Introductory Psychology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Introductory Psychology provides a comprehensive overview of the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. This course explores major psychological concepts, theories, and research findings that explain how humans think, feel, and act. Topics include biological foundations of behavior, sensation and perception, learning, memory, development, motivation, emotion, personality, psychological disorders, and social interactions. The course emphasizes critical thinking and the application of psychological principles to everyday life, providing students with a solid foundation for further study in psychology or related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology Themes and Variations 3rd Canadian by Dr. Wayne Weiten
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35 Chapters
5874 Verified Questions
5874 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: A: The Evolution of Psychology
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233 Verified Questions
233 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Likely what kind of psychologist is someone whose major interest focuses on how behaviour changes as a function of age?
A)social psychologist
B)cognitive psychologist
C)developmental psychologist
D)physiological psychologist
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following was an early approach in psychology that fostered the development of modern-day applied psychology?
A)behaviourism
B)functionalism
C)pragmatism
D)structuralism
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 1: B: The Evolution of Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which school of psychology developed in the 1950s?
A)psychoanalysis
B)behaviourism
C)functionalism
D)humanism
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following reflects psychology's view of behaviour?
A)It has an objective cause.
B)It has a single cause.
C)It has subjective causes.
D)It has multiple causes.
Answer: D
Q3) What percentage of Canadian psychologists work in colleges and universities?
A)10 percent
B)30 percent
C)50 percent
D)70 percent
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 2: A: The Research Enterprise in Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Braeden received a poor performance evaluation in his job last year. Since then Braeden has started working through his lunch hour, taken on four special projects, and enrolled in night classes to upgrade his computer skills. Why will it be hard for Braeden to figure out the cause if he receives a better evaluation at his next performance?
A)He failed to use a double-blind procedure to test his hypothesis.
B)None of the actions he took are likely to be related to his overall job performance.
C)The three actions he took are confounded with each other.
D)He didn't formulate a research hypothesis before implementing the changes.
Answer: C
Q2) Design a simple experiment to investigate the effects of television violence on children's aggressive behaviour, being sure to identify the independent and dependent variables, and the experimental and control groups.
Answer: There are numerous possible experimental designs. Make sure there is an explicit, testable hypothesis; that "television violence" and "aggressive behaviour" are operationally defined; that children are randomly assigned to groups; that the control group is exposed to nonviolent television rather than to no television at all.
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Chapter 2: B: The Research Enterprise in Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In terms of the scientific method, what are variables?
A)factors that change unpredictably within a study
B)measures of variability within a study
C)measurable items that are controlled or observed in a study
D)factors that are affected by experimental manipulation
Q2) What is the primary reason that descriptive and correlational research cannot determine conclusively that variables have a cause-and-effect relationship?
A)The researcher observes behaviour under artificial situations.
B)The data collected frequently comes from direct observations or statements made by subjects.
C)Only an experimental group is used.
D)The researcher cannot control events or manipulate variables.
Q3) Theresa has conducted research on the effects listening to music has on study retention. In this case, what is 'listening to music'?
A)extraneous variable
B)dependent variable
C)independent variable
D)controlled variable
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Chapter 3: A:The Biological Bases of Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Featured Study that examined the areas of the brain that are active during certain cognitive tasks, it was determined that the left and right prefrontal cortex is active during different types of tasks. Which portion is active during which type of task?
A)The left is active during syllable tasks while the right is active during semantic tasks.
B)The left is active during semantic tasks while the right is active during syllable tasks.
C)The left is active during any sort of semantic task while the right is active during self-referring semantic tasks.
D)The left is active during self-referring semantic tasks, while the right is active during all other semantic tasks.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT belong with the others?
A)stereotaxic instrument
B)computerized tomography scan
C)electroencephalograph
D)neuromodulator
Q3) Compare and contrast the nervous system and the endocrine system.
Q4) Compare and contrast lesioning and electrical stimulation of the brain.
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Page 7
Chapter 3: B: The Biological Bases of Behaviour
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134 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of a neuron after it fires an action potential?
A)It cannot fire another action potential until at least five minutes have elapsed.
B)It can continue firing the original action potential for an extended period of time.
C)It can immediately fire additional action potentials.
D)It cannot immediately fire another action potential.
Q2) What do neurons do?
