
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Introductory Chemistry provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles and concepts that govern chemical phenomena. This course covers essential topics such as atomic structure, chemical bonding, periodic trends, stoichiometry, chemical reactions, states of matter, and basic thermochemistry. Students will also explore the practical applications of chemistry in everyday life, develop problem-solving skills, and gain experience with laboratory techniques and safety. Designed for those new to chemistry, this course prepares students for further study in the sciences.
Recommended Textbook Chemistry The Central Science 13th Edition by Theodore
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E. Brown

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Q1) The output of a plant is 4335 pounds of ball bearings per week (five days). If each ball bearing weighs 0.0113 g, how many ball bearings does the plant make in a single day? (Indicate the number in proper scientific notation with the appropriate number of significant figures.)
A)3.84 × 10<sup>5</sup>
B)7.67 × 10<sup>4</sup>
C)867
D)3.48 × 10<sup>7</sup>
E)2.91 × 10<sup>6</sup>
Answer: D
Q2) What is the volume (in cm<sup>3</sup>)of a 36.7 g piece of metal with a density of 6.95 g/cm<sup>3</sup>?
A)5.28
B)19.5
C).425
D)6.65
E)none of the above
Answer: A
Q3) Mass and volume are often referred to as ________ properties of substances. Answer: extensive
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Q1) Which of the following compounds would you expect to be ionic?
A)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
B)NH<sub>3</sub>
C)H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
D)LiBr
E)None of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) Of the three types of radioactivity characterized by Rutherford, which are particles?
A) -rays
B) -rays, -rays, and -rays
C) -rays
D) -rays and -rays
E) -rays and -rays
Answer: E
Q3) The formula for chromium (II)iodide is CrI<sub>2</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Write the balanced equation for the reaction that occurs when methanol, CH<sub>3</sub>OH (l), is burned in air. What is the coefficient of methanol in the balanced equation?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)3/2
Answer: B
Q2) Calculate the percentage by mass of lead in Pb(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>.
A)38.6
B)44.5
C)62.6
D)65.3
E)71.2
Answer: C
Q3) A compound was found to contain 90.6% lead (Pb)and 9.4% oxygen. The empirical formula for this compound is ________. Answer: Pb<sub>3</sub>O<sub>4</sub>
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Q1) When H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> is neutralized by NaOH in aqueous solution, the net ionic equation is ________.
A)SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup> (aq) + 2Na<sup>+</sup> (aq)
Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (aq)
B)SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup> (aq) + 2Na<sup>+</sup> (aq)
Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (s)
C)H<sup>+</sup> (aq) + OH<sup>-</sup> (aq) H<sub>2</sub>O (l)
D)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (aq) + 2OH<sup>-</sup> (aq) 2H<sub>2</sub>O (l) + SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup> (aq)
E)2H<sup>+</sup> (aq) + 2NaOH (aq) 2H<sub>2</sub>O (l) + 2Na<sup>+</sup> (aq)
Q2) What is the concentration (M)of sodium ions in 4.57 L of a 2.98 M
Na<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> solution?
Q3) HNO<sub>2</sub> is a strong acid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ammonia is a strong base.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The solvent in an aqueous solution is ________.
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Q1) A ________ H corresponds to an ________ process.
A)negative, endothermic
B)negative, exothermic
C)positive, exothermic
D)zero, exothermic
E)zero, endothermic
Q2) The specific heat capacity of lead is 0.13 J/g-K. How much heat (in J)is required to raise the temperature of 15 g of lead from 22 °C to 37 °C?
A)2.0 J
B)-0.13 J
C)5.8 × 10<sup>-4</sup> J
D)29 J
E)0.13 J
Q3) The kinetic energy of a 7.3 kg steel ball traveling at 18.0 m/s is ________ J.
A)1.2 × 10<sup>3</sup>
B)66
C)2.4 × 10<sup>3</sup>
D)1.3 × 10<sup>2</sup>
E)7.3
Q4) ________ is defined as the energy used to move an object against a force.
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Q1) Which group in the periodic table contains elements with the valence electron configuration of ns<sup>2</sup>np<sup>1</sup>?
A)1A
B)2A
C)3A
D)4A
E)8A
Q2) Of the following transitions in the Bohr hydrogen atom, the ________ transition results in the emission of the lowest-energy photon.
A)n = 1 n = 6
B)n = 6 n = 1
C)n = 6 n = 3
D)n = 3 n = 6
E)n = 1 n = 4
Q3) The largest principal quantum number in the ground state electron configuration of francium is ________.
Q4) The ground state electron configuration of scandium is ________.
