Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Q1) A cell's genome consists of 20% thymine.What is the percentage of cytosine?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Q2) Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between DG and K q?
A) There is no relationship,as they are independent entities.
B) When Keq is greater than 1,DG is negative.
C) When Keq is greater than 1,DG is positive.
D) When Keq is less than 1,DG is negative.
Q3) The sharing of electrons between two atoms forms ________ bonds.
Q4) Which of the following is true of both lipids and sugars?
A) They both store energy.
B) They are both hydrophobic.
C) They are both hydrophilic.
D) They both contain nitrogen.
Q5) Redox reactions involve the movement of ________ from one molecule or atom to another.
Q6) What are some structural differences between cellular DNA and RNA?
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) In an E.coli cell,which molecule is found in only 1-2 copies per cell?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) protein
D) phospholipids
Q2) Which organelle houses a eukaryotic cell's genome?
A) rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) contractile vacuole
C) ribosome
D) nucleus
Q3) Flagella are required for bacterial
A) chemotaxis.
B) growth.
C) adherence.
D) buoyancy.
Q4) The cell wall is part of the
A) cell membrane.
B) cytoplasm.
C) cell envelope.
D) proteome.
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) CASE HISTORY
A fecal sample from a patient with diarrhea was streaked onto MacConkey lactose agar medium,a medium that selectively prevents the growth of Gram-positive bacteria but will differentiate Gram-negative bacteria that can ferment lactose from those that cannot.The next day,several different types of bacterial colonies were visible on the agar plate.Some were red;others were white.The white colonies led the clinical microbiologist to suspect that the patient was infected with the Gram-negative bacillus Salmonella enterica serovar typhimurium.
MacConkey lactose agar medium selectively prevents the growth of Gram-positive bacteria but will differentiate Gram-negative bacteria that can ferment lactose from those that cannot.The use of these types of media,called selective and differential media,are extremely helpful when microbiologists already have an idea of the pathogen present.What led the microbiologist to believe that the white colonies were Salmonella enterica serovar typhimurium?
Q2) The production of ________ mechanisms in a biofilm helps maintain the viability of a biofilm during an infection.
Q3) Explain metabolically why bacteria grow faster in complex media than in minimal media.
Q4) Explain why extremophiles are not a pathogenic threat to humans.
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Q1) The ultimate goal of the Calvin cycle is to produce ________.
Q2) Biosynthetic reactions are also known as ________ reactions.
Q3) The hydrolysis of a protein into amino acids is an example of
A) anabolism.
B) catabolism.
C) lithotrophy.
D) nitrogen fixation.
Q4) Lithotrophs donate electrons from inorganic reduced molecules directly to an ETS to generate a proton motive force.Why might these lithotrophs still possess the tricarboxylic acid cycle?
Q5) What metabolic strategy is summarized in this equation: C H O + 6H O + 6O 12H O 6CO
A) oxygenic photosynthesis
B) aerobic lithotrophy
C) anaerobic organotrophy
D) aerobic organotrophy
Q6) The metabolic pathway used by cyanobacteria and plants to fix carbon dioxide into sugar is known as the ________ cycle.
Q7) The Embden-Myerhof-Parnas (EMP)pathway is also known as ________.
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Q1) During Sanger DNA sequencing,in addition to normal dNTPs used in cellular DNA synthesis,small amounts of modified DNA polymerase substrates are added to the reaction.How do these modified monomers differ from the normal dNTPs?
Q2) Ribosomes are composed of
A) protein only.
B) RNA only.
C) both protein and rRNA.
D) both protein and tRNA.
Q3) An enzyme that cuts the DNA phosphodiester backbone at a particular DNA sequence is called a ________.
Q4) Proteins that assist the folding of newly formed proteins are known as ________.
Q5) After translation
A) all proteins are folded and secreted.
B) some proteins are folded but all are secreted.
C) all proteins are folded and some are also secreted.
D) some proteins are folded and another subset are secreted.
