Introductory Physics Exam
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Course Introduction
Introductory Physics is designed to provide students with a foundational understanding of the core principles governing the physical world. The course covers major topics such as motion, forces, energy, momentum, waves, sound, electricity, and magnetism. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving skills, utilizing mathematical concepts, and applying theoretical knowledge to real-life situations through laboratory experiments and demonstrations. This course serves as a critical stepping stone for students pursuing further studies in science, engineering, or related fields, fostering scientific literacy and analytical thinking.
Recommended Textbook College Physics Strategic Approach with Mastering Physics 2nd Edition by Randall D. Knight
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Representing Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a reasonable estimate of the number of characters (typed letters or numbers) in a 609 page book? Assume an average of 194 words/page and a reasonable average number of letters/word.
A) 5 × 10<sup>5</sup> char
B) 5 × 10<sup>7</sup> char
C) 5 × 10<sup>6</sup> char
D) 5 × 10<sup>4</sup> char
Answer: A
Q2) A weight lifter can bench press 171 kg.How many milligrams (mg)is this?
A)1.71 × 10<sup>8</sup> mg
B)1.71 × 10<sup>9</sup> mg
C)1.71 × 10<sup>7</sup> mg
D)1.71 × 10<sup>6</sup> mg
Answer: A
Q3) Add 3685 g and 66.8 kg and express your answer in milligrams (mg).
A)7.05 × 10<sup>7</sup> mg
B)7.05 × 10<sup>4</sup> mg
C)7.05 × 10<sup>5</sup> mg
D)7.05 × 10<sup>6 </sup>mg
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension
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Sample Questions
Q1) A train starts from rest and accelerates uniformly,until it has traveled 2.1 km and acquired a velocity of 24 m/s.The train then moves at a constant velocity of 24 m/s for 400 s.The train then slows down uniformly at 0.065 m/s<sup>2</sup>,until it is brought to a halt.The distance traveled by the train while slowing down,in km,is closest to:
A)4.4
B)4.2
C)4.0
D)3.8
E)3.6
Answer: A
Q2) A car is travelling north at 17.7 m/s.After 12 s its velocity is 14.1 m/s in the same direction.Find the magnitude and direction of the car's average acceleration.
A)0.30 m/s<sup>2</sup>,South
B)2.7 m/s<sup>2</sup>,South
C)0.30 m/s<sup>2</sup>,North
D)2.7 m/s<sup>2</sup>,North
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Vectors and Motion in Two Dimensions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A football kicker is attempting a field goal from 44 m out.The ball is kicked and just clears the lower bar with a time of flight of 2.9 s.If the angle of the kick was 45°,what was the initial speed of the ball?
A)21.5 m/s
B)19.7 m/s
C)2.2 m/s
D)39 m/s
Answer: A
Q2) The magnitude of the displacement vector of an object is equal to the distance that object has moved.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The magnitude of the displacement vector from A to B can never be less than the distance from A to B,but it can be greater than that distance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Forces and Newtons Laws of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) In outer space,an astronaut is working with two pieces of equipment that are outwardly identical.However,one of the objects has a slightly larger mass than the other.Since objects are weightless in space,how can the astronaut distinguish between the two objects?
Q2) You pull on a crate with a rope.If the crate moves,the rope's pull on the crate must have been larger than the crate's pull on the rope,but if the crate does not move,both of these pulls must have been equal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A bucket is being lowered by a rope with a constant downward acceleration.The tension in the rope must be equal to the weight of the bucket.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A satellite is in orbit around the earth.The satellite pulls just as hard on the earth as the earth pulls on the satellite.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Applying Newtons Laws
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kieran takes off down a 50 m high,10° slope on his jet-powered skis.The skis have a thrust of 280 N.The combined mass of skis and Kieran is 50kg (the fuel mass is negligible).Kieran's speed at the bottom is 40 m/s.What is the coefficient of kinetic friction of his skis on snow?