Q5) The shape of an orbital is defined by the angular momentum quantum number which is represented as letter ________.
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Q1) All the elements in group 8A are gases at room temperature. Of all the groups in the periodic table, only group ________ contains examples of elements that are gas, liquid, and solid at room temperature.
A)2A
B)1A
C)7A
D)5A
E)6A
Q2) The reaction of a metal with a nonmetal produces a(n)________.
A)base
B)salt
C)acid
D)oxide
E)hydroxide
Q3) ________ is a unique element and does not truly belong to any family.
A)Nitrogen
B)Radium
C)Hydrogen
D)Uranium
E)Helium
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Q1) Bond enthalpy is ________.
A)always positive
B)always negative
C)sometimes positive, sometimes negative
D)always zero
E)unpredictable
Q2) Why don't we draw double bonds between the Be atom and the Cl atoms in BeCl<sub>2</sub>?
A)That would give positive formal charges to the chlorine atoms and a negative formal charge to the beryllium atom.
B)There aren't enough electrons.
C)That would result in more than eight electrons around beryllium.
D)That would result in more than eight electrons around each chlorine atom.
E)That would result in the formal charges not adding up to zero.
Q3) Based on the octet rule, phosphorus most likely forms a ________ ion.
A)P<sup>3+</sup>
B)P<sup>3-</sup>
C)P<sup>5+</sup>
D)P<sup>5-</sup>
E)P<sup>+</sup>
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Q1) The electron-domain geometry and molecular geometry of the nitrite ion are ________ and ________, respectively.
A)trigonal bipyramidal, trigonal planar
B)tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal
C)trigonal bipyramidal,T-shaped
D)trigonal planar, bent
E)T-shaped, trigonal planar
Q2) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in IF<sub>5</sub> is ________.
A)tetrahedral
B)square planar
C)square pyramidal
D)seesaw
E)trigonal bipyramidal
Q3) What is the molecular geometry of a molecule that has three bonding and two non-bonding domains?
Q4) The more unpaired electrons in a species, the stronger is the force of magnetic attraction. This is called ________.
Q5) What are the three bond angles in the trigonal bipyramidal structure?
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Q1) The volume of hydrogen gas at 45.0 °C and 699 torr that can be produced by the reaction of 5.66 g of zinc with excess sulfuric acid is ________ L.
A)2.84
B)2.71 × 10<sup>-4</sup>
C)3.69 × 10<sup>4</sup>
D)2.45
E)0.592
Q2) The volume of HCl gas required to react with excess magnesium metal to produce 6.82 L of hydrogen gas at 2.19 atm and 35.0 °C is ________ L.
A)6.82
B)2.19
C)13.6
D)4.38
E)3.41
Q3) A gas is considered "ideal" if one mole of it in a one-liter container exerts a pressure of exactly 1 atm at room temperature.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Of the following substances, ________ has the highest boiling point.
A)HOCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
B)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH C)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>
D)N<sub>2</sub>
E)Cl<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Cholesteric liquid crystals are colored because ________.
A)each molecule is a chromophore
B)of the slight twist between layers
C)of the large spacing between layers
D)of the large number of conjugated bonds
E)all of the molecules contain multiple benzene rings
Q3) The vapor pressure of a liquid ________.
A)increases linearly with increasing temperature
B)increases nonlinearly with increasing temperature
C)decreases linearly with increasing temperature
D)decreases nonlinearly with increasing temperature
E)is totally unrelated to its molecular structure
Q4) The direct conversion of a solid to a gas is called ________.
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Q1) What fraction of the volume of each corner atom is actually within the volume of a face-centered cubic unit cell?
A)1
B)1/2
C)1/4
D)1/8
E)1/16
Q2) Potassium metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic structure with a unit cell edge length of 5.31 Å. The radius of a potassium atom is ________ Å.
A)1.33
B)1.88
C)2.30
D)2.66
E)5.31
Q3) ________ are materials characterized by an energy gap between a filled valence band and an empty conduction band.
Q4) Polymers formed from two different monomers are called ________.
Q5) Write the chemical formulas for both polyethylene and the monomer from which it is formed.
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Q1) A solution is prepared by dissolving calcium chloride in water and diluting to 500.0 mL. If this solution contains 44 ppm chloride ions, the concentration of calcium ions is ________ ppm.
A)44
B)88
C)22
D)11
E)500
Q2) Calculate the mole fraction of HCl in a 7.20% (by mass)aqueous solution.
A)0.0369
B)0.0383
C)0.0739
D)0.0185
E)The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem.
Q3) Molality is defined as the ________.
