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Invertebrate Zoology Exam Review - 2345 Verified Questions

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Invertebrate Zoology Exam Review

Course Introduction

Invertebrate Zoology explores the diverse world of animals lacking backbones, examining their anatomy, physiology, ecological roles, and evolutionary relationships. This course covers major invertebrate groups such as sponges, cnidarians, mollusks, annelids, arthropods, and echinoderms. Students learn about the unique adaptations these organisms have developed to survive in a variety of environments, their significance in ecosystems, and their implications for human society. Laboratory sessions typically provide hands-on experience with specimen observation, dissection, and identification, reinforcing concepts from lectures and highlighting the remarkable diversity and biological significance of invertebrates.

Recommended Textbook

Integrated Principles of Zoology 17th Edition by Cleveland P Hickman

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Chapter 1: Life: Biological Principles and the Science of Zoology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A characteristic of science is that

A)it is not explained by natural laws.

B)its hypotheses are testable.

C)its conclusions are final.

D)it is not falsifiable.

E)it seeks to define the vitalistic forces of life.

Answer: B

Q2) Which kingdom contains organisms that obtain their food by absorption through hyphae and never develop from embryos?

A)Protista

B)Animalia

C)Plantae

D)Fungi

Answer: D

Q3) All of the chemical energy transformations that occur within a cell constitute A)evolution.

B)metabolism.

C)adaptation.

D)homeostasis.

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: The Origin and Chemistry of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Carbohydrates are categorized into

A)organic and inorganic carbohydrates.

B)saturated and unsaturated carbohydrates.

C)monosaccharides,disaccharides and polysaccharides.

D)primary,secondary,tertiary and quaternary carbohydrates.

E)monomer and polymer carbohydrates.

Answer: C

Q2) Our current understanding of the origin of eukaryotic organelles such as mitochondria is that they

A)were copies of a cell nucleus that failed to be separated by cytokinesis.

B)were prokaryotes that were taken into a cell and now live there symbiotically.

C)were variations of the plasma membrane.

D)were new forms of life that arose inside other cells.

Answer: B

Q3) Bacteria contain a single,large molecule of DNA in the ____________ region. Answer: nucleoid

Q4) A(n)_______________ fatty acid has two or more carbon atoms joined by double bonds.

Answer: unsaturated

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Chapter 3: Cells As Units of Life

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Q1) The current theory of the structure of the plasma membrane is best described by which of the following models?

A)The fluid-mosaic model

B)The unit membrane model

C)The electrochemical model

D)The nuclear envelope model

Answer: A

Q2) Cell products such as undigested residues are removed from the cell through A)facilitated transport.

B)cotransport.

C)endocytosis.

D)exocytosis.

Answer: D

Q3) Which sequence of stages in mitosis is correct?

A)Prophase,anaphase,metaphase,telophase

B)Prophase,telophase,anaphase,metaphase

C)Prophase,metaphase,anaphase,telophase

D)Anaphase,metaphase,prophase,telophase

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism

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Q1) Aerobic metabolism requires oxygen consumption and the ultimate source of this free oxygen is generated by autotrophic organisms by the process of _______.

Q2) In high levels,alcohol is toxic.Why would a creature utilize fermentation if it were wasteful of the energy in food molecules and posed the threat of killing itself?

A)The organism can survive short spells of anaerobic conditions and maintain growth and reproduction

B)If glucose levels are not high,there may be time to disperse the alcohol "waste"

C)Fermentation can provide a rapid burst of ATP since it does not have to go through the full breakdown cycle

D)All of the choices are advantages

Q3) Animals exhale carbon dioxide that was primarily produced in A)glycolysis.

B)the electron transport system.

C)lactate fermentation.

D)the Krebs cycle.

Q4) Why do some animals degrade amino acids to ammonia and others dispose of it as urea or uric acid?

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Chapter 5: Genetics: a Review

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Q1) Messenger RNA is transcribed using which strand of DNA?

A)Sense strand

B)Antisense strand

C)Messenger RNA is not transcribed from DNA

D)Both strands of DNA are typically used

Q2) A complex of mRNA used to allow multiple molecules of the same protein to be synthesized concurrently is called a(n)_______________.

A)anticodon

B)transcription factor

C)intron

D)polysome

Q3) The phenomenon where an allele at one locus may mask or prevent the expression of an allele at another locus acting on the same trait is called ____________.