A)0.47
B)0.58
C)0.23
D)0.29
Q2) A 75 pound box rests on a perfectly smooth horizontal surface.Any horizontal force greater than zero will cause it to start moving.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A rope is tied to a large crate,which is sitting on a flat surface.The coefficient of static friction between the crate and the ground is 0.9.If a person is to pull on the rope with the minimum force needed such that the crate begins to slide,the angle between the rope and the ground should be
A)greater than 0 degrees but less than 90 degrees.
B)0 degrees (rope is horizontal).
C)90 degrees.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Circular Motion,orbits,and Gravity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mass on a string is swung in a vertical circle at a constant speed.The string will break if the tension in the string exceeds a critical value.At what part of the circle is the string most likely to break,and why?
Q2) If you swing a ball in a vertical circle using a thin string,at the bottom of the circle the tension in the string must be greater than the ball's weight.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If there is no such thing as a centrifugal force,why does someone in a car making a turn feel as if he or she is being pulled toward the outside of the curve?
Q4) An Earth satellite needs to have its orbit changed so the new orbit will be twice as far from the center of Earth as the original orbit.The new orbital period will be twice as long as the original period.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In uniform circular motion we have an acceleration and the speed doesn't change.But in projectile motion the speed does change under constant acceleration.Why are they both classified as uniform acceleration phenomena?
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Rotational Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) There must be equal amounts of mass on either side of the center of mass.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A force of 16.88 N is applied tangentially to a wheel of radius 0.340 m and gives rise to an angular acceleration of 1.20 rad/s<sup>2</sup>.Calculate the rotational inertia of the wheel.
A)4.78 kg m<sup>2</sup>
B)3.59 kg m<sup>2</sup>
C)5.98 kg m<sup>2</sup>
D)7.17 kg m<sup>2</sup>
Q3) A force in the +y direction applied at the point x = 2.3 m,y = 1.4 m gives rise to a torque of 71 N · m about the origin.Find the magnitude of the force.
A)31 N
B)51 N
C)71 N
D)87 N
Q4) If two objects have the same moment of inertia,they must have the same mass.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Equilibrium and Elasticity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the figure,the x-component of the force,exerted on the door at the bottom by hinge 2,is closest to:
A)zero
B)+29 N
C)+65 N
D)-29 N
E)-65 N
Q2) A uniform 600 kg beam,6 m long,is freely pivoted at P.The beam is supported in a horizontal position by a light strut,5 m long,which is freely pivoted at Q and is loosely pinned to the beam at R.A load of mass is suspended from the end of the beam at S.A maximum compression of 25,000 N in the strut is permitted,due to safety.In the figure,under maximum load the y-component of the force exerted on the beam by the pivot at P is closest to:
A)7060 N
B)4560 N
C)9560 N
D)10,000 N
E)zero
Q3) Do all points on a rigid,rotating body have the same angular acceleration? Support your answer.
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Chapter 9: Momentum
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 1200 kg car moving at 15.6 m/s collides with a stationary car of mass 1500 kg If the two vehicles lock together,what is their combined velocity immediately after the collision?
A)6.9 m/s
B)8.6 m/s
C)12.1 m/s
D)5.5 m/s
Q2) A shell explodes into two fragments,one 25 times heavier than the other.The momentum change of the lighter fragment is 25 times as great as the momentum change of the heavier fragment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A 0.140 kg baseball is thrown with a velocity of 26.2 m/s.It is struck with an average force of 5000.0 N,which results in a velocity of 37.0 m/s in the opposite direction.How long were the bat and ball in contact?
A)1.77 × 10<sup>-3</sup> s
B)1.26 × 10<sup>-2</sup> s
C)3.02 × 10<sup>-2</sup> s
D)4.25 × 10<sup>-3 </sup>s
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Energy and Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child swings on a ball of mass m on a rope in a uniform,vertical circle of radius r at a constant speed v.How much work is done by the centripetal force on the ball during one complete revolution?