A)moles solute/moles solvent
B)moles solute/liters solution
C)moles solute/kg solution
D)moles solute/kg solvent
E)none (dimensionless)
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Q1) Of the following, all are valid units for a reaction rate except ________.
A)mol/L
B)M/s
C)mol/hr
D)g/s
E)mol/L-hr
Q2) In general, as activation energy increases, reaction rate ________.
A)goes down if the reaction is exothermic
B)goes down if the reaction is endothermic
C)stays the same regardless of whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic
D)goes down regardless of whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic
E)none of the above
Q3) The rate of a second order reaction can depend on the concentrations of more than one reactant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Reaction rates are affected by reactant concentrations and temperature. This is accounted for by the ________.
Q5) The minimum energy to initiate a chemical reaction is the ________.
Q6) The Earth's ozone layer is located in the ________.
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Q1) The K<sub>p</sub> for the reaction below is 1.49 × 10<sup>8</sup> at 100.0 °C: CO (g)+ Cl<sub>2</sub> (g) COCl<sub>2</sub> (g)
In an equilibrium mixture of the three gases, P<sub>CO</sub> = P<sub>Cl</sub><sub>2</sub> = 1.00 × 10<sup>-4</sup> atm. The partial pressure of the product, phosgene (COCl<sub>2</sub>), is ________ atm.
A)1.49
B)1.49 × 10<sup>16</sup>
C)6.71 × 10<sup>-17</sup>
D)1.49 × 10<sup>4</sup>
E)1.49 × 10<sup>12</sup>
Q2) If the value for the equilibrium constant is much greater than 1, then the equilibrium mixture contains mostly ________.
Q3) The effect of a catalyst on a chemical reaction is to react with product, effectively removing it and shifting the equilibrium to the right.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a reaction is endothermic, ________ the reaction temperature results in an increase in K.
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Q1) Determine the pH of a 0.15 M aqueous solution of KF. For hydrofluoric acid, K<sub>a</sub> = 7.0 × 10<sup>-4</sup>.
A)0.82
B)5.83
C)8.17
D)5.01
E)1.17
Q2) The pH of a 0.10 M solution of a weak base is 9.82. What is the K<sub>b</sub> for this base?
A)2.1 × 10<sup>-4</sup>
B)4.4 × 10<sup>-8</sup>
C)8.8 × 10<sup>-8</sup>
D)6.6 × 10<sup>-4</sup>
E)2.0 × 10<sup>-5</sup>
Q3) Which solution below has the highest concentration of hydronium ions?
A)pH = 3.0
B)pH = 10
C)pH = 7.0
D)pH = 6.4
E)pH = 11.2
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Q1) A 25.0 mL sample of 0.150 M benzoic acid is titrated with a 0.150 M NaOH solution. What is the pH at the equivalence point? The K<sub>a</sub> of benzoic acid is 4.50 × 10<sup>-4</sup>.
A)11.20
B)9.80
C)4.20
D)7.00
E)8.54
Q2) The K<sub>a</sub> of benzoic acid is 6.30 × 10<sup>-5</sup>. The pH of a buffer prepared by combining 50.0 mL of 1.00 M potassium benzoate and 50.0 mL of 1.00 M benzoic acid is ________.
A)1.705
B)0.851
C)3.406
D)4.201
E)2.383
Q3) Calculate the pH of a buffer solution that contains 0.820 grams of sodium acetate and 0.010 moles of acetic acid in 100 ml of water. The K<sub>a</sub> of acetic acid is 1.77 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.
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Q1) The cumulative result of carbon dioxide, methane, and ozone in the troposphere on atmospheric temperatures is referred to as ________.
A)acid rain
B)the greenhouse effect
C)photoionization
D)photochemical smog
E)photodissociation
Q2) The partial pressure of a component in a gas mixture is the product of its mole fraction and the total mixture pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why does ozone not form in high concentrations in the atmosphere above 50 km?
A)Insufficient oxygen is available.
B)Insufficient molecules exist for removal of excess energy from ozone upon its formation.
C)Light of the required wavelength is not available at those altitudes.
D)Atomic oxygen concentration is too low at high altitudes.
E)The pressure is too high.
Q4) The production of dead and decaying plant material is a process called ________.
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Q1) The value of H° for the decomposition of calcium chloride into its constituent elements, CaCl<sub>2</sub> (s) Ca (s) + Cl<sub>2</sub> (g)
Is ________ kJ/mol.
