Introductory Chemistry
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Introductory Chemistry provides students with a foundational understanding of chemical principles and concepts essential for further study in the sciences. The course covers the structure of atoms and molecules, fundamental chemical reactions, the periodic table, stoichiometry, states of matter, chemical bonding, and basic thermodynamics. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving skills, applying scientific reasoning, and understanding the relevance of chemistry in everyday life and various scientific fields. Laboratory experiments complement theoretical learning, reinforcing concepts through hands-on experience and fostering scientific inquiry and safety.
Recommended Textbook
Introductory Chemistry 6th Edition by Nivaldo J. Tro
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19 Chapters
2138 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Chemical World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scientific theories are also called models.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A good definition of chemistry is:
A)the science that seeks to understand what matter does by studying what atoms and molecules do.
B)the science that seeks to understand what living organisms do by studying the molecules that make up the organism.
C)the science that seeks to understand what the universe does by studying interactions of molecules with atoms.
D)the science that seeks to understand the interactions of molecules for the sake of advancing human control over nature.
E)none of the above
Answer: A
Q3) A hypothesis can never be proven as wrong.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Measurement and Problem Solving
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many significant figures should be reported in the answer to the following calculation? (43.980)× (19.0023 + 25)= A)3 B)2
C)4
D)1
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) A conversion factor is a fraction with one unit on top and a different unit on the bottom.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The prefix micro represents the multiplier 0.001.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Matter and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The energy of position is called kinetic energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) If you hold a solid piece of pure gallium metal in your hand,your body heat will melt the gallium into its liquid form.This illustrates which of the following?
A)distillation
B)physical change
C)chemical change
D)chemical property
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following statements about physical and chemical changes is FALSE?
A)In a chemical change,matter changes its composition.
B)In a physical change,matter does not change its composition.
C)Phase changes are always physical changes.
D)Chemical reactions are chemical changes.
E)All of the above statements are true.
Answer: E
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Atoms and Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fictional element has two isotopes,each making up 50% of the population.Isotope 1 has a mass of 80.0 amu,Isotope 2 has a mass of 85.0 amu.Calculate the atomic mass of the fictional element.
A)82.5 amu
B)42.5 amu
C)40 amu
D)165 amu
E)none of the above
Q2) When an atom loses an electron,the resulting particle is called:
A)a proton.
B)an anion.
C)a cation.
D)an isotope.
E)none of the above
Q3) J.J.Thomson discovered the existence of protons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ernest Rutherford proved the existence of electrons.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Molecules and Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct formula for the hypochlorite polyatomic ion?
A)ClO<sup>-</sup>
B)ClO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
C)ClO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
D)ClO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>
E)none of the above
Q2) The oxygen-to-hydrogen mass ratio of water is always 8.0 is an example of what fundamental law?
A)Law of Constant Composition
B)Law of Constant Mass Ratio
C)Law of Conservation of Mass
D)Law of Constant Whole Number Ratio
E)none of the above
Q3) How many carbon atoms are in the formula Al<sub>2</sub>(CO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>? A)3 B)9
E)none of the above
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Chapter 6: Chemical Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The empirical formula for C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub> is C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>3</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One mole of nitrogen gas contains (2)× (6.022 × 10<sup>23</sup>)nitrogen atoms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One mole of I<sub>2</sub> has more atoms in it than one mole of Na.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the mass of 3.09 × 10<sup>24</sup> atoms of sulfur in grams?
A)9.64 × 10<sup>22</sup>
B)9.91 × 10<sup>25</sup>
C)165
D)0.160
E)none of the above
Q5) One mole of CO<sub>2</sub> gas contains 1 mole of carbon atoms and 2 moles of oxygen atoms.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following equation IS balanced: 2 C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>O + 13 O<sub>2</sub> 8 CO2 + 10 H<sub>2</sub>O
A)True
B)False
Q2) A reaction which forms a solid product is an example of a(n):
A)oxidation-reduction reaction.
