Introductory Microbiology Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Introductory Microbiology offers a comprehensive overview of the fundamental concepts of microbiology, focusing on the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course explores microbial growth, metabolism, genetics, and the roles microbes play in ecosystems, industry, and human health. Students will gain insights into laboratory techniques for culturing and identifying microbes, learn about infectious diseases and their control, and discuss the relevance of microbiology in biotechnology, medicine, and environmental science.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 9th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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26 Chapters
1491 Verified Questions
1491 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A microorganism that causes disease is _______ .
A)pathogenic
B)phagocytic
C)virulent
D)algae
Answer: A
Q2) Because viruses could not be visualized using conventional microscopes further progress required the development of techniques for isolating,propagating and analyzing viruses. All of the following are true EXCEPT:
A)crystal structure of the tobacco mosaic virus showed that it was made up of RNA and protein
B)viruses were first observed with an electron microscope
C)viral DNA has a different structure from that discovered by Watson and Crick
D)Hershey and Chase demonstrated that the genetic material of some viruses is DNA
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When sodium hydroxide,a strong base,is added to water,the pH of the solution
A)goes up.
B)remains the same.
C)goes down.
D)cannot be determined.
Answer: A
Q2) An ion is all of the following EXCEPT:
A)a charged atom
B)an atom that has lost or gained one or more electrons
C)either a cation or an anion
D)an atom with the same number of protons as electrons
Answer: D
Q3) In DNA,the nucleotide cytosine always base pairs to:
A)adenine
B)guanine
C)thymine
D)uracil
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about Leeuwenhoek's microscopes is false?
A)Leeuwenhoek kept his technique secret.
B)They magnified objects 100 to 300 times.
C)For each specimen a new microscope had to be made.
D)They were able to reveal very fine details of bacteria.
Answer: D
Q2) Light of ________ wavelength typically will result in ________ resolution.
A)longer, better
B)shorter, better
C)any, poor
D)shorter, worse
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is not a differential stain?
A)Gram stain
B)Schaeffer-Fulton
C)acid-fast stain
D)flagellar stain
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) While division in one plane produces cells in pairs,what does random division produce?
A)Sarcinae
B)Eight cells arranged in a cube
C)Grapelike clusters (staphylo-)
D)Four cells arranged in a cube
Q2) _____ occurs when bacteria differ widely in form.
A)Pleomorphism
B)Polymorphism
C)Anamorphism
D)Telomorphism
Q3) Which of the following is true about bacteria?
A)All bacterial cells are smaller than 100 micrometers in diameter.
B)The cell wall controls the movement of small molecules into and out of the cell.
C)Gram-negative bacteria become protoplasts when their cell wall is digested away.
D)Bacterial endospores are reproductive structures.
Q4) What supports the idea that prokaryotes were involved in the evolution of eukaryotes by means of endosymbiosis?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does concentration affect enzyme-catalyzed reactions?
A)As the concentration of the product goes up the enzyme increases the rate it produces the product.
B)Concentration does not affect enzyme-catalyzed reactions because they are irreversible.
C)At chemical equilibrium, no net change in the concentration of the product or substrate occurs.
D)The quantity of enzyme available usually controls the rate of a metabolic reaction.
Q2) Oxidation is defined as the ________ while reduction is the ________ .
A)gain of electrons, loss of protons
B)loss of electrons, gain of protons
C)loss of electrons, gain of electrons
D)loss of protons, gain of protons
Q3) The initial breakdown of glucose in a eukaryotic cell takes place in the _____.
A)cytoplasm
B)Golgi
C)nucleus
D)cell membranes
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria that ferment lactose grow as red colonies on MacConkey's agar while those that do not ferment lactose are transparent. MacConkey's agar can best be described as being:
A)selective
B)differential
C)complex
D)enriched
Q2) A culture that contains only a single species of organism is known as a _____.
A)pure culture
B)Koch culture
C)mixed culture
D)contaminated culture
Q3) A candle jar would be used for growing:
A)Gram-negative organisms
B)fastidious organisms
C)thermophiles
D)microaerophiles
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8
Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Segments of eukaryotic DNA that do not code for proteins:
A)are called introns
B)are found in all bacterial genes
C)can be considered by your immune system as enemy DNA
D)binds to proteins to form ribosomes
Q2) After DNA replication of a bacterial chromosome,the new DNA contains:
A)2 newly synthesized strands of DNA copied from the original parent strands
B)one strand of parent DNA along with one newly synthesized strand
C)small segments of parent DNA interspersed with newly synthesized segments of DNA
D)two of the above
Q3) Which of the following statements about the genetic code is true?
