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Introductory Chemistry provides students with a foundational understanding of the basic principles of chemistry, including atomic structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, and chemical reactions. The course emphasizes the development of problem-solving skills and laboratory techniques, encouraging students to apply theoretical knowledge through hands-on experiments. Designed for those with little or no background in chemistry, this course prepares students for more advanced study in the physical sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Chemistry 5th Edition by John A. Suchocki
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Q1) Which of the following statements about science is true?
A) Science deals only with testable hypotheses.
B) Science deals with observations and experimentation.
C) Scientists believe that natural phenomenon have natural explanations.
D) Experiments do not always go as planned.
E) a ll of the above
Answer: E
Q2) Which statement is false?
A) We have the technology to solve world hunger.
B) We have the technology to solve the world's energy needs.
C) We have the technology to develop global communication.
D) We lack the technology to solve most of the Earth's environmental problems.
Answer: D
Q3) Kroto, Smalley and Curl were able to deduce the shape of C<sub>60</sub> with
A) an electron microscope
B) molecular models
C) mathematical equations
D) astrological charts
Answer: B
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Q1) What is the mass in kilograms of a 130-pound human standing on planet Earth?
A) about 290 kg
B) about 59 kg
C) about 130 kg
D) about 22 kg
Answer: B
Q2) Dmitri Mendeleev's chart of elements ________.
A) was used as a calendar
B) placed elements together with similar properties
C) shifted the elements to fill in the gaps
D) had many defects because of unknown elements
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is the least amount of energy?
A) 1.0 joules
B) 1.0 kilojoule
C) 1.0 Calorie
D) 1.0 kilocalorie
E) 1.0 calorie
Answer: A
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Q1) A compound is represented by the ________.
A) elemental formula
B) periodic table
C) chemical formula
D) compoundic symbol
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following would be considered a homogeneous mixture?
A) wine
B) hydrogen cyanide
C) rusty iron
D) pretzel
E) sugar
Answer: A
Q3) Which of these does not describe a metal at room temperature?
A) gas
B) solid
C) liquid
D) shiny
E) bendable
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about Bohr's planetary model of the atom?
A) The electrons orbit around the nucleus.
B) It is a physical model.
C) The energy difference between the orbits is continuous.
D) The electrons smoothly move from one orbit to the next.
E) none of the above
Q2) If you remove two protons and two neutrons from a gold atom (Au), what new element is formed?
A) Ir<sup>2-</sup>
B) Au
C) Re
D) Au<sup>2-</sup>
E) Tl
Q3) Which of the following statements describes an isotope?
A) element with the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons
B) element with the same number of protons but a different number of electrons
C) element with the same number of neutrons but a different number of electrons
D) element with the same number of neutrons but a different number of protons
E) none of the above
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Q1) What does Einstein's energy equation (E = mc<sup>2</sup>) say about the energy that is derived from nuclear fission reactions?
A) The energy released is due to the missing mass of the products compared to the mass of the starting materials.
B) The energy is proportional to the change in mass of the nucleus undergoing fission.
C) The energy is derived from the light that is emitted when the atom splits.
D) The energy equation does not apply towards fission, only fusion.
E) none of the above
Q2) Carbon-14 dating is fairly reliable for dating once-living materials that died up to ________.
A) 5000 years ago
B) 50,00 years ago
C) 250.000 years ago
D) 2.5 million years ago
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Q1) What is one role of unpaired valance electrons?
A) They take part in the formation of different types of bonds.
B) They keep the paired electrons separated to minimize interaction.
C) They are the nonbonding electrons.
D) They provide the number of Lewis dots.
E) They tell us which Lewis dot structure is correct.
Q2) Atoms of metallic elements can form ionic bonds, but they are not very good at forming covalent bonds. Why?
A) These atoms are too large to be able to come in close contact with other atoms.
B) They have a great tendency to lose electrons.
C) Their valence shells are already filled with electrons.