B)combustion reaction.
C)precipitation reaction.
D)gas evolution reaction.
E)none of the above
Q3) When the equation __Ca<sub>3</sub>N<sub>2</sub> + __H<sub>2</sub>O __Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub> + __NH<sub>3</sub> is balanced,the coefficient of H<sub>2</sub>O is:
A)2
B)3
C)6
D)12
E)none of the above
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Chapter 8: Quantities in Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If it takes 2 cups of milk and 1 cup of cocoa mix to make three servings of hot chocolate,and you only have 1 cup of each,then you cannot make any hot chocolate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For the following reaction you have 8 grams of hydrogen and 2 grams of oxygen. 2H<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> 2H<sub>2</sub>O
The excess reactant is the oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Given the recipe: 2 cups flour + 1 egg + 3 oz blueberries 4 muffins. You can make 9 muffins from 3.5 cups of flour.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Given the reaction: 2 Na(s)+ Cl<sub>2</sub>(g) 2 NaCl(s)
The conversion factor for chlorine gas to sodium metal is: 2 mol Cl 2 mol Na
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Electrons in Atoms and the Periodic Table
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many core electrons are in a chlorine atom?
A)1
B)17
C)10
D)7
E)none of the above
Q2) Bromine has 28 core electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The element manganese (symbol = Mn)has five valence electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the highest frequency?
A)Radio Waves
B)Microwaves
C)X-rays
D)Gamma Rays
E)Infrared Radiation
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Chapter 10: Chemical Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about Lewis structures is FALSE?
A)An octet is when an atom has 8 valence electrons.
B)A duet is a stable electron configuration for helium.
C)An ionic bond occurs when electrons are transferred.
D)A covalent bond occurs when electrons are shared.
E)All of the above statements are true.
Q2) When you have 4 electron groups and none of them are lone pairs,the molecular geometry is trigonal pyramidal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Lewis model predicts that the formula for a compound between barium and sulfur is:
A)BaS
B)Ba<sub>2</sub>S
C)BaS<sub>2</sub>
D)BaS<sub>3</sub>
E)none of the above
Q4) Lewis structures only use the valence electrons in determining the bonding.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pedometer is a device created by Torricelli to measure pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vapor pressure of water increases with increasing temperature because the higher temperature causes more water molecules to evaporate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A gas may not behave ideally under conditions of low pressure or high temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A 22.4 liter sample of gas at standard temperature and pressure conditions contains 1 mole of gas particles.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The molar volume of any gas at conditions of standard temperature and pressure is 22.4 liters.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Liquids, solids, and Intermolecular Forces
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Sample Questions
Q1) A situation where two opposite processes are occurring at equal rates,and no net change is taking place,is called:
A)vaporization.
B)condensation.
C)evaporation.
D)dynamic equilibrium.
E)none of the above
Q2) If we supply additional heat to a solid in equilibrium with its liquid at the melting point,the thermal energy added is used to:
A)overcome the intermolecular forces that hold the solid together.
B)expand the solid.
C)change the liquid back to solid.
D)change solid to liquid.
E)raise the temperature of the solid above its melting point.
Q3) The melting point is reached when sufficient energy has been added to the molecules in a substance to overcome the intermolecular forces holding them stationary.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Solutions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sugar solutions conduct electricity because the dissolved particles are molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Adding a nonvolatile solute to a liquid will cause boiling point depression and freezing point elevation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Osmotic pressure is:
A)the pressure required to stop the flow of solvent from a region of high solute concentration to a region of low solute concentration.
B)the pressure required to stop the rupture of the semipermeable membrane.
C)the pressure required to reverse the flow of solvent through a semipermeable membrane during osmosis.
D)the pressure required to stop the flow of solvent from a region of low solute concentration through a semipermeable membrane into a region of high solute concentration.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 14: Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the concentration of H<sup>+</sup> in a 0.121 M HCl solution?
