IT Fundamentals
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
IT Fundamentals introduces students to the essential concepts and components of information technology, providing a solid foundation in computer hardware, software, networking, and security. The course covers basic troubleshooting, operating systems, the Internet, and productivity software, equipping learners with practical skills for both personal and professional settings. By exploring current technologies and industry best practices, students gain an understanding of IT infrastructure, data management, and the ethical use of technology, preparing them for further study or entry-level roles in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Guide to Managing and Troubleshooting PCs 5th Edition by Mike Meyers
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Chapter 1: The Path of the PC Tech
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Q1) The 220-901 exam tests your knowledge of computer _______________, expecting you to be able to identify just about every common device on PCs, including variations within device types.
Answer: components
Q2) Microsoft released the _______________ operating system after CompTIA announced the objectives for the 220-901 and 220-902 exams, but before the exams went live in December 2015.
Answer: Windows 10
Q3) Which domain is tested in the CompTIA A+ 220-901exam?
A)Windows Operating Systems
B)Security
C)Networking
D)Operational Procedures
Answer: C
Q4) What are some valid ways to earn CEUs?
Answer: Professionals can participate in industry events and seminars, complete a presentation, participate in IT training, teach a course, or earn another higher-level certification.The number of CEUs that you earn by completing each of these requirements varies, and each requires that you submit documentation to CompTIA for review.
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Operational Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should you do if a coworker calls you for assistance while you are working with a customer?
Answer: If you get a work-related call, politely excuse yourself, walk away for privacy, and keep the call brief.
Q2) What is the best way to verify full system functionality?
Answer: The best way to verify full system functionality is to have the user do whatever she needs to do on the repaired system for a few minutes while you watch.
Q3) At the completion of work, you should _______________ the problem and solution and _______________ up with the customer to verify satisfaction. Answer: document, follow
Q4) What is the first step of the troubleshooting theory?
A)Identify the problem.
B)Establish theory of probable cause.
C)Test the theory.
D)Verify full system functionality. Answer: A
Q5) _______________ bags help prevent ESD while parts are stored. Answer: Antistatic
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Chapter 3: The Visible Computer
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Q1) Most users and techs access folders and files in Windows with a tool called Windows Explorer in Windows Vista/7 and _______________ in Windows 8/8.1/10.
Answer: File Explorer
Q2) At the heart of every computing device is a(n) _______________, which is usually a single, thin wafer of silicon and tiny transistors. Answer: central processing unit (CPU)
Q3) In Windows 8.1, how would a user pin apps to the Start screen?
Answer: Windows 8.1 makes it very easy to pin apps to the Start screen.Selecting the arrow at the bottom left brings up the Apps pane where you can sort and select apps and utilities.Right-click on an icon to pin it to the Start screen.
Q4) A(n) _______________ connection often describes how one computer connects to one or more other computers.
Answer: network
Q5) In Windows, by default, most programs install some or all of their essential files into a subfolder of the _______________ folder.
Answer: Program Files
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Chapter 4: Microprocessors
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Q1) What happens in a wait state?
Q2) A specialized CPU cooler that consists of a hollow metal block, a pump, and a cooling device is a(n) _______________-cooling system.
Q3) Before inserting the heat sink, you need to add a small amount of _______________.
Q4) What newer technology automatically configures CPU multipliers and speeds?
A)CPUID
B)Jumpers
C)MMX
D)SRAM
Q5) What is overclocking?
Q6) Originally, the cache on the CPU was called the _______________ cache because it was the one the CPU first tried to use.
Q7) In computers, the _______________ system describes the state of a wire at any given moment.
Q8) How do newer CPUs support virtualization?
Q9) What are some advantages of 64-bit computing?
Q10) RAM is arranged in _______________-sized rows.
Q11) What can too much heat dope (thermal paste) do to the CPU? Page 6
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Chapter 5: Ram
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Q1) How was the 400-MHz frontside bus speed achieved?