A)The first position of a codon determines the amino acid.
B)An amino acid can often be specified for by more than one codon.
C)Nonsense codons contain no information.
D)Because DNA only contains four letters there are very few possible genes that can exist.
Q4) Using the lac and trp operons as examples,describe the two control mechanisms for protein synthesis: one based on enzyme induction and the other based on enzyme repression.
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following processes increases variation seen in bacteria?
A)Transformation
B)Conjugation
C)Transduction
D)all of the above
Q2) A bacterium that is transformed:
A)cannot form a conjugation pilus
B)has acquired naked DNA from the environment
C)will probably die within 48 hours
D)if injected, it always will result in the death of a mouse
Q3) In a culture containing both F and F cells,which of the following will occur if we wait long enough?
A)No conjugation will occur
B)The cells will all become genetically identical
C)All F will become F cells
D)All F cells will become F cells
Q4) Describe the experiments of Griffith that led to the discovery of transformation. How could one design an experiment to demonstrate that transformation was due to the transfer of DNA?
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) .Which of the following criteria is not commonly used to classify Bacteria?
A)Morphology
B)Shape of ribosomes
C)Staining characteristics
D)Biochemical characteristics
Q2) In DNA hybridization experiments,DNA from two closely related organisms will show
A)very little annealing
B)a high percentage of annealing
C)100% annealing
D)it is impossible to tell
Q3) A tool used by biologist that involves asking a series of "either-or" questions which eventually leads to the identification of an organism is a/an _____.
A)species key
B)evolutionary tree
C)dichotomous key
D)binary chart
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11
Chapter 10: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some viruses have a lipid bilayer,also known as the viral envelope.The viral envelope is most likely to come from the following source:
A)host cell plasma membrane
B)host membrane-bound organelles
C)host nucleus
D)another virus
Q2) Common colds and influenza are caused by which of the following pair of virus families?
A)Adenoviridae & Orthomyxoviridae
B)Enterovirus & Retrovirus
C)Flavivirus & Rhinovirus
D)Poxvirus & Papillomavirus
Q3) Enveloped animal viruses typically leave the host cell by:
A)host cell lysis
B)host cell rupture
C)budding
D)animal viruses never leave the host cell
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wuchereria bancrofti is the causative agent of _____.
A)trichinosis
B)malaria
C)sleeping sickness
D)elephantitis
Q2) Parasites are dependent on their hosts for survival. Which organism do you think is better adapted to a parasitic lifestyle,one that is virulent and often kills its host,or one that only causes mild chronic illness in its host? For vector-transmitted parasites there are two hosts involved in the lifecycle,how does that complicate adaptation to the human host?
Q3) All protists:
A)are photosynthetic
B)have a true nucleus
C)have cell walls
D)are parasites
Q4) Members of the phylum Ascomycota produce asexual spores called ________ .
A)antheridia
B)archegonia
C)ascogonia
D)conidia
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Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a chemical agent that can safely be used externally on living tissue to destroy microorganisms or to inhibit their growth?
A)Antiseptic
B)Disinfectant
C)Sanitizer
D)Germicide
Q2) Surfactants include all of the following except:
A)alcohols
B)detergents
C)wetting agents
D)oxidizing agents
Q3) Which of the following do not affect viruses?
A)Alkylating agents
B)Detergents
C)Alcohols
D)Heavy metals
Q4) Most milk,cheese and juices in the United States are pasteurized. Describe the process of pasteurization and the microorganisms at which it is directed.Do you consider pasteurized milk a sterile product? Why?
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antibiotics is an inhibitor of DNA gyrase?
A)Ethambutol
B)Ciprofloxacin
C)Tobramycin
D)Neomycin
Q2) Which of the characteristics apply to an ideal antimicrobial agent?
A)Allergenic
B)Instability
C)Short shelf life
D)Selective toxicity
Q3) The mode of action of an antimicrobial agent refers to _____.
A)killing of all microorganisms.
B)inhibition of growth of bacteria.
C)how it exerts its effects upon microorganisms.
D)the broad spectrum of activity of the antimicrobial agent.
Q4) Penicillin was discovered by ____________ and was isolated by ________ .