Q6) Why might the insertion or deletion of three base pairs in a gene be less harmful than the insertion or deletion of only one or two base pairs?
Q7) Transcription of genes starts at regions of the genome called ________.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) What is the best option for characterizing a completely unknown organism?
A) DNA sequencing
B) dichotomous key
C) probabilistic indicator
D) phylogenetic tree construction
Q2) Griffith's observations from his experiments infecting mice with smooth and rough strain Streptococcus pneumoniae were later found to be due to
A) conjugation.
B) transposition.
C) transduction.
D) transformation.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT lead to divergence?
A) fossilization
B) mutations
C) transposition
D) transduction
Q4) What are two reasons why the definition of a species is problematic for bacteria?
Q5) ________ is important for analyzing and comparing the genomic sequences of organisms.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following statements would most likely indicate an isolate is a Gram-positive bacterium and excludes other bacteria?
A) The isolate was found in a soil sample.
B) The isolate forms dormant endospores.
C) The isolate is an intracellular pathogen.
D) The isolate produces oxygen.
Q2) A long,tight,spiral-shaped bacteria is found in the gut of termites.This bacteria is most likely a(n)
A) enterobacteria and a pathogen.
B) chlamydia and an intracellular parasite.
C) spirochete and a symbiont.
D) cyanobacteria and a pathogen.
Q3) Which of the following is considered metabolically INACTIVE?
A) an elementary body of Chlamydia trachomatis
B) a reticulate body of Chlamydophila pneumonia
C) a vegetative Bacillus anthracis cell
D) a biofilm containing Bacteroides
Q4) The form of a Chlamydia species outside of a host cell is referred to as a(n)________ body.
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Q1) Fungi that form spore-dispersing asci are known as A) basidiomycetes.
B) zygomycetes.
C) microsporidia.
D) ascomycetes.
Q2) Amoeba proteus,a lobed ameba,most likely moves by using A) flagella.
B) cilia.
C) cytoplasmic streaming.
D) needlelike pseudopods.
Q3) A major group of microbial eukaryotes that contains chloroplasts related to those of plants and is found as a single cell or sheet is A) fungi.
B) algae.
C) alveolates.
D) trypanosomes.
Q4) Describe two positive impacts fungi have on our environment.
Q5) Lung diseases caused by filamentous fungi such as Aspergillus fumigatus occur when ________ germinate and grow into fuzzy colonies within tissues.
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Q1) Imagine that a new form of gene therapy that can eliminate expression of heparan sulfate proteoglycans has been invented.Explain how this therapy would have both a positive result and a negative result.
Q2) West Nile virus is capable of infecting many different organisms (humans,birds,raccoons,and so on).Based on this information,which of the following statements correctly describes West Nile virus?
A) West Nile virus has a narrow host range.
B) West Nile virus has a broad host range.
C) West Nile virus has a narrow tissue tropism.
D) West Nile virus is capable of fecal-oral transmission.
Q3) Why is gelatin needed to culture animal viruses in tissue culture?
A) Animal viruses use gelatin as an energy source.
B) Cells in tissue culture require gelatin to grow.
C) Gelatin slows the dispersal of viruses from infected cells,allowing for plaques to form.
D) Gelatin is used to stain viral plaques.
Q4) A herpes virus contains an icosahedral capsid that allows for radial symmetry.Explain why this type of capsid formation is beneficial for the virus.
Q5) An infectious particle with an RNA genome and no capsid is known as a ________.
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) The removal of 99.9% of airborne particulate matter larger than 0.3µm in size can be accomplished with a(n)________.
Q2) The presence of ________ in the bacterial cell wall is one of the mechanisms of antibiotic selective toxicity.
Q3) What is the major downside to the often necessary long-term treatment with fungal drugs?
A) dry skin
B) high cost
C) antifungal resistance
D) potential toxic side effects
Q4) Why does lyophilization offer longer-term storage of mesophilic cells than refrigeration?
Q5) ________ is the process of heating foods to a moderately high temperature long enough to kill most heat-resistant,non-spore-forming pathogens known.
