Invertebrate Zoology Exam
Questions
Course Introduction
Invertebrate Zoology explores the biology, diversity, and evolutionary relationships of animals without backbones, which constitute the vast majority of animal species on Earth. This course examines the anatomy, physiology, development, ecology, and behavior of major invertebrate groups, including sponges, cnidarians, mollusks, arthropods, echinoderms, and others. Emphasis is placed on understanding adaptations to different environments, the significance of invertebrates in ecosystems, and their evolutionary innovations. Laboratory experiences often complement lectures by providing hands-on observation and examination of representative specimens.
Recommended Textbook
Zoology 10th Edition by Stephen A Miller Dr
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Chapter 1: Zoology: an Evolutionary and Ecological Perspective
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Q1) Charles Darwin published convincing evidence of evolution in A)1524.
B)1703.
C)1859.
D)1921.
E)1963.
Answer: C
Q2) Ecology is the study of A)taxonomic relationships.
B)fossil organisms.
C)the development of organisms.
D)the worldwide distribution of organisms.
E)the interaction of organisms with each other and their environment.
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Cells, tissues, organs, and Organ Systems of Animals
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Q1) The fluid mosaic model of membrane structure was developed by A)Singer and Nicolson.
B)Garth and Richardson.
C)Schleiden and Schwann.
D)Singer and Schleiden.
E)Johnson and Garth.
Answer: A
Q2) Heart,lungs,and liver are examples of functional units called A)tissues.
B)organelles.
C)systems.
D)histological entities.
E)organs.
Answer: E
Q3) The basic function of neurons is to conduct a nerve impulse.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Cell Division and Inheritance
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Q1) During metaphase of mitosis
A)the mitotic apparatus is formed.
B)replicated chromatids align in the center of the cell.
C)chromosomes divide.
D)chromosomes replicate.
E)the spindle divides.
Answer: B
Q2) If a person with type AB blood has offspring with a person with type O blood,what blood types are possible in their children?
A)Types A, B, and AB only
B)Type A only
C)Type B only
D)Types A and B only
E)Types A, B, and O only
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Evolution: History and Evidence
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Q1) Studies in __________ record patterns of animal distribution and seek to understand them.
A)biogeography
B)distributional biology
C)ecology
D)geography of animals
E)paleontology
Q2) The eighteenth century comparative anatomist,__________,became convinced that change had occurred during the history of life on earth,but he thought that organisms degenerated from their previous state.
A)Baptiste
B)Cuvier
C)Buffon
D)Lamarck
E)Linnaeus
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Chapter 5: Evolution and Gene Frequencies
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Q1) Mutational equilibrium exists when
A)only neutral mutations are occurring.
B)only positive mutations are occurring.
C)only negative mutations are occurring.
D)mutations from wild-type to mutant are balanced by mutations from mutant to wild-type.
E)mutation pressure becomes higher than the influence of genetic drift.
Q2) The biological definition of a __________ is a group of populations in which genes are actually,or potentially,exchanged through inter-breeding.
A)species
B)cohort
C)cline
D)subspecies
E)community
Q3) One of the assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg theorem is that
A)the size of the population is small.
B)gene frequencies change by chance alone.
C)migration into and out of the population occurs regularly.
D)mating within the population is random.
E)mutations occur regularly.
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Chapter 6: Ecology: Preserving the Animal Kingdom
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Q1) Animals that are brightly colored to warn away potential predators are said to have A)camouflage coloration.
B)countershaded coloration.
C)aposematic coloration.
D)aestival coloration.
E)ecotonal coloration.
Q2) In many cases,predator and prey organisms evolve together and exert a strong selective influence on each other.This is known as A)transspecific evolution.
B)intraspecific evolution.
C)density independent evolution.
D)coevolution.
E)interevolution.
Q3) An interconnected system of food chains is called a/n A)food pyramid.
B)multiple trophic system.
C)layered system.
D)food web.
E)ecosystem.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Animal Taxonomy, phylogeny, and Organization
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Q1) In diploblastic organisms,the two tissue layers are
A)mesoderm and endoderm.
B)mesoderm and mesoglea.
C)ectoderm and mesoderm.
D)mesoglea and blastoderm.
E)ectoderm and endoderm.
Q2) Portions of the peritoneum and serosa that are continuous and suspend visceral structures in the body cavity are called A)epithelia.
B)mesenteries.
C)ectoderms.
D)endoderms.
E)peritoneal serosae.
Q3) The absence of a central point or axis around which an animal's body parts are equally distributed is called A)biradial symmetry.
B)asymmetry.
C)radial symmetry.