A)1.0 x 10-<sup>14</sup> M
B)< 0.121 M
C)0.121 M
D)not enough information
E)none of the above
Q2) Which among the following acids is commonly used for etching and frosting glass?
A)hydrochloric acid
B)nitric acid
C)hydrofluoric acid
D)hydrobromic acid
E)All of the above are used.
Q3) Acid rain legislation targeted the release of which compound by industry?
A)CO<sub>2</sub>
B)SO<sub>2</sub>
C)dioxin
D)benzene
E)none of the above
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16
Chapter 15: Chemical Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) When dynamic equilibrium is achieved,the rates of the forward and backward reactions go to zero.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE about a chemical system in equilibrium?
A)No reaction takes place.
B)Temperature changes have no effect on reaction rate.
C)Addition of more reactants have no effect on reaction rate.
D)Reaction rate remains stable as long as temperature and pressure are stable.
E)none of the above
Q3) For the reaction 2 A B,the equilibrium concentrations are as follows: [A] = 0.056 M and [B] = 0.12 M.Calculate the equilibrium constant (K<sub>eq</sub>)for the reaction.
A)2.6 × 10<sup>-2</sup>
B)0.26
C)2.1
D)38
E)none of the above
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Chapter 16: Oxidation and Reduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rusting of iron is an example of the process known as corrosion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What must be done to the following half-reactions before they can be added together?
Mn (s) Mn <sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2e<sup>-</sup>
Fe <sup>3+</sup> (aq)+ 3 e<sup>-</sup> Fe (s)
A)Double the Mn half-reaction.
B)Double the Mn half-reaction and triple the Fe half-reaction.
C)Triple the Mn half-reaction and double the Fe half-reaction.
D)Add H<sup>+</sup> ions to the left-side of the Mn reaction.
E)none of the above
Q3) What is the oxidation state of sulfur in SO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>? A)0
Q4) Suggest two methods to reduce corrosion of a metal such as iron and briefly explain how each method works.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Radioactivity and Nuclear Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Uranium-235 is capable of undergoing a fission chain reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which fact about carbon-14 dating is FALSE?
A)C-14 is formed by neutron bombardment of nitrogen in the upper atmosphere.
B)C-14 dating can only work on items that come from a living source.
C)C-14 dating only works as far back as 50,000 years.
D)C-14 accuracy is verified by dating antique items of a known age.
E)All of the above statements are true.
Q3) A scintillation counter detects radioactivity by:
A)developing film which is exposed by radioactive particles.
B)emission of light from a NaI crystal when radioactivity passes through the crystal.
C)ionization of argon gas in a chamber which produces an electrical signal.
D)analyzing the mass and velocity of each particle.
E)none of the above
Q4) Nuclides that decay slowly have long half-lives.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
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Chapter 18: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) An open -chain (noncyclic)hydrocarbon will always have exactly twice as many hydrogen atoms as carbon atoms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Based on the molecular formulas shown below,which compound shown below could be classified as a cyclical alkane?
A)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>
B)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
C)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
D)C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>24</sub>
E)C<sub>9</sub>H<sub>20</sub>
Q3) The formula for ethyl propyl ether is:
CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub> A)True
B)False
Q4) Hydrocarbons contain carbon,hydrogen and oxygen.
A)True
B)False
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Biochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins are polymers of amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements correctly explains the formation of a peptide bond between two amino acids?
A)The amine end of one links with the amine end of the other.
B)The carboxylic acid end of one links with the carboxylic acid end of the other.
C)The amine end of one links with the carboxylic acid end of the other and eliminates a water molecule.
D)The carboxylic acid end of one links with the carboxylic acid end of the other and eliminates a water molecule.
E)none of the above
Q3) What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?
Q4) The bases on one strand of DNA pair with bases on the other strand of DNA through hydrogen bonding.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Summarize the main features of the four categories of protein structure.
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