Q2) A person drops one rock from rest and it falls 100 meters down a cliff before hitting the ground.The person then throws an identical rock downward.The amount of kinetic energy gained by the rock dropped from rest is _____ that of the second rock,and the magnitude of the change in speed (between hitting the ground and its initial speed)of the rock dropped from rest is _____ that of the second rock.
A)equal to,greater than B)equal to,equal to C)less than,less than D)equal to,less than
Q3) 4.00 × 10<sup>5</sup> J of work are done on a 1110 kg car while it accelerates from 10.0 m/s to some final velocity.Find this final velocity.
A)28.6 m/s
B)22.9 m/s
C)25.7 m/s
D)31.5 m/s
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12
Chapter 11: Using Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A heat pump with a COP of 4.90000007 absorbs heat from the atmosphere at a rate of 30 kW.At what rate is it doing work?
A)6 kW
B)147 kW
C)117 kW
D)36 kW
Q2) Is liberating heat through combustion a reversible or an irreversible process?
Q3) As you increase the difference between the temperatures of the hot and cold reservoirs,a Carnot engine converts a larger and larger percent of the heat put into it into work.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the maximum efficiency of an engine operating between a reservoir in which ice and water coexist,and a reservoir in which water and steam coexist? The pressure is constant at 1.0 atmosphere for both.
A)27%
B)0.27%
C)100%
D)1.0%
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Chapter 12: Thermal Properties of Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 920 g empty iron kettle is put on a stove.How much heat in joules must it absorb to raise its temperature form 15.0ºC to 93.0ºC? (The specific heat for iron is 113 cal/kg · ºC. )
A)33,900 J
B)40,500 J
C)8110 J
D)40,100 J
Q2) Heat is added to a 2.0 kg piece of ice at a rate of 793.0 kW.How long will it take for the ice at 0.0ºC to melt? (For water L<sub>f</sub> = 334 kJ/kg and L<sub>v</sub> = 2257 kJ/kg. )
A)0.84 s
B)530,000 s
C)0.0 s
D)670 s
Q3) 52 g of methane (CH<sub>4</sub>)contain 3.25 moles of this gas.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When you compress a gas,the molecules get smaller.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pressurized cylindrical tank,5.0 m in diameter,contains water that emerges from the pipe at point C,with a velocity of 13 m/s.Point A is 10 m above point B and point C is 3 m above point B.The area of the pipe at point B is 0.08 m<sup>2</sup> and the pipe narrows to an area of 0.04 m<sup>2</sup> at point C.Assume the water is an ideal fluid in laminar flow.The density of water is 1000 kg/m<sup>3</sup>.In the figure,the mass flow rate in the pipe is closest to:
A)520 Kg/s
B)470 Kg/s
C)420 Kg/s
D)360 Kg/s
E)310 Kg/s
Q2) Water is pumped out of a well at 5.000 m/s through a 8.000 cm diameter hose.The well is 30.00 ft deep.What power is needed by the pump?
A)2253 W
B)230 W
C)6894 W
D)The area of the well is needed.
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Chapter 14: Oscillations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A leaky faucet drips 40 times in 30.0 s.What is the frequency of the dripping?
A)1.3 Hz
B)0.75 Hz
C)1.6 Hz
D)0.63 Hz
Q2) If both the mass of a simple pendulum and its length are doubled,the period will A)be unchanged.
B)increase by a factor of 2.
C)increase by a factor of 4.
D)increase by a factor of 1.4
E)increase by a factor of 0.71.