Q4) Alleles are genes that

A)are linked.

B)are lethal when homozygous.

C)occupy corresponding places in homologous chromosomes.

D)are never heterozygous.

Q5) mRNA molecules attach themselves to a _______ for the production of proteins.

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Chapter 6: Organic Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Birds and insects both have wings,but we do not consider this similarity as evidence of relatedness because

A)bird wings function on different physics principles of lift.

B)the wings are not homologous structures with a common ancestral origin.

C)they did not evolve in the same region or live at the same time period.

D)there is no fossil link between these groups.

Q2) Technically,differential survival and reproduction among offspring with varying traits is

A)a strictly random process.

B)another definition of natural selection.

C)orthogenesis.

D)neo-Darwinism.

E)sorting,which is not necessarily equal to natural selection.

Q3) Based on the text's coverage of the many factors in micro- and macroevolution,you can conclude that the rate of evolution progresses at

A)a fairly constant rate and would produce the same outcome if "rerun."

B)an uneven rate but would produce the same outcome if "rerun."

C)a fairly constant rate but would produce different outcomes if "rerun."

D)an uneven rate and would produce different outcomes if "rerun."

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Chapter 7: The Reproductive Process

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Sample Questions

Q1) Trace the path taken by human sperm cells as they develop and leave the body,providing the identity of each accessory gland that adds fluids to the semen,and the function of those fluids,in the order they are encountered.

Q2) Offspring produced by asexual reproduction that all have the same genotype are called

A)germ cells.

B)buds.

C)clones.

D)gonads.

E)gemmules.

Q3) Following ovulation,a ruptured follicle

A)differentiates into the corpus luteum.

B)disappears and all of its cells disintegrate.

C)passes on as waste material down the oviduct with the egg.

D)mends itself and begins the maturation of another egg.

E)becomes a part of the epithelial covering of the ovary.

Q4) Describe the path taken by a human egg cell as it develops and implants on the wall of the uterus.

Q5) Contrast the cloaca of birds and reptiles with the vulva of a mammal.

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Chapter 8: Principles of Development

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Q1) "Diploblastic" refers to ________ where _________.

A)fish and amphibians,cells divide in two synchronously

B)sea stars and humans,development can proceed in two directions

C)birds and reptiles,the egg must be completely nourished within a shell

D)cnidarians and comb jellies,only two germ layers are formed

E)only mammals,advanced neural structures are formed

Q2) Mosaic development in animals

A)is a type in which each of the fate of a blastomere is heavily determined by its neighbor cells.

B)is synonymous with regulative development.

C)is a type in which each of the early blastomeres lacks the potential of developing into a complete organism and removing a blastomere eliminates a future body part.

D)None of the choices is correct

Q3) Entrance of more than one sperm

A)is called polyspermy and is disastrous for animal zygotes.

B)results in epigenesis.

C)is neutralized by fusion with polar bodies.

D)results in formation of a large pronucleus.

E)initiates cleavage.

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Chapter 9: Architectual Pattern of an Animal

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Q1) The type of body cavity that represents a persistent blastocoel is the _____________.

Q2) Your fingers would be considered

A)anterior and distal.

B)medial and distal.

C)lateral and distal.

D)posterior and distal.

Q3) Which of these is an example of protoplasmic grade of organization?

A)a hydra

B)an amoeba

C)an earthworm

D)an insect

Q4) Epithelial tissue is classified into A)muscle and nervous tissues.

B)loose and tight connective tissues.

C)simple and stratified epithelia.

D)primary and secondary epithelia.

Q5) A ________ plane divides an animal into right and left halves.

Q6) In animal anatomy,distal parts are farther from the middle of the body than are __________ parts.

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Chapter 10: Taxonomy and Phylogeny of Animals

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of a cladogram?

A)It is a branching diagram.

B)It depicts the nested hierarchy of clades within clades.

C)Its structure denotes only real lineages that occurred in the evolutionary past.

D)A cladogram may be congruent with that of a corresponding phylogenetic tree.

Q2) A taxon is polyphyletic if it

A)includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and all of its descendants.

B)includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and some,but not all,of its descendants.

C)does not include the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group.

D)includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group.

Q3) What biochemical trait varies but is present throughout all of life,allowing the construction of an estimate of phylogeny?