D)pentaradial symmetry.
E)spherical symmetry.
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Chapter 8: Animal-Like Protists: the Protozoa
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Q1) Contractile vacuoles in freshwater protozoans function to A)remove excess water.
B)remove the nitrogenous by-products of metabolism.
C)capture prey.
D)increase the efficiency of movement.
E)destroy infectious bacteria.
Q2) "Red-tides" are caused by A)radiolarians.
B)foraminiferans.
C)sporozoans.
D)volvicines.
E)dinoflagellates.
Q3) Many __________ are symbiotic in the digestive tracts of ruminant ungulates (hoofed mammals),and aid in digestion for their hosts.
A)euglenoids
B)trypanosomes
C)amoebae
D)sporozoans
E)ciliates
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Chapter 9: Multicellular and Tissue Levels of Organization
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Q1) The porocytes of ascon sponges lead to the outside via openings called A)spongocoels.
B)atriopores.
C)blastopores.
D)oscula.
E)ostia.
Q2) Members of the phylum Ctenophora are commonly called A)jellyfish.
B)comb jellies.
C)water bears.
D)ephyrae.
E)polyps.
Q3) The collar of a choanocyte
A)regulates the diameter of the osculum.
B)filters food from the water.
C)creates currents in the water.
D)regulates the diameter of the ostia.
E)secretes digestive enzymes.
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Chapter 10: The Smaller Lophotrochozoan Phyla
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Q1) The free-living flatworms are classified in the class
A)Cestoidea.
B)Turbellaria.
C)Trematoda.
D)Triclada.
E)Acoela.
Q2) Which one or more of the following statements accurately reflects our understanding of platyhelminth phylogeny? Select all that apply.
A) The taxonomic status of the entire phylum is in question.Molecular information is often interpreted to support the monophyly of the phylum as we know it,but morphological evidence for that conclusion is tentative at best.
B)The class Trematoda is probably paraphyletic.
C)Monogenea,Cestoidea,and Trematoda almost certainly comprise a monophyletic clade.
D) Turbellaria will probably be abandoned as a valid class designation because molecular studies suggest that it is paraphyletic.
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Chapter 11: Molluscan Success
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Q1) Neopilina represents the molluscan class __________,that was known only from fossils until 1952.
A)Monoplacophora
B)Aplacophora
C)Polyplacophora
D)Bivalvia
E)Gastropoda
Q2) The similarity of design between the eyes of vertebrates and the eyes of many cephalopods provides an excellent example of
A)divergent evolution.
B)convergent evolution.
C)perpendicular phylogeny.
D)adaptive radiation.
E)cladistic phylogeny.
Q3) Pigment cells of cephalopods are called
A)pinacocytes.
B)odontophores.
C)chromatophores.
D)erythrocytes.
E)nautilophores.
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Chapter 12: Annelida: the Metameric Body Form
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Q1) Reproductive patterns within the Errantia vary between taxa.Nereis and Glycera,however,do show features common to many errantians.All of the following are common to reproduction by both Nereis and Glycera except one.
A)Swarm based on lunar cycles.
B)Trochophore larval stage.
C)Epitoky is present in the life history.
D)Adults die after spawing.
E)Gametes released from the coelom through breaks in the body wall.
Q2) Leeches become __________ when searching for food.
A)negatively phototactic
B)negatively thigmotactic
C)negatively chemotactic
D)positively phototactic
E)positively thigmotactic
Q3) Recent evidence suggests that annelids share common ancestry with A)Mollusca.
B)Nematoda.
C)Chordata.
D)Echinodermata.
E)Kinorhyncha.
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Chapter 13: The Smaller Ecdysozoan Phyla
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Q1) Much of the success of nematodes is due to their A)hydrostatic skeleton.
B)well-developed circular and longitudinal muscles.
C)outer, noncellular, collagenous cuticle.
D)ciliated covering.
E)parthenogenetic reproduction.
Q2) Structures that function in chemoreception and are found at the anterior and posterior ends of nematodes are the A)spicules and lips.
B)bursa and the nucleus.
C)scalids and the placids.
D)zonites and the mastax.
E)amphids and the phasmids.
Q3) The spiny head of a loriciferan is called the A)introvert.
B)proboscis.
C)acanthor.
D)corona.
E)acanthocephala.
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Chapter 14: The Arthropods: Blueprint for Success
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Q1) The chelicerate opisthosoma
A)bears the pedipalps.
B)is the sensory tagma.
C)contains digestive organs.
D)bears chelicerae.
E)bears walking legs.
Q2) The tough,leathery polysaccharide in the arthropod procuticle is
A)lipoprotein.