Q6) ________ is a category of antifungal agents that inhibits DNA synthesis.
Q7) Penicillin targets peptidoglycan synthesis to inhibit ________.
Q8) Explain how organisms can develop resistance to chemical disinfectants.
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Q9) Explain why antifungal agents are less selectively toxic than antibacterial agents.
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Q1) Which was developed first?
A) fecal transplants
B) probiotics
C) antibiotics
D) phage therapy
Q2) Which of the following changes in human behavior has NOT altered the composition of the microbiota?
A) decreased antibiotic usage
B) increased cesarean deliveries
C) living in smaller families
D) use of antibacterial soaps
Q3) What would be the expected aerobe to anaerobe ratio of the belly button?
A) 10:1
B) 1:10
C) 1:100
D) 1:1000
Q4) Explain two potential negative effects of using phage therapy to treat bacterial infections.
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Q5) The presence of a core ________ is most important for a healthy microbiome.
Q6) Probiotics have been used in baby chicks to prevent colonization by ________.
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Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Movement of neutrophils out of blood vessels and into infected tissue is called
Q2) Penicillin interferes with bacterial cell walls.Which of the following interferes with the bacterial cell wall inside the phagolysosome?
A) lactoferrin
B) defensins
C) lysozyme
D) oxygen radicals
Q3) Small protein molecules secreted by macrophages are called A) vasoactive factors.
B) cytokines.
C) selectins.
D) bradykinin.
Q4) All of the following are components of the inflammatory process EXCEPT A) extravasation.
B) release of cytokines.
C) antibody synthesis.
D) vasodilation.
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Q5) Cytokines that have chemotactic properties are called ________.
Q6) Substances that cause fever are known as ________.
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Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Natalia and Julia are looking through primary literature for information about antibodies.One of the articles is titled "Generating Diversity in Idiotypes." Would you expect this article to compare different species,different individuals of the same species,or different antibodies within individuals? Explain your answer.
Q2) Which of the following statements is an example of a situation in which cross-protection will occur?
A) A vaccine is administered for one of two viruses that share epitopes.
B) A single virus triggers a response from both B cells and T cells.
C) An antigen forms a cross-link between two antibodies.
D) A combination vaccine is administered to provide protection against three viruses.
Q3) Class switching is the process in which
A) B cells switch from producing IgM of IgD to producing IgE,IgG,or IgA.
B) formed IgM antibody pentamers break apart into IgM monomers.
C) antibody released from the surface of a B cell switches to a different heavy chain.
D) higher-affinity antibodies are produced upon repeated exposure to the same antigen.
Q4) Explain the role of Class II MHC in B-cell activation.
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) Type II hypersensitivities differ from type III sensitivities in that only type II involves A) surface antigens.
B) soluble antigens.
C) antibodies.
D) histamine.
Q2) A plasmid-encoding protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells.This is an example of a(n)
A) DNA vaccine.
B) attenuated vaccine.
C) subunit vaccine.
D) toxoid.
Q3) All of the following are true of the generation of autoreactive antibodies EXCEPT A) B cells escape the negative selection process.
B) self-reacting B cells can be activated without specific T-cell assistance.
C) some microbial antigens can also trigger autoimmune reactions.
D) self-reacting B cells do not take up and process self-antigens.
Q4) Describe an ELISA test to detect the presence of hepatitis in a patient's blood sample.
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Explain the difference between antigenic drift and antigenic shift.How might antigenic shift relate to the generation of a new flu pandemic?
Q2) All of the following are methods of microbial attachment EXCEPT
A) capsids.
B) pili.
C) fimbriae.
D) type IV secretion systems.
Q3) Organized,high-density communities of cells that embed themselves in self-made exopolymer matrices are called ________.
Q4) All of the following are targets for bacterial toxins EXCEPT A) signal transduction.
B) host membranes.
C) DNA synthesis.
D) protein synthesis.