D) They are on the wrong side of the periodic table.
Q3) What is the name for the following polyatomic ion?
CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
A) acetate
B) monocarboxylate
C) carboxylic
D) acidic
E) acetic
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Q1) Which has the most atoms?
A) a mole of gold
B) a mole of helium
C) a mole of lead
D) All of the above have the same number of atoms.
E) none of the above
Q2) What is the purpose of adding aluminum salts and a base to water during water treatment?
A) The two together gel and trap dirt and bacteria.
B) The higher pH kills bacteria.
C) The aluminum removes the rust taste from the water
D) The base dissolves the dirt.
E) It improves the taste.
Q3) Why isn't distillation used commercially to purify water?
A) Water requires large amounts of energy to boil affordably.
B) Bacteria are not killed during the distillation process.
C) Odd smelling contaminants boil at lower temperatures than water and so are impossible to remove.
D) Distillation does not remove suspended particles such as dirt and humus.
E) none of the above
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Q1) Which of the following statements describes what happens when a given mass of a liquid starts to expand?
A) Its density decreases.
B) Its density increases.
C) Its density does not change.
D) Its mass increases.
E) Its volume decreases.
Q2) When you increase the temperature of a substance, the molecules vibrate
A) faster and the molecules move farther apart
B) faster and the molecules more closer together
C) slower and the molecules move farther apart
D) slower and the molecules move closer together
E) none of the above
Q3) Which of the following contains the least heat energy?
A) 1 gram of steam at 100°C
B) 1 gram of water at 100°C
C) 1 gram of water at 50°C
D) 1 gram of water at 0°C
E) 1 gram of ice at 0°C
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Q1) If the relative mass of a pingpong ball is 1/20 that of a golf ball, how many golf balls would you need to equal the mass of 200 Ping-Pong balls?
A) 10
B) 200
C) 100
D) 20
E) 6.022 × 10<sup>23</sup>
Q2) Why does a glowing splint of wood burn only slowly in air, but rapidly in a burst of flames when placed in pure oxygen?
A) There is a greater number of collisions between the wood and oxygen molecules.
B) Oxygen is a flammable gas.
C) Pure oxygen is able to absorb carbon dioxide at a faster rate.
D) A glowing wood splint is actually extinguished within pure oxygen because there's no room for the smoke to expand.
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Q1) What would the concentration of H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> be if the concentration of OH<sup>-</sup> was 1 × 10<sup>-11</sup>M? [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>] × [OH<sup>-</sup>] = K<sub>w </sub>= 1 × 10<sup>-14</sup>
A) 1 × 10<sup>-3</sup>
B) 1 × 10<sup>3</sup>
C) 1 × 10<sup>14</sup>
D) 1 × 10<sup>12</sup>
E) 1 × 10<sup>-6</sup>
Q2) A weak acid is added to a concentrated solution of hydrochloric acid. Does the solution become more or less acidic?
A) More acidic, since there are more hydronium ions being added to the solution.
B) Less acidic, since the solution becomes more dilute with a less concentrated solution of hydronium ions being added to the solution.
C) No change in acidity, since the concentration of the hydrochloric acid is too high to be changed by the weak solution.
D) Less acidic since the concentration of hydroxide ions will increase.
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Q1) Based on their relative positions in the periodic table, which might you expect to be a stronger oxidizing agent, chlorine or fluorine? Why?
A) Chlorine should behave as a stronger oxidizing agent because it has a smaller effective nuclear charge in its outermost shell.
B) Fluorine should behave as a stronger oxidizing agent because it has a smaller effective nuclear charge in its outermost shell.
C) Chlorine should behave as a stronger oxidizing agent because it has a greater effective nuclear charge in its outermost shell.
D) Fluorine should behave as a stronger oxidizing agent because it has a greater effective nuclear charge in its outermost shell.
Q2) What is one of the advantages of a fuel cell?
A) They can run for a very long time as long as you keep adding fuel.
