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Introductory Chemistry Question Bank - 2174 Verified Questions

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Introductory Chemistry Question

Bank

Course Introduction

Introductory Chemistry provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles and concepts that underpin the study of chemistry. This course covers essential topics such as atomic and molecular structure, chemical reactions, stoichiometry, the periodic table, bonding, states of matter, and basic thermochemistry. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving skills, laboratory techniques, and scientific reasoning to prepare students for more advanced study in chemistry and related fields. Laboratory sessions and real-world examples help students connect theoretical knowledge with practical applications in everyday life and other scientific disciplines.

Recommended Textbook

Fundamentals of General Organic and Biological Chemistry 7th Edition by John E. McMurry

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29 Chapters

2174 Verified Questions

2174 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Matter and Measurements

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which choice best describes the degree of uncertainty in the measurement 16.30 g?

A)The uncertainty cannot be determined without additional information.

B)The quantity is exact.

C)±1.00 g

D)±0.10 g

E)±0.01 g

Answer: E

Q2) If 55.0 g of olive oil has 877 cal of heat added to it at a room temperature of 26.0°C,what will be the final temperature of the olive oil? The specific heat of olive oil is 2.19 cal/g°C.

A)33.3°C

B)7.3°C

C)19.0°C

D)26.0°C

Answer: A

Q3) Is 25 kilometers per liter good gas mileage for a VW Rabbit diesel? Hint: How do we measure mileage in the English system?

Answer: It's good: 59 miles/gal.

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Chapter 2: Atoms and the Periodic Table

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Sample Questions

Q1) An atom containing 29 protons,29 electrons,and 34 neutrons has a mass number of A)5.

B)29.

C)34.

D)58.

E)63.

Answer: E

Q2) Protons possess a ________ charge,and neutrons possess a ________ charge.

A)negative,negative

B)negative,positive

C)positive,negative

D)positive,zero

E)zero,positive

Answer: D

Q3) The correct order for filling orbitals with electrons is ________.

A)1s,2s,2p,3s,3d,4s,3p

B)1s,2s,3s,4s,2p,3p,3d

C)1s,2s,2p,3s,3p,4s,3d

D)1s,2s,3d,2p,3p,3s,4s

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Ionic Compounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) The correct Roman numeral for the chromium ion in the compound

CrCl<sub>3</sub> is

A)I

B)II

C)III

D)IV

Answer: C

Q2) The name of Sn<sup>2+</sup> is ________ ion or ________ ion.

A)tin; stannous

B)tin(IV); stannic

C)tin(II); stannic

D)tin(IV); stannous

E)tin(II); stannous

Answer: E

Q3) Which of the following formulas in incorrect for a cobalt(III)compound?

A)CoCO<sub>3</sub>

B)CoCl<sub>3</sub>

C)Co<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>

D)CoPO<sub>4</sub>

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Molecular Compounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) The formula for sulfur hexabromide is ________.

A)SF<sub>6</sub>

B)SBr<sub>6</sub>

C)SBr<sub>4</sub>

D)SiBr<sub>6</sub>

E)SiB<sub>6</sub>

Q2) A chemical bond formed when two atoms share one pair of electrons is a ________ bond; it is best described as ________.

A)double; covalent

B)double; ionic

C)single; covalent

D)single; ionic

E)triple; covalent

Q3) A molecule in which the central atom forms three single bonds and has one lone pair is said to have a ________ shape.

A)bent

B)linear

C)planar

D)pyramidal

E)tetrahedral

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Chapter 5: Classification and Balancing of Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) LX (aq)+ MY (aq) LY (s)+ MX (aq)

A)redox

B)acid-base

C)precipitation

Q2) All of the reactions shown are oxidation-reduction reactions except

A)N<sub>2</sub> (g)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g) 2 NO(g).

B)2 Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> (s) 4 Fe(s)+ 3 O<sub>2</sub>(g).

C)Zn(s)+ 2 HCl(aq) ZnCl<sub>2</sub> (aq)+ H<sub>2</sub> (g).

D)2 NaI(aq)+ Cl<sub>2</sub> (g) 2 NaCl(aq)+ I<sub>2</sub>.

E)K<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (aq)+ BaCl<sub>2</sub> (aq) BaSO<sub>4</sub> (s)+ 2 KCl(aq).

Q3) What are the spectator ions in the reaction between KOH and HNO<sub>3</sub>?