Q3) If you double the mass of a pendulum,the period of vibration does not change. A)True
B)False
Q4) As a pendulum swings through its cycle,the mass is moving fastest and has its greatest acceleration at the bottom of the swing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Traveling Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Situation 15.1,the frequency of the tower siren tone,heard by the engineer,in SI units,is closest to:
A)1200
B)300/340 × 1200
C)340/300 × 1200
D)340/380 × 1200
E)380/340 × 1200
Q2) The density of aluminum is 2700 kg/m<sup>3</sup>.If transverse waves propagate at 34 m/s in a 4.6 mm diameter aluminum wire,what is the tension on the wire?
A)52 N
B)31 N
C)42 N
D)62 N
Q3) Observer A is 2.0 m from a tiny light bulb and observer B is 8.0 m from the same bulb.The intensity of light from this bulb that A sees is 16 times as great as the intensity that B sees.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Superposition and Standing Waves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two stereo speakers mounted 4.52 m apart on a wall emit identical sound waves.You are standing at the opposite wall of the room at a point directly between the two speakers.You walk 2.11 m parallel to the wall,to a location where you first notice that the sound intensity is much less.If the wall along which you are walking is 10.7 m from the wall with the speakers,what is the wavelength of the sound waves?
A)1.71 m
B)2.05 m
C)2.57 m
D)2.91 m
Q2) An open pipe,0.92 m long,vibrates in the second overtone with a frequency of 584 Hz.In this situation,the speed of sound in air,in SI units,is closest to:
A)358
B)349
C)353
D)344
E)363
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18
Chapter 17: Wave Optics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Situation 17.1,the wavelength of light in the 400 nm to 800 nm wavelength band that is most weakly reflected,in nm,is closest to:
A)520
B)540
C)560
D)580
E)600
Q2) At most,how many bright fringes can be formed on one side of the central bright fringe (not counting the central bright fringe)when light of 625 nm falls on a double slit whose spacing is 6.77 \(\times\) 10<sup>-6 </sup>m?
A)10
B)9
C)8
D)11
E)12
Q3) A single slit gives destructive interference when ml = w sin .A double slit gives constructive interference when ml = d sin .Explain the role of d and w for the single and double slit.
Q4) What is the difference between diffraction and interference?
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Chapter 18: Ray Optics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a single lens forms a virtual image of an object,then
A)the lens must be a diverging lens.
B)the lens must be a converging lens.
C)the lens could be either a diverging or a converging lens.
D)the image must be inverted.
Q2) A drop of unknown liquid is placed at the point on a glass surface where internal reflection is occurring at = 48°.The drop is heated until internal reflection occurs.What is the refractive index of the liquid if n<sub>g </sub>= 1.60?
A)1.19
B)2.38
C)1.07
D)0.46
Q3) A concave spherical mirror has a focal length f.The image of an object located at a distance s > f in front of the mirror is real and inverted.
A)True
B)False
Q4) You have several concave mirrors.What quick test could you make to choose the one with the best figure? (i.e. ,the most constant curvature)?
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Optical Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The objective lens of an astronomical telescope has a focal length of 60 cm and the eyepiece has a focal length of 2 cm.How far apart should the lenses be placed in order to form a final image at infinity?
A)44 cm
B)58 cm
C)76 cm
D)60 cm
E)62 cm
Q2) In Situation 19.2,the distance between the object and the focal point of the objective,in mm,is closest to:
A)0.13
B)0.18
C)0.23
D)0.28
E)0.33
Q3) The intensity of light decreases as the f-number of a camera lens is increased.
A)True
B)False
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21
Chapter 20: Electric Fields and Forces
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two nuclei each contain two protons and exert a force 4 N on each other.If we transfer a proton from one of these nuclei to the other,the force on each nucleus is now reduced to 3 N.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Two like charges of the same magnitude are 5.0 mm apart.If the force of repulsion they exert upon each other is 2.0 N,what is the magnitude of each charge? (The constant of proportionality for the Coulombic force is 9.0 × 10<sup>9</sup> N·m<sup>2</sup>/C<sup>2</sup>. )
A)7.5 × 10<sup>-2</sup> C
B)7.5 × 10<sup>-8</sup> C
C)7.2 × 10<sup>2</sup> C
D)7.5 × 10<sup>-5</sup> C
Q3) If two macroscopic objects are electrically attracted to each other,
A)both objects must be negatively charged.
