,recurring costs of $250,000 per year,and tangible benefits of $750,000 per year.If the cost of capital is 10%,what is the overall NPV? Overall ROI? Break-even point?
Q4) Improvement of management planning and control is a tangible benefit.
A)True
B)False
Q5) During project initiation and planning,potential tangible benefits may have to be considered intangible.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ is the current value of a future cash flow.
Page 7
Q7) ________ are costs resulting from the ongoing evolution and use of a system.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multiple choice,rating,and ranking are types of closed-ended questions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Referencing eXtreme Programming and its Planning Game,Development is represented by those actually designing and constructing the system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The structured,measured set of activities designed to produce a specific output for a particular customer or market best defines:
A)formal systems
B)key business processes
C)secondary activities
D)production systems
Q4) When gathering system requirements,document analysis and observation are used the least.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________,________,and ________ are the three phases of the Planning Game.
Q6) What is eXtreme programming?

Page 8
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Sample Questions
Q1) Basic procedures for constructing a decision table do not include:
A)listing all possible rules
B)naming the conditions and the values each condition can assume
C)identifying selection criteria
D)simplifying the decision table
Q2) A miracle process is one that:
A)has only inputs
B)has only outputs
C)cannot be exploded further
D)has insufficient inputs to produce the associated processes
Q3) Which of the following is not a true statement regarding data flows?
A)A fork in a data flow means that exactly the same data goes from a common location to two or more different processes,data stores,or sources/sinks.
B)A data flow can go directly back to the same process it leaves.
C)A data flow has a noun phrase label.
D)A data flow has only one direction of flow between symbols.
Q4) ________ are the part of a decision table that lists the actions that result for a given set of conditions.
Q5) The three parts of a decision table are ________,________,and ________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Triggering operations are other business rules that protect the validity of attribute values.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A simultaneous relationship among instances of three entity types is a:
A)unary relationship
B)binary relationship
C)ternary relationship
D)multiple occurrence
Q3) A plural relationship is a relationship that the data modeler chooses to model as entity type.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person,place,object,event,or concept in the user environment about which the organization wishes to maintain data refers to a(n):
A)attribute
B)data element
C)relationship
D)entity
Q5) A ________ is a relationship between instances of two entity types.
Page 10
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indexes should be used generously for databases intended primarily to support data retrievals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The primary deliverable from logical database design is a conceptual model.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is the process of converting complex data structures into simple,stable data structures.
Q4) Which of the following properties should be satisfied when the identifier of the entity type becomes the primary key of the corresponding relation?
A)The value of the key must uniquely identify every row in the relation.
B)The key should serve as a foreign key in at least two other relations.
C)The key must be a composite of a primary key and a secondary key.
D)The key should be an intelligent key.
Q5) The selection of data storage technologies is made during the systems implementation and operation phase.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Highlighting methods should be consistently selected and used based upon the level of importance of the emphasized information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The focus placed on forms and reports during logical design is on:
A)the content and layout design of the forms and reports
B)identifying how specific forms or reports should be implemented
C)identifying the content,layout design,and implementation method
D)none of the above
Q3) The ________ section of a design specification provides a general overview of the characteristics of the target users,tasks,system,and environmental factors in which the form or report will be used.
Q4) When displaying tables and lists,you should right-justify numeric data and align columns by decimal points or other delimiters.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the general guidelines for displaying tables and lists?
Q6) When designing forms and reports,the ________ characteristic suggests that social issues be considered.
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Q1) The range validation test makes sure that data are reasonable for a situation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Interface design focuses on how information is provided to and captured from users.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The guideline specifying that dialogues be logically grouped and have a beginning,middle,and end is:
A)closure
B)shortcuts and sequence
C)consistency
D)control
Q4) Identify ten validation tests and techniques used to enhance the validity of data input.
Q5) A conversation is a method by which users interact with information systems.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Identify four sources of data errors.
Q7) A ________ validation test assures that data conform to a standard format.
Page 13
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Q1) An advantage of client/server architectures is the ability to decouple the client environment from the server environment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A method that helps you to better understand how a system fits within existing business activities and data best defines:
A)system granularity
B)context development
C)integration depth
D)organizational breadth
Q3) Describe six approaches to designing server architectures.