A)receive, integrate, and transmit information
B)provide support for the other cells in the nervous system
C)insulate the other cells in the nervous system
D)connect the other cells in the nervous system
Q3) With the exception of eggs and sperm, how many chromosomes are contained in each cell in the human body?
A)46
B)23
C)21
D)18
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Chapter 4: A: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lights around the movie marquee flashed on and off in succession. However, Jerome did not perceive them as separate lights flashing, but instead saw a continuous band of light moving around the edge of the marquee. What is this type of perception known as?
A)phi phenomenon
B)preattentive processing
C)feature detection
D)bottom-up processing
Q2) After reading the Featured Study, in which of the following might you enroll your child if you wanted to enhance your child's ability to interpret speech prosody?
A)team sport rather than an individual sport
B)linguistics course
C)singing lessons
D)drama or keyboard lessons
Q3) What is the structure of the ear that conducts sound waves to the middle ear?
A)auditory lineal
B)auditory canal
C)auditory tract
D)auditory conduction tube
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Chapter 4: B: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immediately after you get this exam back from your psychology professor, you want to know what the highest, lowest, and average grades were on the exam so that you can determine whether your grade was "OK." What is the term for the information you're asking for?
A)comparitors
B)relativity
C)contrast effects
D)correlations
Q2) What is perception?
A)subjectivity of emotional experience
B)selection, organization, and interpretation of sensory input
C)the study of how physical stimuli are translated into psychological experience
D)stimulation of the sense organs
Q3) At the level of the retina and brain, which colour vision theory is supported?
A)opponent process theory at the retina, but trichromatic theory in the brain
B)trichromatic theory
C)trichromatic theory at the retina, but opponent process theory in the brain
D)opponent process theory
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Chapter 5: A: Variations in Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following brain structures appears to be most important to sleep and wakefulness?
A)cerebellum
B)hippocampus
C)corpus callosum
D)reticular formation
Q2) Which group made the most accurate decisions according to the Featured Study that looked at decision-making using conscious or unconscious thought?
A)the group that made a decision after completing a complex distraction task
B)the group that made a decision after a brief period of meditation
C)the group that was forced to make a decision immediately after seeing the options
D)the group that made a decision after being told to consciously weigh the costs and benefits of each option.
Q3) What is the relationship between attention and consciousness?
A)You may attend to something, or you may be conscious of it, but not both.
B)You will be conscious only of things that you attend to.
C)They may coexist, but you can have either one without the other.
D)You can attend only to things that you are conscious of.
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11
Chapter 5: B: Variations in Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of the relationship between culture and dreaming?
A)People across cultures vary in the proportion of sleep time they spend dreaming.
B)Cultures are very similar in the significance they place on dreaming.
C)People across cultures vary in the total amount of sleep time they spend dreaming.
D)Cultures vary in the significance they place on dreaming.
Q2) What did Sigmund Freud theorize about dreams?
A)They reflect reality.
B)They provide a practical approach to problem solving.
C)They provide a window to the conscious mind.
D)They reflect wish fulfillment.
Q3) Which of the following reflects demographics associated with insomnia?
A)Younger individuals and women are more likely to have insomnia.
B)Older individuals and women are more likely to have insomnia.
C)Older individuals and men are more likely to have insomnia.
D)Older individuals are more likely to have insomnia, but there is no sex difference.
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12
Chapter 6: A: Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are mirror neurons?
A)neurons activated by performing an action, or observing that action performed
B)neurons associated with self-recognition
C)neurons in the temporal lobes of chimps that are identical to those found in humans
D)neurons in the left hemisphere that are active when the corresponding area of the right hemisphere is inhibited
Q2) What is the distinction between primary reinforcers and secondary reinforcers?
A)Primary reinforcers are internal, while secondary reinforcers come from the environment.
B)Primary reinforcers are associated with classical conditioning while secondary reinforcers are associated with operant conditioning.
C)Primary reinforcers are used first, while secondary reinforcers are used if primary reinforcers are not effective.
D)Primary reinforcers satisfy biological needs while secondary reinforcers depend on learning.
Q3) Briefly describe observational learning, and explain how it relates to classical and operant conditioning.
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Chapter 6: B: Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the key factor in interval schedules when describing schedules of reinforcement?
A)elapsed time
B)number of reinforcements given
C)length of the training period
D)number of responses given
Q2) In which reinforcement schedule is a reinforcement given for the first response after an unpredictable amount of time has elapsed?