B)both objects must be positively charged.
C)one object must be negatively charged and the other object must be positively charged.
D)None of the above statements are absolutely true.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Electric Potential
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Q1) If the potential is constant on a surface,then any electric field present can only be perpendicular to that surface.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A uniform electric field has the strength of 5.0 N/C.What is the electric energy density of the field? (The value of o is 8.85 \(\times\) 10S1U1P1-12
S1S1P0C<sup>2</sup>/N·m<sup>2</sup>. )
A)1.1 × 10<sup>-10</sup> J/m<sup>3</sup>
B)2.2 × 10<sup>-11</sup> J/m<sup>3</sup>
C)1.4 × 10<sup>12</sup> J/m<sup>3</sup>
D)2.8 × 10<sup>12</sup> J/m<sup>3</sup>
Q3) A 6.0 C negative charge is attracted to a large,well-anchored,positive charge.How much kinetic energy does the negatively charged object gain if the potential difference through which it moves is 3 mV?
A)18 nJ
B)0.50 kJ
C)0.50 J
D)6.0 J
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23
Chapter 22: Current and Resistance
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Q1) If you double the diameter of a cylindrical wire,you double its conductivity but reduce its resistivity by one half.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The resistivity of gold is 2.44 × 10<sup>-8 </sup> ·m at a temperature of 20°C.A gold wire,1.8 mm in diameter and 14 cm long,carries a current of 480 ma.The power dissipated in the wire is closest to:
A)0.31 mW
B)0.077 mW
C)0.14 mW
D)0.19 mW
E)0.25 mW
Q3) A battery is rated that it provides 1.0 mW of power at 9.0 V when fully charged.How much current can it deliver?
A)0.11 mA
B)81 kA
C)0.33 mA
D)9.0 kA
Q4) Why is it that electrons rather than positive ions flow from a wire?
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Chapter 23: Circuits
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Q1) A 10.0 V battery is connected across two resistors in series.If the resistors have resistances of 840.0 and 590.0 ,what is the voltage drop across the 590.0 resistor?
A)4.1 V
B)5.9 V
C)14 V
D)7.0 V
Q2) Of voltmeters and ammeters,which is/are connected in series?
Q3) When a potential difference of 10 V is placed across a certain solid cylindrical resistor,the current through it is 2.0 A.If the diameter of this resistor is now tripled,the current will be 18 A.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The potential across the terminals of a store-bought 1.5 V AAA battery always remains at 1.5 V unless the battery has gone dead.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which will drain a battery faster,a circuit with a resistance of 10 k or a circuit with a resistance of 1 ?
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Magnetic Fields and Forces
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Q1) If the magnetic field strength is 20 T at a distance of 3.0 cm from a long,straight,very thin current-carrying wire,the field will be 5 T 12 cm away from the wire.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The net magnetic field inside a conductor must be zero.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A circular coil of wire of 200 turns and diameter 6 cm carries a current of 7 A.It is placed in a magnetic field of 0.90 T with the plane of the coil making an angle of 30° with the magnetic field.What is the torque on the coil?
A)3.1 N m
B)1.8 N m
C)5.9 N m
D)8.2 N m
E)1.5 N m
Q4) Two particles with equal mass,one carrying a charge q and the other -2q,each enter at right angles to a uniform magnetic field with the same velocity.Which is deflected into a circular path with the larger radius?
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Electromagnetic Induction and Electromagnetic Waves
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Q1) A 7.55 × 10<sup>14</sup> Hz electromagnetic wave propagates in carbon tetrachloride with a speed of 2.05 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s.The wavelength of the wave in carbon tetrachloride is closest to:
A)272 nm
B)301 nm
C)338 nm
D)361 nm
E)397 nm
Q2) What is the wavelength used by a radio station that broadcasts with a carrier frequency of 920 kHz?