B)calcium carbonate.
C)scleroprotein.
D)chitin.
E)glycogen.
Q3) Many spiders produce __________,that are used to trap small arthropods on which they feed.
A)sticky oral secretions
B)sandy pitfall traps
C)oral venoms
D)leaf traps
E)webs
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Chapter 15: The Pancrustacea: Crustacea and Hexapoda
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Q1) Most hymenopterans have a _____________________ sex determination system.
A)diploid
B)haploid
C)haplodiploid
D)diplohaploid
E)diplodiploid
Q2) Beetles have hardened,protective forewings called A)naiads.
B)rhabdomes.
C)ommatidia.
D)elytra.
E)halteres.
Q3) Insects in this order are characterized by having a single pair of wings on their mesothorax.
A)Coleoptera
B)Lepidoptera
C)Hymenoptera
D)Diptera
E)Odonata
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Chapter 16: Ambulacraria: Echinoderms and Hemichordates
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Q1) Attached crinoids are called
A)sea daisies.
B)sea lilies.
C)sea urchins.
D)basket stars.
E)feather stars.
Q2) The name Echinodermata translates as
A)spiny skin.
B)spiny skeleton.
C)spiny gut.
D)smooth skin.
E)smooth skeleton.
Q3) The major secretory and absorptive structures of the sea star digestive system are the
A)cardiac stomachs.
B)rectal ceca.
C)Polian vesicles.
D)pyloric ceca.
E)Tiedemann's bodies.
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Chapter 17: Chordata: Urochordata and Cephalochordata
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Q1) The ciliated groove that extends longitudinally along the midventral aspect of the pharynx in cephalochordates is the A)atrium.
B)midgut cecum.
C)cirrus.
D)endostyle.
E)myotome.
Q2) These animals are commonly used in introductory zoology courses because they possess all five chordate characteristics throughout their life.
A)sea squirts
B)appendicularians
C)salps
D)lancelet
E)acorn worms
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Chapter 18: The Fishes: Vertebrate Success in Water
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Q1) Fishes mostly regulate buoyancy by precisely regulating the volume of gas in the A)stomach.
B)gills.
C)body tissues.
D)pyloric cecum.
E)swim bladder.
Q2) The grouping "Osteichthyes" is considered to be A)monophyletic.
B)paraphyletic.
C)polyphyletic.
D)triphyletic.
E)biphyletic.
Q3) Some elasmobranchs and some bony fishes such as the tuna,maintain water flow over the gills by holding the mouth open.This is called __________ ventilation.
A)buccal
B)pneumatic
C)costal
D)active
E)ram
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Chapter 19: Amphibians: the First Terrestrial Vertebrates
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Q1) Vertebrates in the sarcopterygian lineage eventually became fully terrestrial.Three sets of changes in this lineage promoted life on land.Two of these occurred early in the Tetrapodomorpha and are found in all tetrapods.One of these occurred later within the reptiliomorph branch of the tetrapodomorph lineage.Which one of the following is unique to the reptiliomorph lineage?
A)Snap-and-grab feeding modifications of the jaw and jaw musculature
B)Amniotic egg
C)Skeletal modification promoted mobility on land
Q2) When in water amphibians
A)produce large quantities of ammonia.
B)produce minute quantities of hypertonic urine.
C)excrete large quantities of salt through the kidneys.
D)actively absorb large quantities of water through the skin.
E)produce large quantities of hypotonic urine.
Q3) In their feeding habits,most adult amphibians are
A)herbivores.
B)carnivores.
C)sanguinivores.
D)frugivores.
E)scavengers.
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Chapter 20: Reptiles: Diapsid Amniotes
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Q1) The synapsid lineage gave rise to A)turtles.
B)birds. C)snakes.
D)lizards.
E)mammals.
Q2) The common ancestor of mammals and reptiles had a(n)_________ skull.
A)synapsid
B)diapsid
C)amphiapsid
D)triapsid
E)anapsid
Q3) The __________ makes up the ventral portion of the turtle shell.
A)dorsum
B)plastron
C)sternum
D)carapace
E)scute
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Chapter 21: Birds: Reptiles by Another Name
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Q1) The occipital condyle is the point of articulation between the A)femur and the ilium.
B)radius and the carpus.
C)skull and first cervical vertebra.
D)caudal vertebra and the pygostyle.
E)wishbone and the sternum.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic shared by reptiles and birds?
A)single occiptal condyle
B)nucleated red blood cells
C)single ear ossicle
D)similar lower jaw structure
E)all of the above are characteristics shared by reptiles and birds
Q3) The most developed regions of the brain of birds,including the corpus striatum and the midbrain,reflect a bird's reliance on A)olfaction.