A)DNA in the nucleus

B)DNA in mitochondria

C)Messenger RNA

D)Ribosomal RNA

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Chapter 11: Unicellular Eukaryotes

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Q1) Which of the following is/are correct descriptions of unicellular eukaryote characteristics?

A)As primitive organisms,they are restricted to asexual reproduction.

B)No germ layers are ever formed.

C)They are all aquatic.

D)When found in other organisms,they are typically parasitic or pathogenic.

E)They all lack symmetry.

Q2) Which organelle was once an independent aerobic prokaryote engulfed by an anaerobic prokaryote?

A)nucleus

B)mitochondrion

C)plastid

D)ribosome

E)endoplasmic reticulum

Q3) The structure in a Euglena that functions to orient it to light is the _______________________ or eyespot.

Q4) Gametic nuclei arising by meiosis and forming a zygote within the same organism that produced them is a process called ___________.

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Chapter 12: Sponges and Placozoans

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Q1) Placozoans feed by

A)sharing food produced by symbiotic algae in their diffuse tissues.

B)gliding over their food,secreting enzymes,and absorbing products.

C)filtering food that moves through them in tiny pores.

D)taking food in through a ventral tube,digesting it,and expelling wastes back out the tube.

E)taking food in through a central tube,digesting it,and moving wastes out the anus.Placozoans lack organs,including digestive organs.They secrete digestive enzymes as they glide over their food.Products of digestion are absorbed by the ventral epithelium.

Q2) The unique feature of sponge development in members of the class Calcarea is the amphiblastula which

A)produces new buds.

B)generates gemmules.

C)determines the types of spicules produced.

D)turns inside out during its development.

E)controls the process of regeneration.The amphiblastula is a developmental stage in members of the class Calcarea.It is also present in a few members of the class Demospongia.

Q3) The water outlet in sponges is known as a/an __________________.

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Chapter 13: Cnidarians and Ctenophores

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Sample Questions

Q1) The class of radiate animals with the most conspicuous medusa stage is A)hydrozoa.

B)scyphozoa.

C)anthozoa.

D)ctenophora.

E)cubozoa.

Q2) The fossil record of Cnidaria is A)about the same as for other primitive animals,beginning in the Cambrian. B)relatively sparse since their bodies are so soft that they leave no skeleton to fossilize. C)one of the longest records,with fossils going back over 700 million years.

D)sporadic since the marine environment is not a good substrate to preserve fossils. E)very recent since most of them have symbiotic relationships with advanced animals such as clown fish.

Q3) A distinguishing characteristic of cubozoan medusae is the presence of flattened blades called ___________ at the base of the tentacles.

Q4) The mesoglea of scyphozoans has amoeboid cells and fibers and is called a

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Chapter 14: Acoelomorpha, Platyzoa, and Mesozoa

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Sample Questions

Q1) Rotifers that are "hunters" protect their hard jaws or _____ to seize prey.

A)Mastix

B)Trochal

C)Lorica

D)Trophi

Q2) Most monogeneans are external parasites of ____________.

Q3) Which of the following is not a class of the phylum Platyhelminthes?

A)Cestoda

B)Trematoda

C)Nemertea

D)Turbellaria

E)Monogenea

Q4) Ribbon worms do not regurgitate undigested wastes because their gut ends in an _____________.

Q5) Since flatworms and ribbon worms lack a coelom or a pseudocoel,they are termed _____________ animals.

Q6) Turbellarians have light-sensitive organs called _______________ or eyespots.

Q7) Taenia solium is a dangerous tapeworm because humans can serve as its ______________ host.

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Q8) Trematodes have a body covering known as a ______________.

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Chapter 15: Polyzoa and Kryptrochozoa

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Q1) The formation of the coelom in articulate brachiopods is by _____________ development.

Q2) Reproduction and development in ectoprocts involves A)hermaphrodites.

B)radial cleavage.

C)brooding of eggs inside the coelom or in special ovicells.

D)metamorphosis to the adult form.

E)All of the choices are correct

Q3) "Lamp shells" are not included in Mollusca because they

A)clearly do not resemble any mollusk.

B)lack a hard shell.

C)have a dorsal-ventral shell and gather food on tentacles.

D)lack a coelom.

E)have a fossil record that shows they are totally unrelated.