A)22.6 m
B)226 m
C)326 m
D)175 m
E)276 m
Q3) In the figure,a bar magnet moves away from the solenoid.The induced current through the resistor R is:
A)zero
B)from a to b
C)from b to a
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Chapter 26: Ac Electricity
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Q1) An RLC circuit has a sinusoidal voltage supplied to it at 632 kHz with a peak voltage of 748 V;a 25 k resistance;a 16 F capacitance;and a 30 H inductance.What is the peak current for this circuit?
A)6.3 A
B)11 A
C)26 A
D)30 A
Q2) An RLC circuit has a reactance,due to its capacitance,of 11 k ;a reactance,due to its inductance,of 3 k ;and a resistance of 29 k .What is the power factor of the circuit?
A)0.96
B)0.27
C)1.04
D)0.48
Q3) In a series RLC circuit,the current is largest at resonance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For circuits with either an inductor and/or a capacitor,the current gets out of phase with the voltage.For these circuits how are the frequencies of the current and voltage related?
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Chapter 27: Relativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two fixed navigation beacons mark the approach lane to a star.The beacons are in line with the star and are 40 Mm apart.A spaceship approaches the star with a relative velocity of 0.30 c and passes the beacons.The passage of the ship between the beacons is timed by observers on the beacons.The time interval of the passage is closest to:
A)440 ms
B)470 ms
C)420 ms
D)250 ms
E)170 ms
Q2) In a spaceship that is approaching Earth at 80% the speed of light,the captain shines a laser beam directly toward Earth.The captain measures the laser light's speed to be 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s and the receiving station on Earth will measure exactly the same speed for this light.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain why it is impossible for an object to travel at the speed of light.
Q4) The rest mass of a particle depends upon how fast it is moving.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Quantum Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A molecule of roughly spherical shape has a mass of 1.80 × 10<sup>-25</sup> kg and a diameter of 0.6 nm.The uncertainty in the measured position of the molecule is equal to the molecular diameter.The minimum speed of the molecule is closest to:
A)1 m/s
B)10 m/s
C)100 m/s
D)0.1 m/s
E)0.01 m/s
Q2) A one-dimensional box contains an electron in the n = 1 state.What is the length of the box if the electron has the same energy as a photon with a wavelength of 600 nm?
A)430 pm
B)560 pm
C)0.85 nm
D)1.2 nm
Q3) The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons from a metal is equal to the work function of that metal.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Atoms and Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) In spontaneous emission,the electrons all spontaneously emit photons of the same wavelength.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many 2d electron states can an atom have?
A)0
B)4
C)6
D)8
E)10
Q3) The energy required to remove the electron from a hydrogen atom in the n = 11 state is closest to:
A)0.11 eV
B)0.094 eV
C)0.080 eV
D)0.17 eV
E)0.14 eV
Q4) The word "laser" is taken from Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation.What is meant by "stimulated"?
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Chapter 30: Nuclear Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modern nuclear bomb tests have created an extra high level of <sup>14</sup>C in our atmosphere.When future archaeologists date samples from this era,without knowing of this testing,will their dates be too young? Too old? Correct? If correct,why?
A)too young
B)too old
C)Correct,since <sup>14</sup>C from bomb tests is different from that produced naturally.
D)Correct,because modern biological materials do not gather 14C from bomb tests.
Q2) Neutrons are slightly more massive than protons.If the mass of a neutron were smaller than its actual value,yet still more massive than a proton,a nucleus with a very high atomic number would most likely contain
A)more neutrons than the actual number.
B)fewer neutrons than the actual number.
C)the same number of neutrons as the actual number.
Q3) In beta-plus decay,a proton in the nucleus is converted to a neutron,a positron,and a neutrino.
A)True
B)False
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