A)Gerhard Domagk; Alexander Fleming
B)Selman Walksman; Ernest Fourneau and Paul Ehrlich
C)Ernst Chain and Howard Florey; Paul Ehrlich
D)Alexander Fleming; Ernst Chain and Howard Florey
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare worker fails to follow aseptic procedures while cleaning a wound,washes his hands properly afterwards and suffers no ill effects-this is an example of:
A)commensalism
B)infection
C)infestation
D)contamination
Q2) Factors that improve the chances of a pathogen's ability to invade a host and cause infection are known as:
A)contagious factors
B)non-communicable factors
C)viral factors
D)virulence factors
Q3) Infection that does not produce a full set of signs and symptoms is called a/an:
A)mixed infection
B)secondary infection
C)superinfection
D)inapparent infection
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pathogenic microorganisms that are spread from person to person by unwashed hands contaminated by fecal matter,is an example of what mode of transmission?
A)Fomite transmission
B)Indirect contact
C)Droplet transmission
D)Direct transmission
Q2) An epidemic that arises from horizontal transmission and where the number of cases slowly rises and then falls is said to be of what type?
A)Common-source outbreak
B)Sporadic
C)Pandemic
D)Propagated epidemic
Q3) An infectious disease that occurs in a random and unpredictable manner is called:
A)sporadic
B)pandemic
C)epidemic
D)propagated epidemic
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The binding and coating of the surfaces of invading microbes by either antibodies or C3b is:
A)aided by the release of cytokines by phagocytes
B)necessary for phagocytosis of all microbes
C)called opsonization
D)responsible for the direct lysis of invading microrganisms
Q2) Which of the following is not a chemical barrier?
A)Mucous membrane
B)Saliva
C)Gastric juice
D)Complement
Q3) Recombinant interferon:
A)is of a different molecular form than that produced by infected cells
B)blocks virus replication but does not stimulate the adaptive immune system
C)unequivocally is the best available treatment for viruses and cancer
D)can be produced cheaply and abundantly
Q4) What is the body's first line of defense against microbial danger? Why are these considered non-specific? Why are these considered innate? Is non-specific a better description than innate?
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A compromised host _____.
A)may have a poor diet
B)may have an impairment in cell mediated immunity but not humoral immunity
C)usually has increased resistance to infectious diseases
D)two of the above
Q2) All of the following statements about immunization are true except:
A)live vaccines are potentially hazardous to pregnant females
B)passive immunization can provide immediate immunity to an exposed person
C)vaccines need to be practical in terms of stability and use
D)recombinant DNA vaccines inject the entire genomes of nonvirulent pathogens
Q3) What are 4 attributes of adaptive immunity? Describe how both humoral and cell-mediated responses achieve these properties.
Q4) Cells that synthesize and release antibody molecules are:
A)plasma cells
B)stem cells
C)cytotoxic T lymphocytes
D)helper T lymphocytes
Q5) How do vaccines work? Can you describe 2 potential hazards of vaccines? In your opinion why aren't there vaccines for every disease?
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Chapter 18: Immunology Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of lower respiratory anaphylaxis?
A)Tuberculosis
B)Legionnaire's disease
C)Hay fever
D)Asthma
Q2) Propensity to allergies seems _____.
A)only to run in the family for contact allergens (type IV hypersensitivity)
B)to be determined by prior sensitization to insect venom
C)to be linked to cold air injuring cell membranes of mast cells
D)at least in part have a genetic basis
Q3) Immunodeficiency refers to the immune system responding _____.
A)in an exaggerated way to a foreign substance
B)so that there is too much of a good thing
C)inadequately to an antigen
D)to its own tissues as if they were foreign
Q4) To treat generalized anaphylaxis,_________ must be administered immediately.
A)histamine
B)epinephrine
C)prostaglandins
D)antibiotics
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common flesh-eating bacterial species is:
A)Staphylococcus
B)Streptococcus
C)Pseudomonas
D)Propionibacterium
Q2) Which of the following Staphylococcal infections is matched correctly with the infection site?
A)folliculitis - deep internal pus-filled infection
B)furuncle - massive lesion on neck and upper back
C)boil - an exterior pus-filled infection
D)abscess - base of an eyelash
Q3) A 4-year-old girl in day care was brought to the doctor because of several reddish and round scaling lesions on her arms. The girl had no other lesions except the ones on the arm and had no other symptoms and no signs of pus in the lesions. Why is this not likely to be scarlet fever? Why is this not likely to be measles? Given that the girl is diagnosed with ringworm,should the girl be prescribed antibiotics,antivirals or topical antifungal ointments? How do you think the girl got ringworm?
