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Introductory Chemistry provides a foundational understanding of the principles and concepts in chemistry. The course covers atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, chemical reactions, stoichiometry, states of matter, solutions, and basic thermochemistry. Designed for students with little or no prior background in chemistry, it emphasizes the development of problem-solving skills, laboratory techniques, and scientific reasoning, preparing students for further studies in chemistry and related disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Introductory Chemistry 4th Edition by Steve Russo
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Q1) What is the name given to the element with the symbol "K"?
A)Kallium
B)Potassium
C)Phosphorus
D)Krypton Answer: B
Q2) Iced tea, with sugar completely dissolved in it, is an example of homogeneous matter.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) What is the name given to the element with the symbol "P"?
A)Polonium
B)Protactinium
C)Phosphorus
D)Palladium Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the hottest temperature?
A)90 °C
B)104 °F
C)353 K
D)All of the above are the same.
Answer: A
Q2) The Kelvin temperature is not always higher than the equivalent Celsius temperature.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following is the shortest?
A)18 inches
B)0.58 m
C)580 mm
D)1.9 ft
Answer: A
Q4) It is 1148 miles from Grand Rapids, Michigan, to Starkville, Mississippi. What is the same distance in kilometers (1 mile = 1.61 kilometers)?
Answer: 1848 kilometers (although it seems much longer by car)
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure of individual atoms can roughly be described as ________.
A)positively charged center and mostly empty space
B)an even mixture of mass and charge scattered throughout a spherical shape
C)positively charged, low-mass pieces in orbit around a massive, negatively charged center
D)positively charged pieces in orbit around a low-mass, negatively charged center
Answer: A
Q2) The oxygen-17 (-2)isotopic anion contains more electrons than either protons or neutrons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A neutral atom's atomic number is equal to ________.
A)the number of nucleons
B)the sum of protons and neutrons
C)the number of electrons
D)the number of neutrons
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) A metal is an element that tends to ________ valence electrons in chemical reactions, becoming a(n)________ in the process.
A)lose; cation
B)gain; anion
C)lose; anion D)gain; cation
Q2) Write the complete electronic ground state configuration of the Se<sup>2-</sup> ion. Which other element (if any)shares this electronic configuration?
Q3) Which of the following anions will have the electronic configuration
1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>6 ?</sup>
A)K<sup>1-</sup>
B)Cl<sup>1</sup><sup>-</sup>
C)S<sup>2</sup><sup>-</sup>
D)Br<sup>1</sup><sup>-</sup>
Q4) The speed of light is about 186,000 miles per minute.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which element is the more reactive, sodium (Na)or potassium (K)?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chlorate , bisulfate and chromate anions are also called oxyanions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Carbon tetrafluoride has ________ total valence electrons.
A)24
B)28
C)32
D)36
Q3) There are twice as many hydrogen as oxygen atoms in the acetate anion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The compound H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>3</sub> is called ________.
A)sulfurous acid
B)sulfuric acid
C)hydrogen sulfide
D)sulfite acid
Q5) Metals are always going to be the more electropositive elements in a bond as long as they are attached to a non-metal.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) CS<sub>2</sub>
Q2) When drawing the three-dimensional structure diagram of a molecule the solid (not bold or dotted)line ________.
A)projects out from the page B)goes back behind the page C)the bond is in the plane of the page D)One cannot say unless the formula of the molecule is known.
Q3) The angle around carbon in hydrogen cyanide is ________.
A)105°
B)109°
C)120°
D)180°
Q4) What is the steric number of the central atom in boron trichloride?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q5) The bond angle in carbon tetrachloride is 109°.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) silicon carbide, SiC, m.p.: 2700 °C
Q2) Which of the following will have the highest boiling point?
A)HI
B)HBr
C)HCl
D)HF
Q3) Which of the three phases of matter (solid, liquid, or gas)features particles in a fixed, rigid arrangement?
A)solid
B)liquid
C)gas
D)All three phases of matter have rigid arrangements of particles.