A)K<sup>+</sup> and H<sup>+</sup>

B)H<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup>

C)K<sup>+</sup> and NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>

D)H<sup>+</sup>and NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>

Q4) M (s)+ 2 LX (aq) 2 L (s)+ MX<sub>2</sub> (aq)

A)redox

B)acid-base

C)precipitation

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Chapter 6: Chemical Reactions: Mole and Mass

Relationships

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Sample Questions

Q1) A solution containing 145.0 g AgNO<sub>3</sub> is mixed with a CaCl<sub>2</sub> solution and 98.4 of AgCl is recovered.Calculate the % yield of the reaction.

A)40.16%

B)61.11%

C)61.99%

D)80.44%

E)161.3%

Q2) Which statement concerning the mole is not correct?

A)The molar mass of any compound is equal to its molecular weight in grams.

B)A mole of metal contains N<sub>A</sub> atoms of that metal.

C)A mole of any compound contains one mole of each kind of atom found in that compound.

D)A mole of a diatomic element contains 2 × N<sub>A</sub> moles of atoms of the element.

E)All of these statements are correct.

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Chapter 7: Chemical Reactions: Energy, rates, and Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) A process which is unfavorable with respect to enthalpy,but favorable with respect to entropy

A)could occur at low temperatures,but not at higher temperatures.

B)could occur at high temperatures,but not at lower temperatures.

C)could not occur regardless of temperature.

D)could occur at any temperature.

E)none of the above

Q2) A process or reaction that has a negative value of G

A)exergonic

B)endergonic

C)exothermic

D)endothermic

E)activation energy

F)chemical equilibrium

Q3) All of the statements are true for spontaneous reactions except

A)the value of G is less than zero.

B)the value of G is unaffected by a catalyst.

C)they are said to be exergonic.

D)if the enthalpy change is unfavorable,they occur at a high temperature.

Page 9

E)the reaction rate is determined by the value of G.

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Chapter 8: Gases, liquids, and Solids

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which pair of molecules has the strongest dipole-dipole interactions?

A)NH<sub>3</sub> and CH<sub>4</sub>

B)NH<sub>3</sub> and NH<sub>3</sub>

C)CH<sub>4</sub> and CH<sub>4</sub>

D)CO<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub>

E)CO<sub>2</sub> and CH<sub>4</sub>

Q2) Which of the following is the definition of standard temperature and pressure?

A)273°C and 760 torr

B)298 K and 1 atm

C)273 K and 760 mm Hg

D)0 K and 1 atm

Q3) Which process is exothermic?

A)gas liquid

B)liquid gas

C)solid liquid

D)solid gas

E)none of the above

Q4) List the five types of solids and at least two physical properties of each.Explain how the interparticle forces in that solid determine the properties you listed.

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Chapter 9: Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following should be immiscible with carbon tetrachloride,CCl<sub>4</sub>?

A)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>

B)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH

C)Br<sub>2</sub>

D)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>

E)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>

Q2) Which statement about solubility is not true?

A)No additional solute will dissolve in a saturated solution.

B)A supersaturated solution is unstable.

C)Solubility of ionic solids increases greatly with temperature.

D)In a solution containing excess solute,an equilibrium exists between dissolved and undissolved solute.

E)The solubility of substances is measured as g solute/100 mL solvent.

Q3) Which has the highest boiling point?

A)0.1 M Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>

B)0.1 M glucose,C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>

C)0.1 M MgCl<sub>2</sub>

D)0.1 M Al(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>

E)pure water

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Chapter 10: Acids and Bases

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Sample Questions

Q1) The classification of an acid or a base as weak or strong is determined by A)the solubility of the acid or base.

B)the extent of dissociation of the dissolved acid or base.

C)the concentrations of the acid or base.

D)more than one choice is correct.

Q2) The pH of a cup of coffee is measured as 5.45.Express this measurement as [H<sup>+</sup>],using the correct number of significant figures.

A)3.548 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M

B)3.55 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M

C)3.5 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M

D)4 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M

E)2.82 × 10<sup>5</sup> M

Q3) According to Brønsted-Lowry theory,acid-base reactions can be described as ________ reactions.

A)electrolytic

B)electron transfer

C)gas phase

D)nuclear transfer

E)proton transfer

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Chapter 11: Nuclear Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) The fission of an atom of uranium (or an atom of greater atomic number)can be induced by bombarding it with A)neutrons.

B)protons.

C)electrons.

D)positrons.

E)gamma rays.

Q2) The half-life of nickel-65 is 2.50 days.How much of a 100.-g sample remains after 7.50 days?