Q4) The ________ is a LAN-based computing environment in which a central database server or engine performs all database commands sent to it from client workstations,and application programs on each client concentrate on user interface functions.
Q5) Customer bookmarks,links from other sites,search engines referrals,and old content adds value are four reasons why Web pages must live forever.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) During alpha testing users test a completed information system using simulated data.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following affect the implementation process?
A)the work habits of an organization's members
B)the personal goals of an organization's members
C)the beliefs of an organization's members
D)all of the above
Q3) A ________ is a single point of contact for all user inquiries and problems about a particular information system or for all users in a particular department.
Q4) Changing over from the old information system to a new one by turning off the old system as the new one is turned on best describes:
A)phased installation
B)single location installation
C)parallel installation
D)direct installation
Q5) ________ is system documentation that is part of the program source code or is generated at compile time.
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Q1) Configuration management is the process of ensuring that only authorized changes are made to a system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The number of latent defects in a system influences most of the costs associated with maintaining a system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Maintenance activities are limited to software changes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mean time between failures is a measurement of error occurrences that can be tracked over time to indicate the quality of a system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Managing maintenance requests is a maintenance activity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are the deliverables for the maintenance phase?
Page 16
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Sample Questions
Q1) A picture showing system behavior along with the key actors that interact with the system best describes a(n):
A)entity relationship diagram
B)state transition diagram
C)use case diagram
D)object diagram
Q2) White level use cases might serve as an enterprise goal whereas kite level use cases might serve as a goal for one business unit.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A use case is considered successful if it functioned correctly and achieved its
Q4) Rolling back a transaction to its original starting place is an example of a
Q5) Both the white and kite levels provide a summary of the use case goals. A)True
B)False
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Q6) A ________ is a depiction of a system's behavior or functionality under various conditions as the system responds to requests from users.

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Q1) A(n)________ clearly shows parallel and alternative behaviors.
Q2) An activity diagram should only be used when it adds value to the project.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An activity diagram can be used for all of the following except:
A)to show the links between objects
B)to depict the flow of control from activity to activity
C)model work flow and business processes
D)help in use case analysis
Q4) A(n)________ shows the conditional logic for the sequence of system activities needed to accomplish a business process.
Q5) In an activity diagram,the fast lane represents the organizational unit responsible for a certain action.
A)True
B)False
Q6) An activity diagram shows the conditional logic for the sequence of system activities needed to accomplish a business process.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) An object is ________ at the point marked by X.
Q2) Types of interaction diagrams include:
A)state diagrams
B)sequence diagrams
C)data flow diagrams
D)component diagrams
Q3) A type of message in which the caller has to wait for the receiving object to finish executing the called operation before it can resume execution itself is a(n):
A)synchronous message
B)simple message
C)asynchronous message
D)half-duplex message
Q4) A ________ is a message that transfers control from the sender to the recipient without describing the details of the communication.
Q5) A ________ is a type of message in which the caller has to wait for the receiving object to finish executing the called operation before it can resume execution itself.
Q6) ________ is the time period during which an object performs an operation.
Q7) Define sequence diagram.
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Sample Questions
Q1) In business process modeling,a decision point is called a(n):
A)activity
B)gateway
C)terminal
D)loop
Q2) All business processes begin and end with a(n):
A)starting and termination points
B)event
C)activity
D)gateway
Q3) A gateway can be exclusive or inclusive.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Business process modeling is much more ________ than data flow diagram notation.
Q5) In Business Process Modeling Notation,a gateway is represented by a diamond.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A swimlane is a way to visually encapsulate a process.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) In UML,a class is represented by:
A)a rectangle with three compartments separated by horizontal lines
B)a circle in which the activity name is recorded
C)a double-lined ellipse in which the activity name is recorded
D)a diamond in which the activity name is recorded
Q2) An entity that has a well-defined role in the application domain and has state,behavior,and identity characteristics defines:
A)object
B)attribute
C)actor
D)class
Q3) What is an operation? Briefly describe three types of operations.
Q4) An aggregation expresses a Part-of relationship between a component object and an aggregate object.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An ________ is a relationship between object classes.
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Q6) An ________ is a class that has no direct instances,but whose descendants may have direct instances.