Q2) Parity RAM stored an extra bit of data (called the _______________) that the MCC used to verify whether the data was correct.
Q3) With DDR4, most techs have switched from bit rate to _______________, a way to describe the bandwidth as the number of data transfer operations happening at any given second.
Q4) What is stored on the serial presence detect (SPD) chip?
Q5) No _______________ processors support a triple-channel feature.
Q6) What happens if you put a high-latency stick in a motherboard set up for a low-latency stick?
Q7) What limitation may surface when running a software-based tester on RAM?
Q8) What is an indication that disk thrashing may be occurring?
Q9) _______________ basically copied Rambus, doubling the throughput of SDRAM by making two processes for every clock cycle.
Q10) When adding RAM to a modern machine, where do you obtain information regarding the right stick or sticks for the particular motherboard?
Q12) Describe the necessary steps to enhance system performance using ReadyBoost. Page 8
Q11) A(n) _______________ number of chips on a stick indicates ECC or parity DRAM.
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Chapter 6: Bios
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Q1) A bootable disk is also called a(n) _______________ disk.
Q2) The _______________ tab of the graphical UEFI system setup utility allows you to set the boot sequence.
Q3) What should be done to resolve a CMOS configuration mismatch error?
Q4) Every time a key is pressed on the keyboard, the _______________ chip in the keyboard notices which key has been pressed.
Q5) How are POST cards typically used in today's PCs?
Q6) What is a scan code?
Q7) Programs stored on ROM chips are called _______________.
Q8) Rather than being stored on option ROM, every video card contains its own _______________.
Q9) Where does the motherboard store the keyboard controller support program?
A)In DRAM
B)On the hard drive
C)In RAM
D)On a ROM chip
Q10) UEFI stands for _______________ and is the BIOS used in modern PCs.
Page 10
Q11) How can a user change the order in which the boot loader searches devices for an operating system?
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Chapter 7: Motherboards
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Q1) The now obsolete _______________ form factor was invented by IBM in the early 1980s and was the predominant form factor for motherboards through the mid-1990s.
Q2) List the four speed grades featured in the PCI-X 2.0 standard.
Q3) A 200-MHz motherboard has its chipset chips all timed by a _______________ crystal.
A)100-MHz
B)200-MHz
C)100-GHz
D)200-GHz
Q4) Which form factor is the largest and the most popular of the three ITXs?
A)Mini-ITX
B)Micro-ITX
C)Pico-ITX
D)Nano-ITX
Q5) Modern motherboards are layered _______________, in which copper is etched onto a nonconductive material and then coated with some sort of epoxy for strength.
Q6) How does a form factor relate to air movement in a case?
Q7) Describe how motherboards support video.
Page 12
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Chapter 8: Power Supplies
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Q1) A(n) _______________ is used to protect the computer from a power sag or power outages.
Q2) If a power supply is smoking or heating up, what is the best action to take?
A)Stop using it and replace it immediately.
B)Replace the fuse.
C)Switch the voltage from 110 to 220.
D)Replace the power supply fan.
Q3) What class of fire extinguisher should be used on an electrical fire?
A)Class A
B)Class B
C)Class C
D)Class D
Q4) Where is the real on/off switch located on a PC?
Q5) The power supply connects to the power cord via a standard _______________ connector.
Q6) What type of power connector is L-shaped?
A)P1
B)Mini
C)Molex
D)SATA
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Chapter 9: Hard Drive Technologies
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Q1) At what speed does the SATA 2.0 specification perform?
A)1.5 GBPS
B)2.0 GBPS
C)3.0 GBPS
D)6.0 GBPS
Q2) Hard drive cables have a colored stripe that corresponds to the number-one pin-called _______________-on the connector.
Q3) What are the two elements of hot swapping?
Q4) You are installing two PATA drives.How should you set the jumpers?
A)Set one to master and the other to slave.