A)100.g

B)50.0 g

C)25.0 g

D)12.5 g

E)6.25 g

Q3) Diagnostic tracers form hot spots when they are prevented from entering diseased tissue.

A)True

B)False

Q4) List and describe four differences between nuclear reactions and ordinary chemical reactions.

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Introduction to Organic Chemistry: Alkanes

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the minimum number of carbons that must be present in a molecule to have a secondary carbon?

A)3

B)1

C)2

D)4

E)5

Q2) Alkanes are ________ in water and ________ than water.

A)insoluble,less dense

B)soluble,less dense

C)insoluble,more dense

D)soluble,more dense

Q3) Which of the statements about the behavior of the element carbon in organic molecules is incorrect?

A)Carbon can be involved in polar covalent bonds.

B)Carbon can form single,double,or triple bonds with other carbon atoms.

C)Carbon always forms four bonds.

D)When carbon forms four single bonds,the bond angles are 90°.

E)In addition to other carbon atoms,carbon is likely to form bonds with hydrogen,nitrogen,or oxygen.

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Chapter 13: Alkenes, alkynes, and Aromatic Compounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which choice represents the carbon skeleton of 2,5-octadiene?

A)C=C=C-C-C-C-C-C

B)C-C=C-C-C=C-C-C

C)C=C-C-C=C-C=C-C

D)C-C=C-C-C-C-C=C

E)C-C=C-C=C-C-C-C

Q2) An addition reaction can best be described as a reaction in which

A)a hydrogen reacts with oxygen to produce CO<sub>2</sub>,H<sub>2</sub>O,and energy.

B)two reactants combine to form one new product with no extra atoms.

C)a single reactant splits into two products.

D)two reactants exchange atoms to give two new products.

E)a single reactant undergoes reorganization of its chemical bonds,producing an isomer of the reactant.

Q3) What is the name of the product when 1-pentene reacts with Cl<sub>2</sub>?

A)1,1-dichloropentane

B)1,2-dichloropentane

C)2,2-dichloropentane

D)2,3-dichloropentane

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Chapter 14: Some Compounds With Oxygen, sulfur, or a Halogen

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Sample Questions

Q1) The common name of CH<sub>2</sub>(OH)CH<sub>2</sub>OH is A)grain alcohol.

B)wood alcohol.

C)rubbing alcohol.

D)ethylene glycol (antifreeze).

E)glycerol.

Q2) Compounds with the -OH group attached to a saturated alkane-like carbon are known as A)alcohols.

B)alkyl halides.

C)ethers.

D)hydroxyls.

E)phenols.

Q3) What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>

A)1,2-etherbutane

B)methyl propyl ether

C)propyl methyl ether

D)butyl ether

E)isobutyl ether

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Amines

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which compound is a primary amine?

A)trimethylamine

B)diethylamine

C)isopropylamine

D)N,N-dimethylethylamine

E)N-ethyl-N-methylpropylamine

Q2) When the nitrogen atom in an organic compound has four covalent bonds,it is called a

A)primary amine.

B)secondary amine.

C)tertiary amine.

D)quaternary ammonium ion.

E)tetraammine.

Q3) Which molecule listed is heterocyclic?

A)aniline

B)phenol

C)pyridine

D)benzoic acid

E)naphthalene

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Chapter 16: Aldehydes and Ketones

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

A)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH

B)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CHO

C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>

D)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH

E)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>

Q2) Which observation denotes a positive Tollens' test?

A)The light blue color of the reagent disappears.

B)A brick-red precipitate forms.

C)A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

D)A silver wire dissolves.

E)Bubbles of oxygen gas are produced.

Q3) All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except

A)oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

B)oxidation of ketones produces esters.

C)Tollens' test involves reduction of Ag<sup>+</sup>.

D)Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu<sup>2+</sup>.

E)none of the above

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Chapter 17: Carboxylic Acids and Their Derivatives

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most common reactions of carboxylic acids or their derivatives involve

A)addition across the double bond between carbon and oxygen.

B)replacement of the oxygen atom in the carbonyl group.

C)replacement of the group bonded to the carbonyl atom.

D)oxidation of the R group.

E)reduction of the R group.

Q2) When an amide is hydrolyzed under acidic conditions,the products are

A)an amine and a carboxylic acid.

B)an amine and a carboxylate ion.

C)an ammonium ion and a carboxylate ion.

D)an ammonium ion and a carboxylic acid.

E)There is no reaction.