Q5) All of the following statements about type III secretion systems are true EXCEPT A) proteins are injected directly into the eukaryotic cells.
B) type III secretion systems are evolutionarily related to flagellar genes.
C) cell-to-cell contact triggers type III secretion systems.
D) virulence proteins secreted by type III systems alter protein synthesis.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) All of the following cause conjunctivitis EXCEPT
A) Chlamydia trachomatis.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
D) Haemophilus influenza.
Q2) Topical retinoids and antibiotics are commonly used to treat A) cellulitis.
B) acne.
C) erysipelas.
D) impetigo.
Q3) Measles is similar to German measles (rubella)in the fact that A) they have a similar type of rash.
B) they are caused by the same virus.
C) encephalitis is a possible complication.
D) they can be controlled by vaccination.
Q4) All of the following are methods used to treat C.perfringens infection EXCEPT A) amputation.
B) a hyperbaric chamber.
C) antibiotic therapy alone.
D) debridement.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) An AIDS patient with a fungal infection develops meningoencephalitis,which is the most prevalent form of A) histoplasmosis.
B) coccidioidomycosis.
C) cryptococcosis.
D) blastomycosis.
Q2) A patient with a respiratory infection who is unresponsive to treatment with antibiotics,lacks a clearly defined presentation,and has seemingly unrelated symptoms
A) is more likely to be infected by a fungus than a virus or bacteria.
B) is more likely to be infected by a virus than a fungus or bacteria.
C) is most likely carrying an antibiotic-resistant form of bacteria.
D) would likely have a positive TB skin test.
Q3) The differential diagnosis for a patient presenting with a fever and productive cough with bloody sputum would likely include A) tuberculosis and legionellosis.
B) walking pneumonia and Pseudomonas pneumonia.
C) inhalation anthrax and diphtheria.
D) whooping cough and tuberculosis.
Q4) Coccidioidomycosis is endemic in the ________ United States.
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) The definitive host in the life cycle of lymphatic filariasis is a ________.
Q2) A human vaccine is available to prevent A) bubonic plague.
B) salmonellosis.
C) typhoid fever.
D) Lyme disease.
Q3) How do rickettsioses,such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever,cause systemic symptoms?
A) Rickettsia species are obligate intracellular bacteria that infect endothelial cells throughout the body.
B) Rickettsia species are phagocytized by macrophages and travel throughout the blood within macrophages.
C) Rickettsia species infect lymphocytes and use the lymphatic system to move throughout the body.
D) Rickettsia species infect fibroblasts within connective tissues and use the reticuloendothelial system to move throughout the body.
Q4) The herpes virus that initially infects the oropharyngeal epithelium,tonsils,and salivary glands,and is associated with endemic Burkitt's lymphoma,is known as
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Viruses that cause vomiting will often produce enterotoxins that result in
A) overstimulation of the vagus nerve.
B) understimulation of the vagus nerve.
C) hypoperistalsis.
D) isoperistalsis.
Q2) When does dental caries become painful?
A) when the biofilm forms on the tooth
B) when the enamel breaks down
C) when the decay penetrates the nerve
D) Dental caries is never painful.
Q3) ________ can result from overcrowding/bad hygiene as well as eating undercooked seafood.
Q4) Lactobacillus species are a major type of probiotic.Describe one positive aspect of Lactobacillus and one negative aspect.
Q5) The tropism of Salmonella infections includes
A) the intestinal lumen.
B) the ileum.
C) Paneth cells.
D) M cells.
Q6) The part of a tooth protruding outward from the gum is called the ________.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) All of the following are true about the glomerulus EXCEPT that A) it is surrounded by the Bowman's capsule.
B) it is made up of small capillaries.
C) during filtration large molecules and blood enter into the Bowman's capsule.
D) it is damaged in acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
Q2) Nearly 70% of patients seen in STI clinics are men.Offer a reason why men are more likely to seek treatment than women.Why is it important that women seek treatment for STIs?
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a non-sexually transmitted infection?