Q4) The coelom of a lophophorate is divided into

A)two parts: the anteriocoel and posteriocoel.

B)three parts: the protocoel,mesocoel,and metacoel.

C)four parts: the left and right supracoel and subcoel.

D)two parts: the basicoel and the exterocoel extending into the tentacles.

E)a interior hypocoel and a surrounding pericoel.

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Chapter 16: Molluscs

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Q1) Where would you locate the coelomic cavity when dissecting a mollusk such as a clam?

A)The coelom is between the mantle and the shell

B)The coelom is all of the area enclosed by the two shells and exposed when you open the shell

C)The cavity around the heart,the kidneys,and the lumen of the gonads forms the limited coelom

D)The cavities inside the siphon are the coelom

E)The coelom is the space inside small tubules that form the gills

Q2) The _________ is the oldest part of the shell and growth occurs in concentric rings around it.

Q3) Describe five features,morphological or developmental,that would most likely be found in the earliest ancestral mollusc.

Q4) Snails that lack gills are called "pulmonate" and their mantle cavity functions

A)for propulsion.

B)to produce pearls.

C)as a lung.

D)to store wastes.

E)All of the choices are correct functions

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Chapter 17: Annelids and Allied Taxa

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Q1) Many polychaetes are euryhaline meaning that they

A)can tolerate a wide range of salinity.

B)must live in marine conditions.

C)possess both male and female reproductive organs.

D)always live in tubes.

E)lack any circulatory system.

Q2) When earthworms mate,the _______________ secretes mucus to hold them together.

Q3) In leeches,a cocoon into which fertilized eggs will be deposited is secreted by the __________.

Q4) Conventional external fertilization involves both males and females extruding gametes into the environment where they fertilize separate from the parents;internal fertilization involves sperm being transferred to the female with fertilization inside the female.A leech utilizes

A)conventional external fertilization.

B)standard internal fertilization.

C)internal fertilization but by hypodermic impregnation that penetrates the integument.

D)no transfer of sperm at all but regenerates asexually.

E)None of the choices is correct.

Q5) The temporary food storage organ in the earthworm is the _________________.

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Chapter 18: Smaller Ecdysozoans

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Q1) Onychophorans are also known as ___________ or walking worms.

Q2) "If all the matter in the universe except the were swept away,our world would still be dimly recognizable,and if,as disembodied spirits,we could then investigate it,we should find its mountains,hills,vales,rivers,lakes,and oceans represented by a film of.The location of towns would be decipherable,since for every massing of human beings there would be a corresponding massing of certain.Trees would still stand in ghostly rows representing our streets and highways.The location of the various plants and animals would still be decipherable,and,had we sufficient knowledge,in many cases even their species could be determined by an examination of their erstwhile parasites." The missing term in this passage is A)flatworms. B)bacteria.

C)nematodes.

D)rotifers.

E)protozoans.

Q3) The _______________ are burrowing marine worms with a proboscis,trunk,and usually one or two caudal appendages.

Q4) The most common helminth parasite in the United States is the _________________.

Q5) Describe the life cycle of a Trichinella worm.

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Trilobites, Chelicerates, and Myriapods

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Q1) A male spider inseminates a female spider by

A)normal abdomen to abdomen mating.

B)external fertilization where a male spider dances a female over a spermatophore packet.

C)injecting sperm with his pedipalps and then rapidly retreating before being eaten.

D)transferring sperm via silk.

E)avoiding the dangerous female spider altogether and fertilizing the eggs after they are laid in an egg case.

Q2) The excretory system of insects and spiders works by

A)excreting wastes across the digestive system membrane.

B)active transport of just the waste molecules across the tubules.

C)transport of all ions and solutes across the tubule and retrieval of water and useful ions in the rectum.

D)excretion of only ions and wastes in the rectum.

E)packaging and sealing off toxic wastes until the organism dies.

Q3) Discuss the various functions of the exoskeleton.

Q4) During mating in spiders,the male inserts his ____________ into the genital opening of the female.

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Chapter 20: Crustaceans

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Q1) Based on a count of individual organisms,a species in the copepod genus Calanus is likely the most abundant animal in the world.What features do copepods possess and what environmental factors contribute to this record status?

Q2) How do the various pigments in the ommatidium work to provide images of variable field of vision or a continuous image in variable degrees of light and dark?

Q3) Explain why pentastomids were placed in Ecdysozoa.