B)Set one to primary and the other to secondary.
C)Set one to first and the other to second.
D)Set one to master and the other stand-alone.
Q5) How do you install M.2 and mSATA drives?
Q6) What is a first step in configuring controllers?
Q7) What options are generally available if you do not see a label on the drive that tells you how to set the jumpers?
Q8) Rather than using a master/slave concept, how does SATA function?
Q9) Briefly describe the purpose of the Windows trim function.
Q10) What is the purpose of the Advanced Host Controller Interface (AHCI)? Page 14
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Chapter 10: Implementing Hard Drives
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Q1) Briefly describe the partition table contained within the master boot record.
Q2) A(n) _______________ volume is similar to a primary partition, but in fact, is not a primary partition.
A)mirrored
B)simple
C)spanned
D)striped
Q3) A _______________ is a place in the directory structure of an existing volume that can point to a volume or partition.
A)partition table
B)volume boot sector
C)stripe set
D)mount point
Q4) A(n) _______________ volume spreads out blocks of each file across multiple disks.
Q5) What is the advantage of using mirrored volumes?
Q6) In FAT16, _______________ enables a user to format partitions larger than 32 MB in size.
Q7) A hard drive can be partitioned with _______________ in Windows.
Q8) What are some symptoms of a dying hard drive?
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Chapter 11: Essential Peripherals
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do you configure a keyboard and what tool might be used?
Q2) Identify the two families of flash memory.
Q3) What is the storage capacity of a Secure Digital Extended Capacity (SDXC) card?
A)4 MB to 4 GB
B)4 GB to 32 GB
C)32 GB to 2 TB
D)128 MB to 2 GB
Q4) What is the most common removable storage media used in modern digital cameras?
A)Compact flash (CF) unit
B)CD ROM
C)USB flash drive
D)Secure Digital (SD) card
Q5) _______________ is considered the next generation in optical disc formatting and storage technology after CD and DVD.
Q6) The USB 2.0 standard introduced _______________ USB running at 480 Mbps.
Q7) _______________ is the standard container file for Windows.
Q8) Briefly define the term sampling.
Q9) When both the video and audio streams of a video file are compressed, the file is placed into some sort of container file or _______________. Page 17
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Page 18
Chapter 12: Building a PC
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Q1) A(n) _______________ is a fix for a single problem within an operating system.
A)driver
B)patch
C)service pack
D)update
Q2) As a minimum, what technology can be an inexpensive redundant storage option for thick clients?
A)RAID 6
B)RAID 5
C)RAID 1
D)RAID 0
Q3) A(n) _______________ installation of an OS usually begins with an empty hard disk or one on which you are completely replacing an existing installation.
Q4) What type of RAID should you use on a home server PC?
Q5) Which type of system enables you to play music and watch movies and television?
A)Home-theater PC
B)Video workstation
C)Graphics workstation
D)Digital audio workstation
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Chapter 13: Windows Under the Hood
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Q1) What does the Applications tab in Task Manager display?
Q2) The _______________ tab of Task Manager enables you to log off or log off other users if you have the proper permissions.
Q3) The name of a process usually ends with what file extension?
A) .j p g
B).exe
C).doc
D).msc
Q4) What are subkeys and values?
Q5) Which tab in the Task Manager shows information about CPU usage, available physical memory, and the size of the disk cache?
A)Performance
B)Networking
C)User
D)Services
Q6) Which two executable files start the Registry editor?
Q7) Pressing CTRL-SHIFT-ESC will open Windows _______________.
Q8) By default, the Task Manager shows only processes associated with the
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Chapter 14: Users, Groups, and Permissions
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Q1) In terms of NTFS permissions, distinguish between Ownership permission and Take Ownership permission.
Q2) When you create a new file or folder on an NTFS partition, you become the ____________________ of that file or folder.
A)administrator
B)developer
C)owner
D)editor
Q3) In a Windows XP system, ____________________ are almost as powerful as administrators, but they cannot install new devices or access other users' files unless access is provided.