A)fixed interval
B)variable ratio
C)fixed ratio
D)variable interval
Q3) A rat in a Skinner Box learns that a red light comes on just before a shock is presented. What is a rat demonstrating if it learns to bar-press when the light comes on, in order to prevent a shock from happening?
A)escape learning
B)avoidance learning
C)positive punishment
D)positive reinforcement
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Page 14
Chapter 7: A: Human Memory
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236 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Karina is given a list of words to memorize, and she forms a mental image of each word on the list. Calvin is given the same list of words, and he thinks of words that rhyme with each of the words on the list. What should you expect on a memory test, based on the research that has focused on the process of encoding?
A)Calvin will recall more words than Karina.
B)Both Karina and Calvin will recall the same number of words.
C)Karina is more likely to make "look-alike" errors in recall.
D)Karina will recall more words than Calvin.
Q2) Which type of memory is stored for the shortest period of time?
A)working
B)sensory
C)short-term
D)long-term
Q3) Without rehearsal, what is the duration of short-term memory?
A)no longer than 1 second
B)about 20 seconds
C)5-10 minutes
D)no more than 3 hours
Q4) Outline some strategies that can be used to improve everyday memory.
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Chapter 7: B: Human Memory
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132 Verified Questions
132 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you are planning to spend six hours studying for your final exam in psychology, which of the following would be the best strategy?
A)Have one uninterrupted six-hour study session the day before the exam.
B)Have two three-hour study sessions with one session the day before the exam and the other right before the exam.
C)Have three two-hour study sessions with one session per day starting three days before the exam.
D)Have three two-hour study sessions all on the day before the exam.
Q2) What is the specific term for the memory process that allows you to recite a poem that you have previously memorized?
A)retrieval
B)remembering
C)storage
D)encoding
Q3) What is the first memory process that involves getting information into memory?
A)retrieval
B)memorization
C)encoding
D)storage
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Page 16
Chapter 8: A: Language and Thought
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sentence, "The nervous the stared thick at exam student" would be virtually impossible for an English speaker to understand. Which type of rule is being violated?
A)syntax
B)psycholinguistics
C)heuristic
D)denotation
Q2) A sales representative from an investment company is trying to convince a young couple to invest in one of the company's mutual funds. Which of the following will most increase his likelihood of success, based on the framing effect?
A)He leaves a detailed prospectus containing a lot of statistical analyses.
B)He stresses that the fund has lost money in only 3 of the past 15 years.
C)He stresses that the fund has had solid returns in 12 of the past 15 years.
D)He mentions the names of other people who have invested in the fund.
Q3) What is the denotation of a word?
A)a complex interaction between the word's phonology and syntax
B)its dictionary definition
C)its emotional overtones and secondary implications
D)the separate sounds that make up the word
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Chapter 8: B: Language and Thought
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your Dad has a problem; what to get your Mom for her birthday. He mentally reviews her reaction to presents he has given her in the past (an iron, a toaster, an ice cream maker). If he decides to get her a cappuccino machine because she seemed to like a "luxury" appliance like the ice cream maker more than the "routine" or necessary appliances like the toaster, your Dad would be making use of which approach to problem solving?
A)trial and error
B)forming subgoals
C)changing the representation of the problem
D)searching for analogies
Q2) If you estimate the probability of an event based on how similar it is to the prototype of that event, which heuristic are you using?
A)gambler's heuristic
B)representativeness heuristic
C)availability heuristic
D)conjunction heuristic
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Chapter 9: A: Intelligence and Psychological Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding the findings from adoption studies and IQ is least accurate?
A)Adopted children show some resemblance to their foster parents in IQ.
B)Siblings reared together are more similar in IQ than siblings reared apart.
C)Entirely unrelated children who are raised in the same home have no similarities in IQ.
D)Research with adopted children provides useful evidence about the impact of experience as well as heredity.
Q2) What must be developed in order for a psychological test to tell you how you score relative to other people?
A)scales
B)norms
C)levels
D)scores
Q3) What is an individual's percentile score?
A)percentage of people who score below the mean on a standardized test
B)percentage of people who score between the mean and his or her score
C)percentage of people who score above his or her score
D)percentage of people who score at or below his or her score
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Chapter 9: B: Intelligence and Psychological Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the largest category of intellectual disability?