Q4) In the parasitic barnacle order Rhizocephala,the larvae metamorphose into a _______ stage that injects cells into the hemocoel of the crab that grows into root-like processes throughout the crab body.

Q5) The procuticle of crustaceans is often impregnated with __________________.

Q6) Crustaceans and molluscs of course do have a common ancestor at some point.Draw a reasonable phylogeny that includes the molluscs,annelids and arthropods including the crustacea,and describe the distinguishing features on each branch.There are several legitimate phylogenies.

Q7) Describe the sequence of events that occur during molting and ecdysis in a crayfish and explain why a "soft craw" is vulnerable until it has hardened its shell.

Q8) How does the statocyst work to communicate position to the crayfish?

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Chapter 21: Hexapods

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Q1) The nervous system of an insect consists of

A)a brain where all ganglia extend out to communicate with each organ.

B)a minimal brain with neurosecretory functions and a nerve cord with ganglia extending down the dorsum.

C)a minimal brain with neurosecretory functions and a nerve cord with ganglia extending down the ventral surface.

D)no brain but coordination handled by ganglia in each segment and a nerve ladder for coordination.

E)None of the choices is correct.

Q2) In honeybees,the caste of sexually mature males are called ______________.

Q3) Insect legs are attached to the

A)head,thorax,and abdomen (one pair each).

B)thorax and abdomen (two pairs on the thorax and one on the abdomen).

C)thorax with one pair on the prothorax,mesothorax and metathorax.

D)thorax with all three pairs on the mesothorax.

E)thorax with two pairs on the mesothorax and one pair on the metathorax.

Q4) The respiratory system in insects consists of specialized air tubes called the ______________.

Q5) Each stage of an insect between molts is called a(n)_____________.

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Chapter 22: Chaetognaths, echinoderms, and Hemichordates

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Q1) A complex chewing apparatus found in many urchins is the _________

Q2) The larvae of echinoderms have ______________ symmetry.

Q3) The gill slits of enteropneust hemichordates function to A)house gills.

B)strain food out of the water on the mucus-coated gill slits.

C)allow water to exit after food has been gathered from the inflow.

D)orient the animal in the water.

E)excrete wastes.

Q4) The Class Enteropneusta are also known as __________________.

Q5) The pores leading to both the protocoel and paired coelomic cavities of the enteropneust hemichordates allow

A)fertilization of eggs by sperm.

B)exchange of fluids for a low efficiency respiratory system.

C)water to be drawn in to stiffen the chambers to aid in burrowing.

D)excretion of wastes.

E)movement of ions and water to keep an osmotic balance.

Q7) The early embryology of hemichordates is much like that of the Page 24

Q6) The basic five arms of crinoids are usually branched to form many more,each of which bears barblike ___________.

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Chapter 23: Chordates

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Q1) The closest model for the vertebrate ancestral stock is something similar to the _______ _______.

Q2) While several invertebrate groups (phyla)have in the past been proposed as chordate ancestors,embryological evidence indicates the chordates are most probably a sister group to the _____________.

Q3) In both tunicates and cephalochordates,the ventral side of the branchial sac contains a ciliated,mucus-secreting groove,the ____________.

Q4) The larva of the freshwater lamprey,that closely resembles the amphioxus lancelet,is the

A)Ammocoete.

B)Branchiostoma.

C)Cephalaspidomorph.

D)Heterostracan.

E)Ostracoderm.

Q5) Explain why fossil specimens of Haikouella lanceolata offer many clues to understanding the evolution of vertebrates from cephalochordates.

Q6) The earliest known vertebrate fossil,from the Burgess Shale of British Columbia,is an amphioxus-like creature called _______.

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Chapter 24: Fishes

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Q1) The ovoviviparous sharks are those that

A)lay eggs after external fertilization.

B)bear their young alive after retaining the eggs in the oviduct but with no further nourishment except from that of the yolk.

C)lay eggs after internal fertilization.

D)bear their young alive after external fertilization.

E)feed developing young a nutritious "uterine milk."

Q2) A representative of the ray-finned fish group,the chondrosteans,is the A)gar.

B)sturgeon.

C)coelacanth.

D)bowfin.

E)carp.

Q3) Discuss the vascularization of the gills of fish.Is this homologous or analogous to the vascularization of mammalian lungs?