B) They are more efficient than combustion.
C) They have lower emission of pollutants than combustion.
D) all of the above
E) only A and B
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Q1) Which of the following is a heteroatom?
A) O
B) C
C) H
D) A and B
E) all of the above
Q2) Suggest an explanation for why aspirin has a sour taste.
A) It is the acidic nature of aspirin that gives rise to its sour taste.
B) The sour flavor is added to help prevent overdosing.
C) Aspirin is made sour as a mandated child safety feature.
D) It is the basic nature of aspirin that gives rise to its sour taste.
Q3) What products are formed upon the reaction of benzoic acid with sodium hydroxide, NaOH?
A) benzaldehyde and water
B) sodium benzoate and water
C) sodium bicarbonate and benzaldehyde
D) sodium bicarbonate and sodium benzoate
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Q1) According to the figure above, which amino acid is coded for by the nitrogenous-base sequence AGG?
A) Arginine
B) Alanine
C) Leucine
D) Lysine
Q2) There are ________ different types of biomolecules we use for living.
A) several billion
B) several million
C) a few thousand
D) only about four
Q3) Nucleic acids determine ________.
A) the sequence of amino acids
B) the pH of the cell nucleus
C) the number of nucleons in a biomolecule
D) the rate at which food is metabolized
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Q1) What is the main difference between stress neurons and maintenance neurons?
A) the type of neurotransmitters they produce
B) the shape of the neuron
C) the electrochemical potential generated by the neuron
D) the width of the synaptic cleft
E) all of the above
Q2) Why does chemotherapy work best for early stages of cancer instead of late stages?
A) Chemotherapy works best on cells that are dividing rapidly, such as those in early stage tumors.
B) Chemotherapy works better on a smaller number of cells because cells that are not destroyed can be cleaned up by the immune system.
C) Chemotherapy is more effective the longer the chemical treatment.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Common drugs originate from ________.
A) natural products
B) chemical derivatives
C) laboratory synthesis
D) all of the above
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Q1) Which of the following would not illustrate part of the trophic structure of an ecosystem?
A) plants absorbing carbon dioxide to make sugars
B) grasshoppers eating plants
C) racoons digging in your trash for your discarded food
D) skunks releasing a powerful scent to dissuade predators
E) all of the above
Q2) Organophosphorus and carbamate insecticides ________.
A) do not kill pests that have developed a resistance to other insecticides
B) readily decompose to water-soluble compounds that can be carried away by rainwater
C) kill weeds in addition to killing insects
D) do not affect animals such as honey bees
E) all of the above
Q3) In 1913, the German chemist Fritz Haber developed a process for producing
A) sulfates
B) ammonia
C) mixed fertilizer
D) lime
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Q1) What prevents an urban or suburban community from developing an advanced integrated pond system?
A) The community needs access to wide areas of land.
B) The community needs access to lots of sunshine.
C) The community must be open to doing something different with their wastewater.
D) all of the above
Q2) Why does a sealed car in the sun get hot?
A) The windows transmit visible light but reflect light responsible for heat emitted from the car's interior
B) The metal absorbs the heat energy in the light.
C) The UV radiation causes an exothermic reaction on your car seat.
D) The UV radiation causes an endothermic reaction on your car seat.
E) none of the above
Q3) Which of the following is groundwater?
A) an aquifer
B) a river
C) a lake
D) a spring
E) all of the above
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Q1) The natural partner to sustainable energy is ________.
A) the United Nations
B) shale natural gas
C) energy conservation
D) artificial photosynthesis
Q2) What are some advantages of deriving energy from nuclear fusion?
A) It is a simple technology.
B) It is a safe process.
C) The reactors are already built.
D) The fuel supply is virtually unlimited.
Q3) How are biomass and fossil fuels related?
A) Fossil fuels are just really old biomass.
B) Both produce clean energy.
C) Neither releases greenhouse gas.
D) They are sustainable resources.
E) all of the above
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