Introductory Geology Final Exam
Course Introduction
Introductory Geology offers students a comprehensive overview of Earth's physical structure, materials, and the dynamic processes that shape our planet. The course covers the identification and classification of minerals and rocks, plate tectonics, volcanism, earthquakes, erosion, and surface processes. Students will explore the history of the Earth, the formation of landscapes, natural resources, and the impact of human activities on geological systems. Hands-on activities and laboratory exercises reinforce concepts and provide practical experience in observation, data collection, and analysis within the geosciences.
Recommended Textbook
EARTH 1st Edition by Graham R. Thompson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Earth Systems
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Q1) The increased carbon dioxide level has raised the Earth's average temperature by __________°C since the Industrial Revolution.
Answer: 0.6
Q2) All of Earth's spheres continuously exchange matter and energy. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Ground water saturating rock underground is a component of the: A) atmosphere.
B) hydrosphere.
C) biosphere.
D) geosphere.
Answer: B
Q4) The __________ of the Earth is a thin, rigid surface veneer that lies above the mantle.
Answer: crust
Q5) The Earth's core is composed of hot, partially molten granite. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Minerals
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Q1) __________ __________ are a small class of minerals, including gold and silver.
Answer: Native elements
Q2) Which of the following describes a crystal?
A) a substance whose atoms are arranged irregularly
B) a substance whose atoms are arranged in a regular, orderly, periodically repeated pattern
C) any pure substance
D) any solid containing randomly oriented sodium and chlorine ions
Answer: B
Q3) Minerals whose chemical elements include carbon and oxygen as a major part of their chemical composition are called __________.
Answer: carbonates
Q4) Feldspar makes up:
A) about 50 percent of the Earth's crust.
B) 10 percent of the Earth's crust.
C) about 35 percent of the Earth's crust.
D) 0.05 percent of the Earth's crust.
Answer: A
Q5) Ninety-two percent of the Earth's crust is composed of __________ minerals.
Answer: silicate
4
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Chapter 3: Rocks
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Q1) The most common cements in sedimentary rocks are calcite, quartz, and iron oxides.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Sandstone, siltstone, and shale are __________ rocks.
A) clastic sedimentary
B) organic sedimentary
C) chemical sedimentary
D) metamorphic
Answer: A
Q3) Bioclastic sediment consists of:
A) broken shell fragments and similar remains of living organisms.
B) dissolved ions.
C) precipitated minerals.
D) solidified magma.
Answer: A
Q4) Most of the oceanic crust is made up of __________, whereas most of the continental crust is composed of __________.
Answer: basalt, granite
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Chapter 4: Geologic Time: a Story in the Rocks
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Q1) Younger layers of sediment always accumulate on top of older layers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Permian extinction occurred at the end of the:
A) Paleozoic Era.
B) Mesozoic Era.
C) Cenozoic Era.
D) Proterozoic Eon.
Q3) The longer the time span that a species existed, the more precisely an index fossil can be used to determine the age of a rock.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The principle of __________ states that most sediment is deposited as nearly horizontal beds.
A) superposition
B) original horizontality
C) limited horizontality
D) faunal succession
Q5) Dinosaurs evolved during the __________ Era.
Q6) During a __________ __________, many life-forms on Earth die out suddenly.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Geologic Resources
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Q1) __________ is any rock sufficiently enriched in one or more minerals to be mined profitably.
Q2) Hydrothermal processes are probably responsible for the formation of __________ ore deposits than other processes.
A) less
B) much less
C) about the same amount of
D) more
Q3) Often, early-formed minerals sink to the bottom of a magma chamber in a process called __________ __________.
Q4) An oil reservoir is most similar to:
A) an underground pool or lake.
B) a thick deposit of tar.
C) kerogen saturated shale.
D) an oil-soaked sponge.
Q5) Fossil fuels are:
A) formed from the remains of plants and animals.
B) renewable.
C) found mainly in igneous rocks.
D) being formed as rapidly as they are being consumed.
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Chapter 6: The Active Earth: Plate Tectonics
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Q1) Where two plates move horizontally toward each other, they form a __________ boundary.
A) convergent
B) rift
C) divergent
D) transform
Q2) The layer of the Earth that is as hot as the surface of the Sun is the inner __________.