Q4) How does a shark detect potential prey or distinguish it from floating non-living debris?

Q5) Why has the coelacanth apparently changed so little from its fossil ancestor of 70 million years ago?

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Chapter 25: Early Tetrapods and Modern Amphibians

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Q1) What is the process called in which the male frog grasps a female,in order to be present for external fertilization,called?

A)Amplexus

B)Neoteny

C)Coitus

D)Copulation

E)Paedomorphosis

Q2) Lungless salamanders lack lungs and breathe through their skin after they lose their gills.You would expect lungless salamanders to

A)prefer drier habitats.

B)be restricted to a smaller or thinner body design.

C)be larger than most salamanders.

D)prefer stagnant water.

E)None of the choices is correct.

Q3) Discuss the transition from an aquatic environment to a terrestrial environment.What are the structural and physiological features required for such a move?

Q4) Why have amphibians never become independent of water,or at least a moist environment,and in most cases have a fully aquatic stage?

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Chapter 26: Amniote Origins and Nonavian Reptiles

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Q1) Nonavian reptiles are different from amphibians in that reptiles possess which of the following?

A)A tough,scaly skin that provides protection against desiccation

B)Some form of copulatory organ permitting internal fertilization

C)A shelled egg that can be laid on dry land

D)More muscular jaws

E)All of the choices are nonavian reptilian characteristics.

Q2) Discuss the circulatory system (both pulmonary and systemic circuits)of crocodilians.Why should crocodilians,with 4-chambered hearts be classified with the nonavian reptiles? Do they share this feature with birds as a homology or a secondarily evolved condition (an analogy)?

Q3) The nonavian reptilian kidney is of the advanced ___________ type with their passageways (ureters)to the exterior.

Q4) Why should limbs be secondarily lost in so many lineages of nonavian reptiles?

Q5) Nonavian reptiles that lay shelled eggs with development occurring outside the mother's body are __________.

Q6) The dermal layer of the reptile skin contains color-bearing cells called

Q7) The synapsid lineage gave rise to present day ______.

Page 29

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Chapter 27: Birds

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Q1) The digestive system contributes to the success of birds as flying animals because

A)it is long.

B)the crop can store huge quantities of food.

C)it digests food quickly.

D)it is penetrated by air sacs.

E)it has a high sense of taste to reject toxic foods.

Q2) The photoreceptors in the retina that are more numerous in nocturnal birds are the __________.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a correct association of bird nervous system and function?

A)Dorsal ventricular ridge of cerebrum-integrates eating,singing,flying

B)Cerebellum-coordinates muscle-position,equilibrium,visual cues

C)Pecten-controls pecking and perching

D)Columella-transmits vibrations

E)Optic lobes-visual associations

Q4) Predatory,land-soaring birds have wing types that are referred to as ______________ wings.or

Q5) Give some examples of birds with high-lift wings.

Q6) Flying birds with keeled sternums are known as Neognathae or ___________.

Page 30

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Chapter 28: Mammals

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Q1) Discuss the recent fossil evidence on the origin of whales.What evidence suggests that they are the sister group to the hippopotamus?

Q2) How does a home range differ from a territory? What is the ecological significance of these two terms?

Q3) Discuss the importance of NOT over-harvesting wild stocks of animals.What might happen,especially if the world's predatory species decline precipitously because of over-harvesting?

Q4) Discuss a possible scenario of early mammal evolution that would have favored the evolution of hair and endothermy.

Q5) Explain the changes in morphology of the lower jaw,and its joint with the rest of the skull,that occurred during the evolution of mammals.

Q6) Discuss the significance of the evolution of heterodonty - the specialization of mammalian teeth.

Q7) With the evolution of a new jaw joint between the dentary and squamosal (temporal)bones in mammals,bones of the previous jaw joint,the articular and quadrate continued their gradual reduction in size and became relocated.Identify what these two bones became.

Q8) Which is missing from this list: incisors,molars,canines and ___________?

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Chapter 29: Support, Protection, and Movement

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Q1) Differentiate between calcification and sclerotization.In which groups of animals are these processes found?

Q2) What is the effect of body size on bone stress? Does it appear reasonable,as recent research claims,that Tyrannosaurus rex could not run because of this size and stress limitation? Explain your line of reasoning.

Q3) The difference(s)between a cilium and flagellum is(are)

A)their internal structure and rate of beat.