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with fever blisters from HSV 1 _____.
A)is still susceptible to herpes simplex virus type 2 which causes genital herpes
B)will always have herpes virus in the ganglia of their sensory nerves
C)cannot shed the virus when asymptomatic
D)two of these choices
Q2) In healthy individuals all of the following parts of the urinary tract are sterile except:
A)lower folds of the urinary bladder
B)the portion of the urethra closest to the urethral opening
C)the ureter of the kidney
D)nephrons
Q3) Human papilloma virus causes:
A)condylomas
B)laryngeal papilloma
C)genital warts
D)all of the above
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22
Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bronchial pneumonia differs from lobar pneumonia in that _____.
A)it only affects old people
B)it starts as a secondary infection
C)it lacks the fibrin deposits
D)two of these choices
Q2) Which of the following are used in the treatment or prevention of diphtheria?
A)Antibiotics
B)Vaccination
C)Antitoxin
D)All of these choices
Q3) Legionellosis is controlled by:
A)vaccine administration
B)limited exposure to infected patients
C)regular disinfection of aerosolized water sources
D)prophylactic antibiotic treatment
Q4) Pleurisy is:
A)an inflammation of the pleural membranes that cause painful breathing
B)characterized by fever, sneezing, vomiting and a mild dry persistent cough
C)another name for the common cold
D)an opportunistic fungal infections
23
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Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following correctly matches the oral cavity disease with the organism responsible?
A)gingivitis -- Porphyromonas
B)periodontal disease -- Helicobacter pylori
C)orchitis -- paramyxovirus
D)dental caries -- Streptococcus mutans
Q2) Which microbe is responsible for a self-limiting disease whose symptoms include abdominal pain,fever (probably due to endotoxins),diarrhea with blood and mucus,within 8-48 hours of ingestion?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Clostridium botulinum
C)Salmonella enteritidis
D)Pseudomonas cocovenenans
Q3) Typhoid fever can be prevented by:
A)good hygiene
B)proper sewage disposal
C)vaccination
D)all of these choices
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statement does not refer to leishmaniasis?
A)Transmitted by sandflies.
B)Has an affinity for the pericardium and myocardium.
C)Is limited to tropical and subtropical countries where the vector is available.
D)Symptoms include high irregular fever, progressive wasting and protrusion of abdomen.
Q2) Dengue fever is transmitted via:
A)mosquitoes
B)sand flies
C)mites
D)ticks
Q3) Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by all of the following except:
A)caused by Epstein Barr virus
B)an acute disease that affects many systems
C)most patients have a sore throat
D)a vaccine is available
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25
Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Health care workers should watch for undiagnosed Hansen's disease among _____.
A)farmers
B)urban dwellers
C)veterinarians
D)immigrants
Q2) Who is affected by the transmissible spongiform encephalopathy called chronic wasting disease?
A)sheep and cattle
B)elk and deer
C)women in Papua New Guinea
D)Alzheimer's patients
Q3) Which of the following is not a viral or bacterial cause of meningitis?
A)Naegleria fowleri
B)Haemophilus influenzae type F
C)Treponema pallidum
D)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q4) What are all the animals that can get rabies? Which animals can transmit to humans and what determines human transmission ability? How should one treat an animal bite?
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Producers obtain CO from _____.
A)eating other producers
B)the atmosphere
C)dead bodies
D)coal
Q2) The predominant genus of microbe found in ambient air is _____.
A)Cladosporium
B)Bacillus
C)Staphylococcus
D)Candida
Q3) The sulfur cycle is of special importance to:
A)terrestrial life
B)Pseudomonas
C)proteolytic bacteria
D)aquatic life
Q4) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria include:
A)cyanobacteria
B)Clostridium
C)Klebsiella
D)all of these choices
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which microbe lends Swiss cheese its flavor and characteristic holes?
A)Propionibacterium
B)Streptococcus lactis
C)Escherichia coli
D)Staphylococcus
Q2) Which statement about contamination of eggs is incorrect?
A)Cracked eggs cannot be sold.
B)Lysozymes in the whites protect the yolk.
C)Trace metals in the whites are tightly bonded with proteins.
D)Eggs should be stored small side up
Q3) Why is the alcohol content of wine around 12%?
A)because federal regulation only allows that much
B)because higher concentrations will kill the yeast
C)it actually is 6%, but alcohol is added later
D)bacterial content will die at higher concentrations
Q4) Wort is a precursor for _____.
A)white wine
B)red wine
C)brandy
D)beer
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