Q3) Reaction of an ester with a strong base is called

A)reverse esterification.

B)esterification.

C)saponification.

D)oxidation.

E)condensation.

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Chapter 18: Amino Acids and Proteins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which amino acid is a secondary amine with its nitrogen and the alpha-carbon joined as part of a ring structure?

A)arginine

B)glycine

C)histidine

D)lysine

E)proline

Q2) All of the following are examples of fibrous proteins except A)wool.

B)fingernails.

C)skin.

D)insulin.

E)bones.

Q3) Which amino acid is classified as neutral and non-polar?

A)aspartic acid

B)histidine

C)phenylalanine

D)lysine

E)tyrosine

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Chapter 19: Enzymes and Vitamins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which term identifies the relatively small portion of the enzyme that is directly involved in the biochemical reaction being catalyzed?

A)substrate

B)active site

C)N-terminal

D)C-terminal

E)precursor

Q2) The genetic control strategy of enzyme control is most useful for production of enzymes that

A)act as hydrolases.

B)function for only one specific reaction.

C)are produced as zymogens.

D)require vitamins as cofactors.

E)are needed only at certain stages of development.

Q3) All of the following vitamins are fat soluble except

A)Vitamin A.

B)Vitamin K.

C)Vitamin C.

D)Vitamin D.

E)Vitamin E.

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Chapter 20: The Generation of Biochemical Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following does not undergo oxidation-reduction reactions?

A)ATP

B)NADH

C)NADPH

D)FAD

Q2) Which statement is true concerning the relationship between FAD and FADH<sub>2</sub>?

A)FADH<sub>2</sub> is the oxidized form of FAD.

B)FADH<sub>2</sub> is the reduced form of FAD.

C)The conversion of FADH<sub>2</sub> to FAD is an acid/base reaction.

D)The conversion of FADH<sub>2 </sub>to FAD is a cyclization reaction.

E)none of the above

Q3) The purpose of coupling two biochemical reactions is to

A)lower the activation energies of both reactions.

B)convert an endergonic reaction to an exergonic one.

C)convert an exergonic reaction to an endergonic one.

D)use an endergonic reaction to drive an exergonic reaction.

E)use an exergonic reaction to drive an endergonic reaction.

Q4) List and discuss the reasons that ATP is so useful as a biochemical energy transport molecule.

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Chapter 21: Carbohydrates

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Q1) Molecules such as erythrose and threose,which are stereoisomers but not mirror images,are referred to as a pair of ________.D- and L-threose are mirror images and are referred to as a pair of ________.

A)enantiomers; diastereomers

B)diastereomers; enantiomers

C)anomers; diastereomers

D)diastereomers; anomers

E)anomers; enantiomers

Q2) Sucrose is not a reducing sugar because its

A)hemiacetal groups cannot be converted to aldehyde groups.

B)disaccharide bond is an -1,4 linkage.

C)disaccharide bond is a -1,4 linkage.

D)disaccharide bond is a 1,2 anomeric link.

E)none of the above

Q3) ________ of glucose leads to gluconic acid.

A)Oxidation

B)Reduction

C)Isomerization

D)Glycosidation

E)Esterification

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Chapter 22: Carbohydrate Metabolism

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Q1) Conversion of dihydroxyacetone phosphate to D-glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is a(an)________.

A)isomerization

B)oxidation

C)reduction

D)esterification

E)condensation

Q2) The action of yeast on pyruvate is a process referred to as A)alcoholic fermentation.

B)aerobic oxidation.

C)glycolysis.

D)anaerobic reduction.

E)substrate-level phosphorylation.

Q3) When energy is needed and adequate oxygen is available,pyruvate is converted to

A)glucose

B)glycogen

C)lactate

D)ethanol

E)acetyl-SCoA

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Chapter 23: Lipids

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Sample Questions

Q1) A phospholipid with the phosphate ester group bonded to choline would be classified as a A)cephalin.

B)lecithin.

C)sphingomyelin.

D)cerebroside.

E)ganglioside.

Q2) In chemical terms,soaps can best be described as

A)simple esters of fatty acids.

B)mixed esters of fatty acids.

C)salts of carboxylic acids.

D)long chain acids.

E)bases formed from glycerol.

Q3) The difference in chemical structure between cerebrosides and gangliosides is that gangliosides

A)have larger fatty acid molecules than cerebrosides.

B)contain more complex carbohydrates than cerebrosides.

C)are found in many kinds of cells,but cerebrosides mainly in brain cells.