B)their internal and external structure.

C)their external structure only.

D)their size,number,and beating pattern.

E)their primary source of energy.

Q4) Which skeletal features comprise the axial skeleton? The appendicular skeleton? Why are these skeletal features separated into two distinct categories? Is there any difference in the way they are formed?

Q5) Define the following terms: keratin,keratinization,cornification,stratum corneum,dermis,epidermis.

Q6) In ectothermic vertebrates and crustaceans,pigments that provide color to animals are contained within large,branching cells called ___________________.

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Chapter 30: Homeostasis: Osmotic Regulation, Excretion, and Temperature Regulation

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Q1) Animals having a variable body temperature are said to be _____________.

Q2) The marine invertebrates,that have surfaces permeable to salts and water so that they are always in osmotic equilibrium with the seawater environment,are called A)osmotic regulators.

B)hyperosmotic.

C)hypoosmotic.

D)osmotic conformers.

E)stenohaline.

Q3) Based on what you know,is it likely that the larger dinosaurs were ectotherms or endotherms? Think of their entire lifestyle and how that might reflect their thermoregulatory strategies.

Q4) Why does the excretion of wastes present a special problem in water conservation?

Q5) Describe what is meant by an organism functioning in an integrated way to maintain a constant internal environment around a "setpoint."

Q6) Briefly describe the function and role of the following: aldosterone,renin,angiotensin,and antidiuretic hormone.

Q7) Freshwater animals tend to lose too much salt and gain too much ____________.

Page 33

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Chapter 31: Homeostasis: Internal Fluids and Respiration

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Q1) Interstitial fluid is constantly formed by A)the lymphatic system producing it.

B)lightweight elements in the blood plasma filtered through capillary walls.

C)absorption across the gut lining.

D)absorption across the lung surface.

E)reabsorption in the kidney tubules.

Q2) Outline the formation of red blood cells and white blood cells.Why have red blood cells (erythrocytes)lost the nucleus?

Q3) Compare and contrast the internal fluid components within a vertebrate organism.

Q4) If a person has a blood pressure of 110/60,the "110" refers to the A)diastolic pressure.

B)systolic pressure.

C)pulse pressure.

D)capillary pressure.

E)venous pressure.

Q5) The name of the instrument that we use to measure blood pressure is the ______________.

Q6) Discern between a myogenic and a neurogenic heart.What types of organisms possess each?

Q7) Outline the functions of the lymphatic system.

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Chapter 32: Digestion and Nutrition

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Q1) CCK is

A)a polypeptide hormone.

B)very similar to gastrin.

C)secreted by endocrine cells in the walls of the upper small intestine.

D)secreted in response to fatty acids and amino acids in the duodenum.

E)All of the choices are correct.

Q2) The pancreatic juice contains two powerful proteases,trypsin and ____________.

Q3) The main function of the esophagus is to

A)digest proteins.

B)digest carbohydrates.

C)transport food from the small intestine to the large intestine.

D)transport food from the mouth to the stomach.

E)transport food from the stomach to the large intestine.

Q4) List the hormones involved in the regulation of digestion.

Q5) Examples of a suspension feeder and a deposit feeder would be,respectively, A)clams and fish.

B)polychaete annelid and earthworms.

C)earthworms and rotifers.

D)basking sharks and rotifers.

E)earthworms and clams.

Page 35

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Chapter 33: Nervous Coordination: Nervous System and Sense Organs

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Q1) The organ of hearing in the inner ear of tetrapod vertebrates is the ______ ___

Q2) The most common neurotransmitter at synapses in the vertebrate nervous system is

Q3) Which statement about the conscious brain is NOT correct?

A)The conscious brain is contained within the cerebrum

B)The corpus callosum is the bridge that connects the two cerebral hemispheres

C)The cerebral cortex is composed of gray matter,with cell bodies and unmyelinated neurons

D)The limbic system is a center for mathematical ability and other non-emotional activities

E)Association areas of each lobe of the cerebrum receive information from other parts of the brain and integrate the information into higher levels of consciousness

Q4) The simplest pattern of invertebrate nervous system is the _____ _____ of cnidarians.

Q5) Several autonomic centers that regulate body temperature,water balance,appetite and thirst are located in the ____________.or

Page 36

Q6) What function does the sodium pump play in neural transmission?