Q4) Which intermolecular force is important for the function of the antibiotic vancomycin?
A)London forces
B)van der Waals forces
C)hydrogen bonding
D)dipole forces
Q5) ethanol, C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O, m.p.: -117 °C
Q6) glucose, C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
Page 9
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Q1) When aqueous solutions of sodium phosphate and calcium nitrite are mixed, the spectator ions are ________.
A)calcium and nitrite
B)sodium and phosphate
C)calcium and phosphate
D)sodium and nitrite
Q2) The equation Zn + CuCl<sub>2</sub> Cu + ZnCl<sub>2</sub> is an example of a ________ reaction.
A)combination
B)single replacement
C)double replacement
D)decomposition
Q3) Which of the following equations is not a single replacement reaction?
A)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> + Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub> H<sub>2</sub>O + MgSO<sub>4</sub>
B)Zn + HCl H<sub>2</sub> + ZnCl<sub>2</sub>
C)Al + Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> + Fe
D)Na + H<sub>2</sub>O NaOH + H<sub>2</sub>
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of phosphorus atoms in one molecule of H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> is ________.
A)1
B)8
C)6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup>
D)4.8 × 10<sup>23</sup>
Q2) What is the % yield if 52 g ammonia produce 45 g NO?
A)100%
B)50%
C)25%
D)18%
Q3) A sample of methane gas that contains Avogadro's number of atoms has a mass of ________.
A)3.2 g
B)6.4 g
C)16.0 g
D)80.0 g
Q4) The % composition of chlorine in C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>8</sub>NCl is 23.4%.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which of the following reactions is an oxidation-reduction reaction?
A)NaOH + HCl NaCl + H<sub>2</sub>O
B)AgNO<sub>3</sub> + NaCl AgCl + NaNO<sub>3</sub>
C)CH<sub>4</sub> + 2 O<sub>2</sub> CO<sub>2</sub> + 2 H<sub>2</sub>O
D)CaO + CO<sub>2</sub> CaCO<sub>3</sub>
Q2) Which of the following is most easily oxidized?
A)Ni
B)Pb
C)Li
D)Cr
Q3) The cathode is the electrode where oxidation occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is the most easily reduced?
A)(K<sup>+</sup>)
B)(Na<sup>+</sup>)
C)(Au<sup>+</sup>)
D)(<sup>Hg2+</sup>)
Q5) For each reaction above that can be classified as an electron transfer reaction, state which element(s)gain, and which element(s)lose, electrons.
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Sample Questions
Q1) 855 torr is equal to ________ cm Hg.
A)1.13
B)85.5
C)855
D)8550
Q2) Which gas has a density equal to 1.43 g/L at STP?
A)nitrogen
B)oxygen
C)helium
D)carbon monoxide
Q3) As the temperature of a gas increases, its pressure increases as long as the volume is kept constant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The molar volume of any gas whether diatomic or monoatomic is 22.4 L at STP.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The boiling point of water is 373 K.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>18</sub><sub> </sub>will dissolve in CCl<sub>4</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A saline solution will boil at 100 °C.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A 2.154 g sample of an unknown non-electrolyte is dissolved in 50 g of water (K<sub>f</sub> of water = 1.86 °C). If the solution freezes at -1.23 °C, the molecular mass of the non-electrolyte is ________.
A)33
B)65
C)130
D)260
Q4) An impurity ________ the melting point of a compound. A)decreases
B)increases
C)has no effect on D)One cannot say unless the physical properties of the compound are known.
Q5) What are the three ways a given solution's "percent composition" can be described?
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Q1) Which of the following is an exothermic reaction?
A)burning propane gas in a barbecue
B)burning gasoline when driving a car
C)creating an explosion by detonating nitroglycerine
D)All of the above are exothermic reactions.
Q2) For an endothermic reaction, the value for E<sub>rxn</sub> is a negative number.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A catalyst need not be present in large quantities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The rate of a reaction is proportional to ________.