Q4) Selecting _______________while adding a new user in Windows 7 makes that user a member of the local Users group.
A)restricted user
B)standard user
C)new user
D)default user
Q5) A(n) ____________________ disk should be created and used at a later time to help users if they forget a password.
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Chapter 15: Maintaining and Optimizing Operating Systems
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Q1) What tool works in the background to stop viruses and other malware from taking over programs loaded in system memory?
A)Data Execution Prevention
B)Task Manager
C)System Monitor
D)Performance Console
Q2) To clean up the Registry in Windows, you should ______________.
A)acquire the right third-party tool
B)run Registry Cleanup
C)configure Windows Update
D)restart your computer
Q3) The System Restore tools creates some restore points automatically, including every time you install _______________.
Q4) What is the function of the Windows Update applet?
Q5) What does Ubuntu Linux use for backing up files, folders, and drives?
A)Ubuntu BackIn
B)Déjà Dup
C)Linux Restore
D)Save Images
Q6) How would you turn off System Restore or change the space usage?
Page 22
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Chapter 16: Working With the Command-Line Interface
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Q1) Which Windowscommand will power down a local or remote computer?
A)restart
B)poweroff
C)shutdown
D)reboot
Q2) The top level directory is also known as the _______________ directory.
Q3) The file's ____ indicates what type of program uses the data by looking at the _______________.
A)partition; extension
B)extension; location
C)privileges; association
D)association; extension
Q4) Why should the command del *.* be used very carefully?
Q5) Where would you select the Run as administrator box when creating an administrator shortcut for the Command Prompt in Windows Vista?
Q6) If you want to go up a single directory level, you can type cd followed immediately by _______________.
Q7) Because xcopy works on directories, you do not have to specify _______________ as you would in copy.
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Chapter 17: Troubleshooting Operating Systems
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Q1) What Windows 7 tool repairs the master boot record, boot sector, or BCD store?
Q2) The system file checker helps ensure that critical ______________ are not modified.
Q3) Which setting in Windows 7's Compatibility tab disables all display features such as Aero?
A)Disable advanced features
B)Disable display scaling on high DPI settings
C)Disable desktop composition
D)Disable Aero desktop
Q4) The ______________ applet uses the Windows Experience Index to provide a relative feel for how your computer stacks up against other systems.
Q5) Each time you successfully start and log on to your system, a portion of the Registry is saved.To access this, you can press F8 to access the Advanced Startup Options and then select ______________.
Q6) What tool is used to end programs that do not shut down normally?
A)Control Panel
B)Device Manager
C)Event Viewer
D)Task Manager
Page 24
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Chapter 18: Virtualization
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Q1) Virtualization occurs when a ________________ running specialized software creates environments within unique single files that _______________ other computers.
A)single computer; manages B)database; manages
C)single computer; replicates D)database; replicates
Q2) _______________ perform chores that previously required multiple physical boxes.
Q3) How does a hypervisor allocate hardware?
Q4) Name the three "layers" of the "Software Layer-Cake" from bottom to top.
Q5) An example of a guest operating system that must be licensed is _______________.
Q6) Discuss how virtualization eases the task of system recovery.
Q7) _______________ enable you to make a point-in-time exact copy of the virtual machine that can be used in case of an emergency restore.
Q8) What are two virtualization products available for Mac operating systems?
Q9) Which hypervisor runs in Windows, Mac OS X, and Linux hosts?
A)KVM
B)Hyper-V
C)VirtualBox Page 25
D)VMware Fusion
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Chapter 19: Display Technologies
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Q1) Many Apple Mac desktop models use a(n) _______________ connection for connecting to a monitor.
Q2) Random access memory digital-to-analog converter (RAMDAC) takes the _______________ signal from the video card and turns it into an analog signal for the analog CRT.