Q3) Fossil distribution on continents had no bearing on Alfred Wegener's theory about continental drift.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Earth's outer core is:
A) cool and brittle.
B) composed of helium.
C) molten because the pressure is very high.
D) as hot as the surface of the Sun.
Q5) The asthenosphere is a rigid, brittle rock layer.
A)True
B)False
8
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Chapter 7: Earthquakes and the Earths Structure
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Q1) Geologists learned that the outer core is liquid because __________ do not travel through the outer core.
A) surface waves
B) tsunamis
C) P waves
D) S waves
Q2) P and S waves travel more rapidly in the crust than they do in the mantle below the asthenosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) No S waves pass through the center of the Earth because:
A) the crust absorbs all waves.
B) the outer core is liquid.
C) S waves travel only through liquids.
D) S waves are compressional waves.
Q4) A type of continuous, snail-like rock movement that occurs along parts of the San Andreas Fault is called __________ __________.
Q5) __________ are small earthquakes that precede a large quake by an interval ranging from a few seconds to a few weeks.
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Chapter 8: Volcanoes and Plutons
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Q1) A chaotic mixture of volcanic ash and rock fragments that is left behind when most of the gas escapes into the atmosphere during an ash flow and solidifies is called a/an
Q2) Granitic magma has longer chains of silicate tetrahedra than basaltic magma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mount St. Helens in the state of Washington is an example of a stratovolcano.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Granitic magma has a __________ melting temperature compared to basaltic magma.
A) lower B) higher C) equal
D) much higher
Q5) Granitic magma contains __________ water than basaltic magma.
Q6) Volcanic eruptions have no effect on global climate.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Explosively erupted rock particles or magma form __________ rock. Page 10
Q7) A/an __________ __________ is a small volcano composed of pyroclastic fragments.
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Chapter 9: Mountains
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Q1) The Himalayas are continuing to rise because of underthrusting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When a rock is stressed, it may deform plastically, or break by brittle fracture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The term __________ refers to the process of mountain building.
Q4) Rock that is caught at the junction of two converging plates is deformed by __________ stress.
A) divergent
B) tensional
C) compressive
D) shear
Q5) A/an __________ is a bend in rock.
Q6) A/an __________ __________ forms where two plates carrying oceanic crust converge.
Q7) Island arcs are abundant in the Pacific Ocean. A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Weathering, Soil, and Erosion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rust is an example of __________.
A) dissolution
B) hydrolysis
C) frost wedging
D) oxidation
Q2) Piles of talus found at the base of cliffs in high alpine areas are likely the result of:
A) chemical weathering.
B) pressure-relief fracturing.
C) abrasion.
D) frost wedging.
Q3) Erosion involves little or no movement of the decomposed rocks and minerals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In soils, leached ions and clay frequently accumulate in the:
A) B horizon.
B) O horizon.
C) A horizon.
D) C horizon.
Q5) __________ is the orientation of a slope with respect to the Sun.
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Chapter 11: Fresh Water: Streams, Lakes, Ground Water, and Wetlands
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Q1) Levees can create conditions that cause much larger floods in the long term.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A stream erodes its bank most rapidly on the outside of a curve.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Low-gradient streams flow in a series of bends called __________.
Q4) When a stream has a greater supply of sediment than it can carry, it:
A) stops overflowing its banks.
B) cuts a single channel.
C) forms a braided stream.
D) stops flowing.
Q5) __________ __________ is the portion of a stream's load transported along its bottom.
Q6) During a flood, a stream overflows its banks, and water covers the adjacent
A) point bar
B) alluvial fan
C) delta
D) flood plain
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Chapter 12: Water Resources
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Q1) Pollutants that do not decay naturally in a reasonable amount of time are classified as __________.
Q2) Most of the water in the Ogallala Aquifer accumulated during the Pleistocene.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The __________ __________ __________ comprises an arid and semiarid region between the western mountains and the 100° meridian in the United States.
Q4) Domestic water use accounts for about __________ percent of all water used in the United States.
A) 50
B) 38
C) 25
D) 10
Q5) A leaking septic tank is an example of __________ __________ pollution.
Q6) A/an __________ pollutant can be consumed and destroyed by organisms.