A) syphilis
B) yeast infection
C) gonorrhea
D) pyelonephritis
Q4) All of the following are ways that an infection can be established in the urinary tract EXCEPT an infection
A) acquired in the kidney.
B) in the vaginal canal.
C) from the urethra.
D) from the bladder.
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Q5) Highly active antiretroviral therapy,or HAART,is used to treat ________.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) What is the prescribed treatment for Naegleria?
A) ketoconazole
B) eflornithine
C) penicillin
D) vaccine
Q2) All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT that
A) it is also known as "sleeping sickness."
B) all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts.
C) it is transmitted by the tsetse fly.
D) death occurs without proper treatment.
Q3) A physician diagnoses a patient with Eastern equine encephalitis.All of the following pertain to the patient EXCEPT that he or she
A) most likely caught the virus from a bite from an infected mosquito.
B) was diagnosed by detecting an increase in antibody titer to the virus.
C) is infected with a neurotropic virus.
D) is infected with a rare disease.
Q4) Fungal infections of the central nervous system are also known as ________.
Q5) The ________ collects data from the outside environment and communicates that information to the ________.
Q6) A small proteinaceous infectious particle is known as a ________.
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) A young child arrives at a local hospital with neck stiffness,nausea,and vomiting.The attending physician suspects bacterial meningitis and sends a sample of cerebrospinal fluid to the hospital laboratory.Which of the following actions would most quickly identify the bacterial species?
A) using sequential biochemical tests in which each test dictates the next test
B) carrying out a series of tests simultaneously and then interpreting the tests sequentially
C) plating the species first on selective media to eliminate the number of normal microbiota
D) obtaining a sequence of the patient's genome to determine his or her susceptibility to specific microbes
Q2) Twenty-five individuals with shigellosis are reported within a community.Which of the following pieces of information would be most useful to public health officials who are trying to stop the spread of this infection?
A) whether all individuals are infected with the same strain of bacteria
B) the antibiotic sensitivity of the causative agents
C) the complete health history of infected individuals
D) the day care centers attended by any children of infected individuals
Q3) Body sites that contain no microorganisms are considered to be ________.
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) How has the AIDS pandemic influenced reemerging diseases?
A) AIDS has increased the number of immunocompromised individuals who are susceptible to diseases that were previously declining in developed countries.
B) AIDS has led to an increase in the number of disease vectors throughout the world.
C) AIDS has increased the prevalence of protozoal and parasitic infections that were declining in underdeveloped countries.
D) AIDS has caused evolution to occur in diseases that were close to being eradicated in all countries.
Q2) What type of disease is reported by syndromic surveillance,and how does this type of surveillance fit into tracking global outbreaks of disease?
Q3) Which of the following statements is a description of the prevalence of chlamydia?
A) There are 57 active cases of chlamydia on a university campus.
B) There were 57 new cases of chlamydia on a university campus last week.
C) There were 123 new cases of chlamydia on a university campus last year.
D) Young women on a university campus are twice as likely as young men to develop chlamydia.
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
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Q1) A grocery store chain wants to respond to consumer demands to reduce the use of Styrofoam trays and plastic wrap used in vacuum-packed food packages.In which of the following foods will food quality be most affected by a reduction in the use of vacuum packages?
A) ground beef
B) pork chops
C) cheese
D) fresh herbs
Q2) Spoilage of food can alter the odor or taste of the food.Which of the following statements correctly matches a pathway to the spoilage that results?
A) Acidic fermentation leads to a bitter flavor.
B) Alkaline products from microbial metabolism leads to a sour flavor.
C) Oxidation of fats leads to rancidity.
D) Decomposition of proteins and amino acids leads to a salty flavor.
Q3) Shifting a cow's diet results in a(n)
A) change in the pathway of digestion through the cow's four stomach chambers.
B) change in the microbial populations present within the cow's gut.
C) increase in antibiotic-resistant bacteria found in the environment.
D) decrease in the amount of water and short-chain acids absorbed in the omasum.
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