A)the total number of collisions that occur per unit time
B)the fraction of collisions with energy larger than the energy of activation
C)the fraction of collisions with the proper orientation
D)All of the above are correct.
Q5) A high energy of activation leads to more products favored in the reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In an endothermic reaction, adding heat will ________.
A)increase the amount of products
B)decrease the amount of reactants
C)decrease the amount of products
D)both A and B
Q2) For which of the following values of an equilibrium constant (K<sub>e</sub><sub>q</sub>)would you expect the equilibrium to lie farthest to the left (reactants most highly favored)?
A)0.491, at 20 °C
B)1.04, at 20 °C
C)10.6, at 20 °C
D)1.46 × 10<sup>-4</sup>, at 20 °C
Q3) If the solubility of copper(II)sulfate is 4.9 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>3</sup> M, the solubility product is ________.
A)2.4 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup>
B)9.6 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup>
C)1.2 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>2</sup>
D)8.7 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>8</sup>
Q4) H<sub>2</sub> (g)+ F<sub>2</sub> (g) 2HF (g)
Q5) 3O<sub>2</sub> (g) 2O<sub>3</sub> (g)
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not produce more than one H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> ion per molecule of acid when dissolved in water?
A)carbonic
B)sulfurous
C)phosphoric
D)acetic
Q2) Sodium hydroxide is a non-electrolyte.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The conjugate base of H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup> is ________.
A)H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
B)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup><sup>2</sup>
C)PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup><sup>3</sup>
D)H<sub>4</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>
Q4) An aqueous solution of HCl is called hydrochloric acid.
A)True
B)False
Q5) CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H has four acidic hydrogens.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The daughter isotope of <sup>196</sup>Po when it undergoes alpha-emission is <sup>200</sup>Pb.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When an unstable nucleus expels a positron ________.
A)its mass number is decreased by four units
B)its atomic number is decreased by one unit
C)its atomic number is increased by one unit
D)its mass number is decreased by one unit
Q3) <sup>An electron is a nucleon.</sup>
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following transformations is not an alpha emission?
A)(<sup>14</sup>C <sup>14</sup>N)
B)(<sup>225</sup>Ac <sup>221</sup>Fr)
C)(<sup>241</sup>Am <sup>237</sup>Np)
D)(<sup>218</sup>Po <sup>214</sup>Pb)
Q5) What is the mass defect of the carbon-14 isotope (in g/mol)? Carbon-14 has an atomic mass of 14.0032 g/mol.
Page 18
Q6) <sup>37</sup>Ar + <sub>-</sub><sub>1</sub>e ______
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Q1) Which of the following formulas may be attributed to a ketone?
A)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O
B)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>O
C)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
D)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
Q2) The ability of carbon to connect and link together is called ________.
A)isomerism
B)allotropism
C)catenation
D)ring formation
Q3) Ethanol may be obtained via the fermentation of grains.
A)True
B)False
Q4) CH<sub>3</sub>Br is an alkyl halide.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Construct a line drawing for the hydrocarbon whose IUPAC name is 2,2,4-trimethylpentane.
Q6) Draw the structure of butanal.

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Q1) Cellulose and starch are both polysaccharides of glucose. Explain why humans can consume and digest starch but not cellulose.
Q2) The name of the bond that combines two amino acids together is called
A)peptide
B)glycoside
C)acetal
D)ketal
Q3) The number of amino acids that define the difference in shape between a normal hemoglobin molecule and that of a sickle-cell anemia patient is ________.
A)1
B)5
C)10
D)all
Q4) Which of the following statements about a DNA molecule is incorrect?
A)All DNA molecules are made from a repeating unit consisting of a phosphate group, a sugar group, and an amine base.
B)Complementary base pairs in DNA molecules are held together by hydrogen bonds.
C)Normal DNA is double-stranded and helical in shape.
D)Complementary bases in DNA molecules are held together by covalent bonds.
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