A) nonbiodegradable
B) biodegradable
C) radioactive
D) toxic organic
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Chapter 13: Glaciers and Ice Ages
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Q1) Sediment particles carried by a glacier are likely to be sharp and jagged.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most recent ice age occurred during the __________ Epoch.
Q3) A glacier that forms in mountainous terrain is a/an __________ glacier.
A) alpine
B) continental
C) marine
D) erratic
Q4) __________ is sediment that was first transported by a glacier and then transported and deposited by a stream.
A) Bedrock
B) Till
C) Stratified drift
D) An erratic rock
Q5) When a glacier retreats steadily, it deposits a/an __________ moraine.
A) medial
B) terminal
C) recessional
D) ground
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Chapter 14: Deserts and Wind
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Q1) A streambed that is dry most of the year is called a __________.
A) playa
B) spring
C) bajada
D) wash
Q2) A desert is defined as any region that receives less than __________ centimeters of rain per year.
A) 25
B) 28
C) 31
D) 35
Q3) The growth of a desert by human mismanagement is called __________.
Q4) The leeward side of a dune is called the __________ face.
A) slip
B) shadow
C) saltation
D) ocean
Q5) Deserts never occur along coastlines.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Ocean Basins
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Q1) Most of layer 3 of the oceanic crust is composed of __________.
A) pelagic sediment
B) pillow basalt
C) gabbro
D) terrigenous sediment
Q2) The west coast of South America is a passive continental margin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Oceans do not affect global climate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An oceanic island:
A) rises isostatically as it becomes older.
B) is a seamount that rises above sea level.
C) is a guyot that forms adjacent to a hot spot.
D) is composed entirely of terrigenous sediment.
Q5) A/an __________ __________ is a deep trough in the crest of many mid-ocean ridges.
Q6) __________ __________ is a mixture of clay carried from continents and the remains of tiny plants and animals that live in the surface waters of the oceans.
Page 19
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Chapter 16: Oceans and Coastlines
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Q1) The wave height is the:
A) highest part of a wave.
B) distance between successive crests.
C) fetch of a wave.
D) vertical distance between the crest and the trough of a wave.
Q2) The size of waves depends on:
A) wind speed, length of time the wind has been blowing, and fetch.
B) wind speed, length of time the wind has been blowing, and ocean color.
C) wind speed, fetch, and ocean color.
D) length of time the wind has been blowing, fetch, and ocean color.
Q3) Surface water becomes denser when it becomes __________ and __________.
A) warm, salty
B) warm, less salty
C) cool, salty
D) cool, less salty
Q4) Eustatic sea-level change occurs because of:
A) the growth or melting of glaciers.
B) changes in the volume of the Mid-Oceanic Ridge.
C) changes in water temperature.
D) all of the above
Page 20
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Chapter 17: The Atmosphere
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Q1) A first rapid increase of oxygen in the atmosphere (the First Great Oxidation Event) occurred about __________ years ago.
A) 4.4 billion
B) 2.4 billion
C) 1 billion
D) 600 million
Q2) The Earth's modern atmosphere:
A) is composed of 78 percent nitrogen.
B) does not filter high-energy ultraviolet rays.
C) is similar to that found on Venus.
D) is composed of 80 percent oxygen.
Q3) If pure coal burned completely, it would produce:
A) carbon dioxide and water.
B) benzene and toxic volatiles.
C) carbon dioxide, soot, and fly ash.
D) oxygen and water.
Q4) Acid precipitation forms when sulfur dioxide reacts with ozone in the stratosphere.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Energy Balance in the Atmosphere
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Q1) __________ __________ is the energy released or absorbed when a substance changes from one state to another.
Q2) __________ is the transport of heat by collisions between atoms and molecules.
Q3) A mirror has an albedo:
A) of 10 percent.
B) of 1 percent.
C) of almost 100 percent.
D) similar to that of a building.
Q4) Frequency means __________ per __________.
A) number of wave cycles, meter
B) wavelength, meter
C) number of wave cycles, second
D) wavelength, minute
Q5) If the air is filled with dust or water droplets, all of the wavelengths scatter, and the sky becomes red.
A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ is the transport of heat by currents in liquids or gases.
Q7) The Earth's surface emits __________ radiation, which has a relatively long wavelength and low frequency.
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Chapter 19: Moisture, Clouds, and Weather
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Q1) The rate at which air that is neither rising nor falling cools with elevation is called the __________ lapse rate.