A)severe
B)moderate
C)profound
D)mild
Q2) Tara thinks of herself as easy-going and calm, but she often gets very irritable around exam time. She claims that other people become more annoying at those times, rather than recognizing that she might not handle small problems very well when she is under stress. Which type of intelligence does Tara seem to be lacking?
A)emotional intelligence
B)analytical intelligence
C)interpersonal intelligence
D)practical intelligence
Q3) Which child is likely to be admitted to a school gifted program?
A)Alfred, who has very high scores on aptitude tests for creativity and field-independence
B)Louis, who has an IQ score of 135
C)James, who has an IQ score that is one standard deviation above the mean
D)David, who demonstrates exceptional grades in school
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Page 20
Chapter 10: A: Motivation and Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding the influence of stress on eating behaviour is least accurate?
A)Stress leads to increased eating in a substantial portion of people.
B)Stress-induced eating appears to be more common among men than among women.
C)It appears to be stress-induced arousal rather than stress itself that stimulates eating.
D)It is essentially a myth that stress is associated with increased eating.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an emotion that is easily identified from facial cues in photographs, according to research by Paul Ekman and Wallace Friesen?
A)anger
B)happiness
C)contentment
D)fear
Q3) What term describes a person who seeks emotional-sexual relationships with members of the other sex?
A)homosexual
B)bisexual
C)monogamous
D)heterosexual
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Page 21
Chapter 10: B: Motivation and Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maggie was cleaning the basement one day and found a stack of pornographic magazines that were likely left there by her teen-aged son. If Maggie asks you for evidence about the negative effects of pornography on behaviour, what would be the most appropriate response?
A)Viewing pornography on a regular basis increases the likelihood that men will commit or endorse sexual offenses.
B)Viewing pornography on a regular basis is associated with poorer relationship quality and self-image.
C)There is no reliable evidence that pornography affects sexual behaviour.
D)There is evidence that pornography influences behaviour, but non-violent pornography has no clear negative effects.
Q2) Which emotion would people from different countries be least likely to agree on, when trying to identify emotions in photographs?
A)disgust
B)sadness
C)surprise
D)disappointment
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22
Chapter 11: A: Human Development Across the Life Span
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Q1) What cognitive stage would Piaget suggest that Brian has achieved, based on his ability to systematically evaluate and plan the driving route?
A)sensorimotor
B)preoperational
C)formal operational
D)concrete operational
Q2) Which of the following is a simple way of describing the proximodistal trend in the motor development of children?
A)a side-to-side direction
B)an outward-inward direction
C)a head-to-foot direction
D)a centre-outward direction
Q3) What is the term for the inability of a child to mentally "undo" something?
A)assimilation
B)irreversibility
C)egocentrism
D)object permanence
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Chapter 11: B: Human Development Across the Life Span
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Q1) Which of the following is true of most prenatal dangers to the developing fetus?
A)They are related to maternal nutrition.
B)They are a problem only in developing countries.
C)They are preventable.
D)They are related to exposure to toxins.
Q2) Sophia is very worried about development of her daughter, especially with regard to major changes like rolling over, sitting up, and walking. Sophia has been given a list by her pediatrician indicating the median age at which children typically exhibit such abilities. Sophia's daughter typically exhibits the various abilities approximately one month after the ages noted on the list. What should Sophia's pediatrician tell her about her concerns?
A)Her daughter is still developing at a rate that is within the range of normal.
B)Her daughter may have some developmental disabilities.
C)Her daughter may be slightly delayed, but so long as she develops each of the skills, it doesn't matter if she matures a bit late.
D)Her daughter is perfectly normal, because the milestones are estimated for males.
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Chapter 12: A: Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Graham lost a lot of money on some bad investments in the stock market. Consequently he had to trade his expensive luxury car for a smaller, more economical car. He has been telling all his coworkers that he made the switch to do his part to stop pollution. Which defence mechanism is Graham using, according to Freud?
A)projection
B)rationalization
C)reaction formation
D)identification
Q2) Beatrix is planning a research study for her doctoral dissertation. As part of the study, she wants to measure normal aspects of personality in each of the participants using a measure that is objective and precise. What would be the best measure for Beatrix to use?
A)Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
B)NEO Personality Inventory
C)Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
D)Rorschach test
Q3) Discuss ways in which each of the major perspectives on personality has influenced some aspect of everyday life in modern society.