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Chapter 34: Chemical Coordination: Endocrine System

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Q1) Outline the process of molting in an insect.Show how juvenile or adult features are reached strictly by the titer of specific hormones present.

Q2) Many hormones,upon arriving at a target cell,combine with a receptor site on the membrane to cause the release of an enzyme called the ______ ______.

Q3) What is the term for chemicals produced by cells to affect their own immediate region or local tissue factors?

A)Second messengers

B)Pheromones

C)Neurotransmitters

D)Kinase

E)Parahormones

Q4) Menstrual cramps are caused by overproduction of A)endorphins.

B)prolactin.

C)oxytocin.

D)prostaglandins.

E)vasotocin.

Q5) The most common invertebrate hormones are peptides and

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Chapter 35: Immunity

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Q1) Explain why hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis)is a problem if the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive,but not if the reverse is true.

Q2) An immune response against an invading organism or other tissue damage that involves mobilizing leukocytes from capillaries to the site of injury is called the ___________ response.

Q3) What type(s)of cell(s)conduct(s)phagocytosis?

A)Macrophages in lymph nodes

B)Kupffer cells in sinusoids

C)Microglial cells in the brain

D)Neutrophils

E)All of the choices are able to phagocytize

Q4) Rh incompatibility accounts for a peculiar and often fatal disease of the newborn called ___________________ __________.

Q5) One of the principal tests of the ability of invertebrate tissues to recognize nonself is grafting a tissue from another individual of the same species.This is called a(n)_________.

Q6) The ________________ recognize antigen on the surface of macrophages and activate B cells.

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Chapter 36: Animal Behavior

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Q1) Altruistic behaviors between closely related animals

A)force individuals to cooperate with one another and thereby increase population growth.

B)increase the frequency of the altruistic genes in the next generation.

C)reduce cooperation between species.

D)ensure the survival of the altruistic individual but not his close relatives.

E)all of the choices are correct.

Q2) The invariable,predictable,stereotyped behavior of animals that does not require learning is called ____________ behavior.

Q3) What properties of organisms,species,and ecosystems make the study of behavior so much more complex,than say,the study of a single reaction under controlled conditions in a test tube?

Q4) Honeybees communicate the location of food resources by two types of dances,the round dance and the ____________ dance.

Q5) The three ethologists who were awarded the Nobel Prize are von Frisch,Lorenz,and

Q6) Why do you suppose the concept of sociobiology,a subdiscipline founded on basic biological principles and comparative behavior,runs into such a public buzz saw of disapproval?

Page 39

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Chapter 37: Animal Distribution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Identify the significance of the following: lotic versus lentic;planktonic versus benthic.

Q2) Animals have become distributed around the earth by dispersal,continental drift,and ____________.

Q3) The terrestrial environments of the earth that are divided into large units based on their distinctive vegetation are called ____________.

Q4) Which is a correct description of the air circulation patterns of the earth?

A)Warm air rises at the equator and moves all the way to the poles where it cools and sinks

B)In the Northern Hemisphere,the surface air moving northeast from 30 to 60 degrees is moist and encounters cold air moving south to form a stormy region

C)Air evaporating at the equator is dry and therefore causes deserts when it sinks at 30 degrees north

D)The polar cells are cold and cause rainfall as they descend to the equator

E)The Coriolis effect deflects moving air to the left in the northern hemisphere

Q5) Water vapor and ________ ________ in the atmosphere absorb heat energy reradiated from the earth,leading to warming of atmospheric air.

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Chapter 38: Animal Ecology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss how ecosystems are based on energy transfer at different trophic levels.

Q2) What is the role of decomposers in the cycling of carbon? What would eventually occur if decomposers lost the ability to break down plant and fungal matter?

Q3) The sponge constitutes an animal that is

A)unitary due to cloning.

B)modular due to cloning.

C)a cohort due to cloning.

D)unitary due to fragmentation.

E)unitary due to age structure.

Q4) Identify the following terms: r,K,N.Why does the term (K-N)/K approach zero (no slope)as N approaches the value of K?

Q5) Natural populations are controlled by density-dependent and density-independent forces.What is an example of a density independent factor?

A)Adverse weather

B)Food supply

C)Supply of nest sites

D)Supply of mates

Q6) Does competition promote the process of speciation? Why or why not?

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