B)muscular coordination.
C)gustation.
D)hearing.
E)vision.
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Chapter 22: Mammals: Synapsid Amniotes
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Q1) Which of the following animals does not possess a cloaca?
A)lizard
B)snake
C)beaver
D)echidna
E)duck-billed platypus
Q2) Specialized guard hairs called __________ occur around the nose,eyes,and mouth of many mammals; these hairs are extremely sensitive to displacement.
A)vibrissae
B)arrector pili
C)pelage
D)cirri
E)flagella
Q3) The __________ are the "pouched" mammals.
A)monotremes
B)marsupials
C)ungulates
D)true placental mammals
E)edentates
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Chapter 23: Protection, support, and Movement
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Q1) A(n)__________ is composed of a core of liquid surrounded by a tension-resistant sheath containing muscles.
A)bony skeleton
B)cartilaginous skeleton
C)hydrostatic skeleton
D)endoskeleton
E)exoskeleton
Q2) What replaces the notochord in most vertebrates?
A)nothing
B)the dorsal nerve cord
C)a solid rod of calcium
D)thickened skin
E)vertebrae
Q3) The filaments of vertebrate skeletal muscle that myosin binds to are A)actin.
B)myoglobin.
C)troponin.
D)tropomyosin.
E)dynine.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Communication I: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Q1) The largest part of the human brain is the A)hypothalamus.
B)pituitary.
C)cerebrum.
D)medulla oblongata.
E)pons.
Q2) Sea-sickness or motion-sickness results from
A)over stimulation of the tympanum.
B)continuous movement of the fluid of the semicircular canals.
C)plugging of the Eustachian tube.
D)damage to the auditory nerve.
E)a rupture of the oval window.
Q3) The moist,mucous membrane that covers the eyeball is the A)retina.
B)sclera.
C)conjunctiva.
D)cornea.
E)vitreous body.
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Chapter 25: Communication II: the Endocrine System and Chemical Messengers
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Q1) A hormone called __________ increases metabolic rate to help maintain homeostasis.
A)TS
B)thyrotropin
C)TR
D)hypothalamine
E)thyroxine
Q2) The __________ gland is located in the neck,anterior to the trachea.
A)pituitary
B)thyroid
C)adrenal
D)pancreas
E)pineal
Q3) Mammary,salivary,and sweat glands are all examples of __________ glands.
A)exocrine
B)ductless
C)medullary
D)cortical
E)endocrine
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Chapter 26: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) The fluid in insects that is analogous to blood is called A)paralymph.
B)teralymph.
C)somatolymph.
D)hemolymph.
E)gastrolymph.
Q2) From an evolutionary perspective,the occurrence of respiratory pigments among various taxa has many phylogenetic explanations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The least numerous of the white blood cells are the A)monocytes.
B)eosinophils.
C)neutrophils.
D)lymphocytes.
E)basophils.
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) A complete digestive tract first appeared in this type of animal.
A)flatworm
B)roundworm
C)earthworm
D)sea anemone
E)jellyfish
Q2) Animals that "chew their cud" feed on materials that have a high __________ content.
A)cellulose
B)protein
C)lipid
D)iron
E)water
Q3) Digestion in molluscs consists of three cycles: feeding,extracellular digestion,and intracellular digestion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Temperature and Body Fluid Regulation
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Q1) The _______________ is an example of a mammal that is not an endotherm.
A)ground squirrel
B)California sea otter
C)snowshoe hare
D)naked mole rat
E)African elephant
Q2) Sharks use the substances urea and __________ to raise the osmotic pressure of their blood.
A)trimethylamine oxide (TMO)
B)uric acid (UA)
C)potassium
D)sodium
E)guanine (G)
Q3) Which of the following would NOT be a way for a freshwater teleost fish to maintain osmotic balance?
A)excrete ions through the gill epithelium
B)drink scanty amounts of water
C)produce large amounts of very dilute urine
D)have the body covered by a layer of mucus
E)absorb salts through the gill epithelium
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Chapter 29: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) A cnidarian colony adds to individuals by A)binary fission.
B)longitudinal fission.
C)multiple fission.
D)fragmentation.
E)budding.
Q2) The hormone __________ is typically used in a pregnancy test.
A)hCG
B)progesterone
C)LH
D)FSH
E)oxytocin
Q3) The release of hCG from the embryo and placenta keeps the _____________ from disintegrating.
A)morula
B)corpus luteum
C)blastula
D)gastrula
E)corona radiata
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