Q3) In older CRT monitors, the amount of time it took to draw the entire screen and get the electron guns back to the upper-left corner was called the _______________.
Q4) During the physical installation of a video card, what three issues must be taken into account?
Q5) Early 3-D games used fixed 2-D images called _______________ to create the 3-D world.
Q6) In an older CRT monitor, how did persistence affect picture quality?
Q7) Which display screen quality is defined by phosphors that continue to glow after being struck by an electron beam?
A)Refresh rate
B)Response rate
C)Dot pitch
D)Persistence
Q8) What are some negative effects of excessive heat inside a case?
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Chapter 20: Essentials of Networking
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Q1) There are close to _______________ different Ethernet fiber optic cabling standards.
A)20
B)50
C)100
D)250
Q2) _______________ fiber transmits multiple light signals at the same time, each using a different reflection angle within the core of the cable.
Q3) Digital Equipment, Intel, and Xerox invented the first network in the mid-1970s and created what eventually became _______________.
A)Ethernet
B)NetBEUI
C)TCP/IP
D)NetBIOS
Q4) You can hook two computers directly together using a special UTP cable called a(n) _______________ cable.
Q5) In Ethernet networks, a central box, called the _______________, provides a common point of connection for network devices.
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Chapter 21: Local Area Networking
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Q1) What identifies a machine on a network?
A)Default gateway
B)DNS
C)IP address
D)Subnet mask
Q2) Describe the process by which a computer obtains an IPv4 DHCP address.
Q3) The _______________ Center in Windows 7 and later can be used to establish network connectivity.
Q4) Windows displays a(n) _______________ over the network icon in the notification area to indicate that you're not connected.
Q5) Machines that connect LANs are called _______________.
Q6) The Windows _______________ utility shows the route that a packet takes to get to its destination.
Q7) When you set the IP address manually, the IP address is not subject to change and is called a(n) _______________.
Q8) What is the binary equivalent of the number 255?
Q9) With CIDR, network techs refer to the subnet mask by the number of _______________ it contains.
Q10) What is QoS?
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Chapter 22: Wireless Networking
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Q1) At what range is the maximum throughput speed of 802.11 networks typically achieved?
Q2) A(n) ______________ enables you to connect to the Internet through a network-aware smartphone, tablet, or other mobile device.
Q3) What method do wireless networks use to determine if other nodes are currently broadcasting?
A)CSMA/CD
B)CSMA/CA
C)Dipole antennae
D)MIMO
Q4) To protect wireless systems, tell the WAP not to _______________ the SSD.
Q5) What is the function of WEP?
Q6) Products that adhere to the 802.11b standard provide a maximum of ______________ channels in the 2.4 GHz band.
Q7) What is the security flaw in WPS?
Q8) The IEEE organization has made first-generation Bluetooth the basis for its 802.15 standard for wireless ______________.
Q9) What is a service set identifier (SSID) parameter?
Q10) What is the speed and range of infrared?
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Chapter 23: The Internet
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Q1) Internet backbones span the major cities of the earth and interconnect at special locations called ______________.
Q2) What does it mean to have local connectivity?
Q3) Which tool transfers data via analog signals?
A)Connector
B)ISP
C)Modem
D)Telephone wire
Q4) ______________ enables you to give anyone control of your desktop or take control of anyone else's desktop.
Q5) ______________ connections to ISPs use a standard telephone line with special equipment on each end to create always-on Internet connections at speeds much greater than dial-up.
A)FTTN
B)ISDN
C)DSL
D)Broadband cable
Q6) Most open wireless hotspots do not provide any level of ______________.
Q7) How do satellite connections to the Internet exchange data?
Q8) Briefly describe universal plug and play (UPnP).
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Chapter 24: Portable Computing
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Q1) What digital ports support a second monitor on many laptops?
A)HDMI, DisplayPort, and DVI
B)USB and VGA
C)Tiny-HDMI and DVI
D)Lightningbolt, VGA, and DVI
Q2) Batteries should be charged to at least how much when in storage?