D)are based on glycerol and cerebrosides on sphingosine.

E)are based on sphingosine and cerebrosides on glycerol.

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Chapter 24: Lipid Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Ketone bodies are primarily produced in ________ cells.

A)brain

B)heart

C)liver

D)kidney

E)red blood

Q2) Which molecule is not a ketone body?

A)acetoacetate

B)acetone

C)3-hydroxybutyrate

D)methyl ethyl ketone

E)They are all ketone bodies.

Q3) Glycerol produced as a byproduct of metabolism of lipids is converted to ________,which can be isomerized to a compound that can enter glycolysis or gluconeogenesis.

A)fatty acids

B)citrate

C)dihydroxyacetone phosphate

D)acetone

E)carbon dioxide

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Chapter 25: Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following are associated with replication of DNA except A)DNA polymerase.

B)DNA ligase.

C)hydrogen bonds.

D)replication fork.

E)amino acids.

Q2) When a -N-glycosidic bond forms between guanine and deoxyribose,the resulting molecule is called A)riboguanine.

B)deoxyriboguanine.

C)deoxyriboguanosine. D)guanosine.

E)deoxyguanidine.

Q3) What is the complementary strand for a single DNA strand with the sequence TCGA?

A)TGCA

B)AGCT

C)CTAC

D)GATC

E)TCGA

Q4) Explain the term base pairing and its relationship to replication of DNA.

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Chapter 26: Genomics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a coding portion of DNA?

A)exon

B)centromere

C)intron

D)telomere

E)none of the above

Q2) A gene is a(an)

A)complex of DNA and histones formed in a cell nucleus before cell division.

B)segment of DNA that directs synthesis of a specific peptide or protein.

C)list of locations of markers that relate to inheritable traits.

D)set of identical copies of DNA segments from a single ancestor.

E)ordered list of the nucleotides in a segment of DNA.

Q3) A gene mutation that involves a change of one base in the DNA is called a _______ mutation

A)missense

B)frameshift

C)point

D)nonsense

Q4) Explain the difference between polymorphisms and mutations.

Q5) Discuss the importance of telomeres in cell death and in cancer.

28

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Chapter 27: Protein and Amino Acid Metabolism

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47 Verified Questions

47 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/65903

Sample Questions

Q1) Gout is a disease state that results from the precipitation of compounds containing ________ in joints in the hands and feet.

A)urate

B)urea

C)glutamate

D)oxalate

E)acetate

Q2) Complementary sources of protein are

A)single foods that contain all of the essential amino acids.

B)single foods that contain all of the nonessential amino acids.

C)single foods that contain none of the essential amino acids.

D)single foods that contain none of the nonessential amino acids.

E)combinations of foods that provide all of the amino acids,both essential and nonessential.

Q3) In the anabolism of amino acids,________ is the source of the amine group.

A)aspartate

B)urea

C)glutamate

D)arginine

E)phenylalanine

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Chapter 28: Chemical Messengers: Hormones, neurotransmitters, and Drugs

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73 Verified Questions

73 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/65904

Sample Questions

Q1) The chemical structure of steroid hormones includes A)ten or fewer amino acids.

B)10-50 amino acids.

C)a carboxylic acid group and an alpha-hydroxy group.

D)an aromatic ring and an alkene group.

E)a central structure of four connected rings.

Q2) All of the following types of molecules function as chemical messengers in the body except

A)polypeptide hormones such as insulin.

B)steroid hormones such as progesterone.

C)neurons,including axons and dendrons.

D)amino acid derivatives classified as catecholamines.

E)neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine.

Q3) A drug that interacts with a receptor to block or inhibit its normal response is a(an) A)agonist.

B)amino acid derivative.

C)antagonist.

D)hormone.

E)steroid.

Page 30

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Chapter 29: Body Fluids

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63 Verified Questions

63 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The amino acid that is the precursor to the substance associated with the inflammatory response is

A)antihistamine.

B)histamine.

C)histidine.

D)proline.

E)phenylalanine.

Q2) extracellular fluid

A)any substance that is foreign to the body and therefore causes an immune response

B)a protein molecule that identifies foreign substances and mediates certain immune responses

C)an abnormal condition in which the acidity of the blood is higher than normal and the pH is lower

D)fluid inside cells

E)fluid outside of cells,such as blood plasma or interstitial fluid

F)an abnormal condition in which the acidity of the blood is lower than normal and the pH is higher

Q3) Distinguish between inflammatory and immune responses to antigens.

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