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Chapter 12: B: Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment
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Q1) Sandra is an easygoing person who is very mature and responsible in many aspects of her life, but also very lighthearted and silly at times. She thinks very rationally when making some decisions, and makes other decisions based on her 'gut feelings'.
According to Maslow, which of the following terms applies to Sandra's personality?
A)healthy
B)discrepant
C)incongruous
D)self-actualized
Q2) Jennifer has a lot of anger that she doesn't express. Instead, she focuses her energy on keeping her house very clean and organized. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate?
A)reaction formation
B)sublimation
C)displacement
D)repression
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26
Chapter 13: A: Stress, Coping, and Health
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Q1) Which type of conflict tends to result in behavioural vacillation?
A)avoidance-avoidance
B)approach-avoidance
C)approach-approach
D)no-win
Q2) As Karen goes through a difficult family problem, she maintains a cheerful attitude most of the time. Which of the following is likely to be a consequence of Karen's emotional state according to the broaden-and-build theory?
A)It will be easier for her to walk away from the problem if necessary.
B)She will be better able to solve problems as they arise.
C)She is prevented from properly dealing with the stress.
D)It will be more difficult for her to cope if the outcome is negative.
Q3) In general, what is the least stressful conflict?
A)avoidance-avoidance
B)double approach-avoidance
C)approach-approach
D)approach-avoidance
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Chapter 13: B: Stress, Coping, and Health
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Q1) Which situation illustrates typical effects of cumulative hassles?
A)A soldier develops PTSD after being involved in combat.
B)A teenager won't go to school because of constant bullying.
C)A man takes a leave of absence from work to undergo treatment for a chronic illness.
D)A woman becomes irritable and unproductive because of constant interruptions at work.
Q2) When a person's pursuit of a goal is blocked or thwarted, what does the person experience?
A)frustration
B)pressure
C)conflict
D)change
Q3) What is the personality "type" of a person who is very competitive, impatient, is quick to anger and exhibits hostility?
A)Type Y
B)Type A
C)Type B
D)Type X
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Chapter 14: A: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Fiona has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. What should you expect to find in Fiona's medical record, based on the physical symptoms listed in your text?
A)amenorrhea and low blood pressure
B)cardiac arrhythmias and osteoporosis
C)dental problems and cardiac arrhythmias
D)dental problems and elevated blood pressure
Q2) Which disorder is most consistent with Angela's symptoms?
A)obsessive-compulsive disorder
B)bipolar disorder
C)generalized anxiety disorder
D)delusional disorder
Q3) Paxton comes from a home where discipline was erratic, and he was physically abused by his parents. His parents were also self-centered and exploitive. Based on research, which of the following disorders is Paxton at increased risk of developing due to this home environment?
A)paranoid schizophrenia
B)one of the somatoform disorders
C)antisocial personality disorder
D)bipolar disorder
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Page 29
Chapter 14: B: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) When Gaelen was tested using a personality inventory, his scores for narcissism were in the 95 percentile. Which criteria for diagnosis of psychological disorders would Gaelen meet?
A)cognitive confusion
B)deviance
C)personal distress
D)maladaptive behaviour
Q2) Alexis and Alexander are fraternal twins. Boris and Bjorn are identical twins. Alexis and Boris have been diagnosed with schizophrenia. What is the likelihood that Alexander or Bjorn will be diagnosed with schizophrenia as well?
A)Alexander and Bjorn are both likely to be diagnosed with schizophrenia, and their risks are roughly equivalent.
B)Alexander is more likely than Bjorn to be diagnosed with schizophrenia.
C)Bjorn is more likely than Alexander to be diagnosed with schizophrenia.
D)Neither Alexander nor Bjorn is likely to be diagnosed with schizophrenia.
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Chapter 15: A: Treatment of Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Kayla has a psychological disorder, and her doctor has prescribed an MAO inhibitor to reduce the severity of Kayla's symptoms. What is Kayle being treated for?
A)schizophrenia
B)anxiety disorder
C)bipolar disorder
D)depression
Q2) Which of the following academic degrees is NOT associated with being a psychologist?
A)Ph.D.
B)Ed.D.
C)M.D.
D)Psy.D.
Q3) According to Rogers, when does personal distress occur?
A)when a person engages in negative thinking
B)when there is incongruence between a person's self-concept and reality
C)when unconscious conflicts threaten to rise to the surface of conscious awareness
D)when a person is lacking in self-control
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Chapter 15: B: Treatment of Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Which techniques are primarily employed in social skills training?