A) dry adiabatic
B) wet adiabatic
C) normal
D) frontal
Q2) Since warm air can hold more moisture than cold air, clouds generally do not form over __________ regions.
A) low-pressure
B) mountainous
C) high-pressure
D) coastal
Q3) A/an __________ __________forms when a warm air mass is trapped between two colder air masses.
Q4) Once clouds start to form, rising air:
A) cools more quickly than it did lower in the atmosphere.
B) heats up.
C) turns into rain.
D) no longer cools as rapidly as it did lower in the atmosphere.
Q5) When relative humidity exceeds 100 percent, the air becomes __________.
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Chapter 20: Climate
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Q1) The subtropical jet stream flows along the polar front.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When warm air is heated by the Sun and rises at the equator, it:
A) is deflected by the Coriolis effect and sinks at the equator in the evening.
B) splits, travels poleward, is deflected by the Coriolis effect, and sinks at 30° north and south latitudes.
C) splits and travels poleward, moving due north and south.
D) travels at high elevation, is deflected by the Coriolis effect, and sinks at the poles.
Q3) The __________-cell model of global wind circulation shows cells of global airflow bordered by alternating bands of high and low pressure.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
Q4) Air rises at the convergence of the prevailing westerlies and the polar easterlies, forming a low-pressure boundary zone called the __________ __________.
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Chapter 21: Climate Change
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Q1) The most useful of the methods listed below for determining paleotemperatures one billion years ago is:
A) measuring oxygen isotope ratios in Greenland ice.
B) studying rocks and fossils.
C) studying historical records.
D) counting tree rings.
Q2) Since the Earth formed, solar energy output:
A) has slowly decreased.
B) has slowly increased.
C) has first increased, then decreased.
D) hasn't changed at all.
Q3) Water in the atmosphere can cause both warming and cooling.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When sea level rises, the global albedo __________, leading to a/an __________ in global temperature.
A) increases, increase
B) increases, decrease
C) decreases, decrease
D) decreases, increase
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Chapter 22: Motions in the Heavens
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Q1) If we knew that the Sun rose every morning in the east and set every evening in the west, approximately 12 hours later, but we had no other information, which of the following conclusions would be reasonable?
A) The Sun orbits around the Earth once every 365 days.
B) The Sun orbits around the Earth once every 24 hours.
C) The Earth orbits around the Sun once every 365 days.
D) The Earth rotates on its axis once every 365 days.
Q2) Absorption spectra can be used to detect:
A) the chemical composition of a star.
B) temperature and pressures in the core of a star.
C) the mass of a star.
D) the age of a star.
Q3) The dipper is a __________ in Earth's night sky.
A) concentration
B) consternation
C) confusion
D) constellation
Q4) Ptolemy modified the celestial sphere model to incorporate __________
Q5) __________ first proposed the heliocentric Universe.
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Chapter 23: Planets and Their Moons
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Q1) Jupiter's middle layer, between its core and outer sea of liquid hydrogen, is composed of __________ __________ __________.
Q2) The rings of Saturn are believed to be:
A) an auroral display of ionized gases.
B) small particles of dust, rock, and ice.
C) the remains of a hurricane-like storm that was first recorded by Galileo.
D) particles of pure ice.
Q3) __________ is the most active volcanic body in the Solar System.
A) Venus
B) Io
C) Europa
D) Titan
Q4) The Jovian planets-Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune-have retained most of their hydrogen, helium, and other light elements.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune have retained large amounts of hydrogen and helium and are called the __________ __________.
Q6) Venus is much hotter than Earth because of a runaway __________
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Chapter 24: Stars, Space, and Galaxies
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Q1) A red giant:
A) has an extremely hot surface.
B) has an inner core of fusing hydrogen.
C) has a surface of fusing helium.
D) is hundreds of times larger than an ordinary star.
Q2) Astronomers detected in the mid to late 1990s that the Universe in contracting.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Stars and galaxies emit __________ generation energy.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
Q4) Spherical clouds of dust and gas, called a __________ __________, surround the Milky Way's galactic disk.
Q5) Originally, all of the stars in the Universe were composed of hydrogen and carbon.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The Sun is composed primarily of hydrogen and __________.
Page 28
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