A)70-80 percent
B)10-20 percent
C)80-100 percent
D)0-10 percent
Q3) What are the two types of expansion slots found on portables?
Q4) Laptop screens typically come with one of two types of finish: _______________ or _______________.
Q5) What is aspect ratio of most laptops today?
Q6) A(n) _______________ laptop/tablet is most often a device with a tablet form factor that is designed to integrate with a detachable keyboard.
Q7) With power management enabled, an unused device may or may not be shut down in the APM _______________ level.
Q8) What happens in APM Suspend?
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Chapter 25: Understanding Mobile Devices
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Q1) To recharge mobile devices, _______________ either plug into a wall outlet and the mobile device, or plug into a computer and the mobile device.
Q2) Describe Apple's closed-source mobile operating system, iOS, and its model of development.
Q3) Swiping and pinching are graphical user interface (GUI) _____________.
A)samples
B)gestures
C)tokens
D)location services
Q4) Which identifier represents the unique 15-digit number of a mobile device?
A)IMEI
B)IMSI
C)SSID
D)ICCID
Q5) What type of screen technology does the Apple iPad use?
A)Twisted nematic (TN)
B)Checkerboard backlit (CB)
C)In-Plane Switching (IPS)
D)Organic light-emitting diode (OLED)
Q6) What is the typical range for NFC communications?
Page 33
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Chapter 26: Care and Feeding of Mobile Devices
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Q1) What are some types of locks you can put on your phone?
Q2) What are the two typical settings on a device to control its brightness?
Q3) What is a cell tower analyzer?
Q4) How can you uninstall an app?
Q5) Performance can suffer when there are too many apps running at the same time, which eat up _______________.
Q6) A phone's _______________ will not work underground, will probably be spotty indoors unless you're near a window, and can really struggle in dense urban areas with tall buildings.
Q7) A(n) _______________ is common during large public gatherings (such as a sporting event) or a widespread emergency that causes a surge in network use.
Q8) What is an accidental touch?
Q9) What are a few things to troubleshoot if your device can't connect to an external monitor?
Q10) What is data transmission overlimit?
Q11) In Android, the Application Manager will let you _______________ an app, also killing its background processes.
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Q12) What is thermal throttling?
Q13) What might happen when you close an application on a mobile device?
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Chapter 27: Printers and Multifunction Devices
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What printing subsystem does Windows Vista include to enhance color management and better print layout fidelity?
Q2) A laser is used to write a(n) ______________ image onto the surface of the drum.
Q3) ______________ printers use a grid of tiny pins, also known as printwires, to strike an inked printer ribbon and produce images on paper.
Q4) Mostly composed of plastic, ______________ particles can be melted on to the paper.
Q5) Today, the typical ______________ printer uses a standard RJ-45 Ethernet cable or wireless interface.
Q6) In a laser printer, the _______________ uses friction to isolate a single sheet any others that were picked up.
A)duplexing assembly
B)separation pad
C)transfer roller
D)gearbox
Q7) The printing process ends with the ______________ and ______________ cleaning of the photosensitive drum.
Q8) What is an RIP?
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Chapter 28: Securing Computers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe a security token and an RSA token.
Q2) What is contained in a digital certificate?
Q3) What are the benefits of incidence reporting?
Q4) What is encryption on a network?
Q5) In the context of malware, what is remediation?
Q6) When configured to do so, Windows will create an entry in the Security Log when someone tries to access a certain file or folder-this is called _______________ auditing.
Q7) What is a software program that looks like one thing (such as a utility or a game) but is actually doing something else (such as modifying CMOS settings)?
A)Spyware
B)Trojan
C)Virus
D)Worm
Q8) What is a rootkit?
Q9) What is a checksum?
Q10) What is a botnet?
Q11) Those who configure permissions to accounts must follow the principle of
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