A)cognitive therapy and modelling
B)modelling, behavioural rehearsal, and shaping
C)relaxation training and shaping
D)classical and operant conditioning
Q2) Of the following factors, which one factor tends to have the largest effect on the effectiveness of therapy?
A)The therapist is in private practice.
B)The client is in individual therapy.
C)The therapist practises client-centred therapy or psychoanalysis.
D)The client likes the therapist.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a behaviour therapy?
A)systematic desensitization
B)social skills training
C)extinction therapy
D)aversion therapy
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Chapter 16: A: Social Behaviour
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Q1) Celine just heard that her neighbour, Rodney, was involved in an automobile accident. If Celine concludes that Rodney's children distracted him for a few seconds, and that was the reason for the accident, what has she done?
A)made the fundamental attribution error
B)made an external attribution
C)been influenced by an illusory correlation
D)made an internal attribution
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered one of the basic elements of the persuasion process?
A)source
B)receiver
C)intensity
D)channel
Q3) In which type of culture is marriage more likely to be arranged by families and other go-betweens?
A)heavily industrialized
B)self-monitoring
C)collectivist
D)individualistic
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Page 33
Chapter 16: B: Social Behaviour
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Q1) Which of the following is a factor that enhances social loafing?
A)if the group is cohesive
B)if individuals believe that excellent group performance will lead to a valued outcome
C)if the group is large
D)if individuals believe that individual performance is crucial to group performance
Q2) Nicole tends to attribute her friends' behaviour to their personalities, rather than to the situations that they are in. What type of error does Nicole tend to make?
A)the fundamental attribution error
B)the self-effacing error
C)the signal detection error
D)the self-serving error
Q3) Which of the following was experienced by the "typical" subject in Milgram's shock study?
A)considerable psychological distress
B)confusion about the nature of the instructions
C)intense physical pain
D)cognitive dissonance
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Chapter 17: Appendix B: Statistical Methods
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Q1) In gym class, everyone was tested to determine how many sit-ups they could do in one minute. Ming's performance was at the 61st percentile. Which of the following is true?
A)Ming did fewer sit-ups than 61 percent of the students in the class.
B)Ming did 61 sit-ups.
C)Ming was one standard deviation above the mean.
D)Ming did more sit-ups than 61 percent of the students in the class.
Q2) The relationship between variable X and variable Y is such that high scores on variable X are generally associated with high scores on variable Y and low scores on variable X are generally associated with low scores on variable Y. What would be found if the correlation coefficient is calculated?
A)a strong correlation
B)a positive correlation
C)a weak correlation
D)a negative correlation
Q3) What is a frequency polygon?
A)a line figure that presents data from a frequency distribution
B)a graph that represents a symmetrical or bell-shaped curve
C)a graph in which paired scores for each subject are plotted as single points
D)a bar graph that presents data from a frequency distribution
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Page 35
Chapter 18: Appendix C: Industrialorganizational Psychology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the five major changes in modern society that have affected personnel selection?
A)rapid technological change, including changes in communication technology
B)globalization of most large corporations
C)increase in the use of teams to accomplish work
D)shifting from a service orientation to a manufacturing orientation
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a key feature of organizational culture?
A)Culture develops through the need to maintain effective working relationships with employees.
B)An organization's culture can be traced to its founders.
C)Culture often develops out of an organization's experience with the external environment.
D)Organizations rely on teams rather than individuals to conduct daily affairs.
Q3) Which type of discrimination is legal, according to Canadian law?
A)education
B)sex
C)religion
D)race
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Chapter 19: Appendix D: Evaluating the Quality of
Web-Based Resources
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Q1) How should you approach materials presented on the Internet by professional advocacy groups?
A)Advocacy groups usually present only one side of an argument, and may be biased even if they contain useful information for one side of the argument.
B)They are best for information about legal items, but don't necessarily include accurate health or disease-related information.
C)If they're professional groups, then they are more reliable.
D)Advocacy groups tend to publish propaganda, and are known for distributing intentionally misleading information about their causes.
Q2) What is the role of sites such as The Argus Clearinghouse?
A)They scan websites for evidence of plagiarism and duplication.
B)They contain links to all educational sites in North America.
C)They are main sites for coordinating all research on a single topic.
D)They provide an estimate of quality for Internet-based information sites.
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