A)0.00
B)-397.9
C)+397.9
D)-795.8
E)+795.8
Q2) For a given reaction, H = +74.6 kJ/mol, and the reaction is spontaneous at temperatures above the crossover temperature, 449 K. The value of S = ________ J/mol · K, assuming that H and S do not vary with temperature.
A)166
B)6020
C)-166
D)-6020
E)3.35 × 10<sup>4</sup>
Q3) Calculate G° for the autoionization of water at 25 °C. K<sub>w</sub> = 1.0 × 10<sup>-14</sup>
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Q1) The standard cell potential (E° cell)for the reaction below is +0.63 V. The cell potential for this reaction is ________ V when [ Zn<sup>2+</sup>] = 3.0 M and [Pb<sup>2+</sup>] = 2.0 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M. Pb<sup>2+</sup> (aq) + Zn (s) Zn<sup>2+</sup> (aq) + Pb (s)
A)0.51
B)0.86
C)0.40
D)0.75
E)0.63
Q2) The reduction half reaction occurring in the standard hydrogen electrode is
A)H<sub>2</sub> (g, 1 atm) 2H<sup>+</sup> (aq, 1M) + 2e<sup>-</sup>
B)2H<sup>+</sup> (aq) + 2OH<sup>-</sup> H<sub>2</sub>O (l)
C)O<sub>2</sub> (g) + 4H<sup>+</sup> (aq)+ 4e<sup>-</sup> 2H<sub>2</sub>O (l)
D)2H<sup>+</sup> (aq, 1M) + 2e<sup>-</sup> H<sub>2</sub> (g, 1 atm)
E)2H<sup>+</sup> (aq, 1M) + Cl<sub>2</sub> (aq) 2HCl (aq)
Q3) The potential (E)to move K<sup>+</sup> from the extracellular fluid to the intracellular fluid necessitates work. The sign for this potential is ________.
Q4) The major product of a hydrogen fuel cell is ________.
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Q1) Control rods in a nuclear reactor are composed of boron and ________.
Q2) The belt of nuclear stability ends with the element ________.
A)lead
B)polonium
C)radon
D)astatine
E)bismuth
Q3) The half-life of <sup>222</sup>Rn is 3.80 days. If a sample contains 36.0 g of Rn-222, how many years will it take for the sample to be reduced to 1.00 mg of Rn-222?
A)19.7
B)0.1597
C)8.53
D)0.0234
E)none of the above
Q4) In the formula k = 0.693/t<sub>1/2</sub>, k is the decay constant.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When living tissue is irradiated most of the energy is absorbed by ________.
Q6) High speed electrons emitted by an unstable nucleus are called ________.
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Q1) Boric oxide is ________.
A)B<sub>2</sub>O
B)BO<sub>2</sub>
C)BO
D)B<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
E)B<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>
Q2) SiO<sub>4</sub><sup>4-</sup> is the ________ ion.
A)orthosilicate ion
B)silicide ion
C)thiosilicate ion
D)silicon tetroxide ion
E)siliconate ion
Q3) What is the function of the carbon fibers in a composite?
A)to provide a structure to help the epoxy resin solidify in the desired shape
B)to transmit loads evenly in all directions
C)to provide resistance to oxidation
D)to provide ultraviolet protection
E)to "spread out" the epoxy so that it remains more flexible
Q4) I am a highly polar, strongly hydrogen-bonded liquid with a density of 1.47 g/cm<sup>3</sup>. I can decompose to form O<sub>2</sub>. Who am I?
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Q1) What is the most common geometry found in four-coordinate complexes?
A)square planar
B)octahedral
C)tetrahedral
D)icosahedral
E)trigonal bipyramidal
Q2) What form of hemoglobin is purplish-red?
A)myoglobin
B)deoxyhemoglobin
C)heme
D)oxyhemoglobin
E)none of the above
Q3) The secondary valence in metal ion complexes is called the ________.
Q4) A mineral is ________.
A)a solid inorganic compound that contains one or more metals
B)a vitamin
C)metal in its elemental form
D)a transition metal ion
E)a source of carbon
Q5) Most transition metal ions contain partially occupied ________ subshells.
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Q1) What forces hold the strands of DNA together?
A)covalent bonds
B)hydrogen bonding
C)ion-dipole attraction
D)coordinate covalent bonds
Q2) The oxidation of ethanol produces ________.
A)acetic acid
B)formic acid
C)citric acid
D)lactic acid
E)oxalic acid
Q3) How many chiral centers are there in CH<sub>3</sub>CHCHCH<sub>2</sub>CHBr<sub>2</sub>? A)0 B)1 C)2 D)3 E)4
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Q4) What is the name of the compound CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH(OH)CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</s ub>?
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