Introductory Chemistry Chapter Exam Questions - 3679 Verified Questions

Page 1


Introductory Chemistry

Chapter Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Introductory Chemistry offers a foundational understanding of the basic principles and concepts of chemistry, designed for students with little or no prior knowledge of the subject. This course covers essential topics such as atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, the periodic table, stoichiometry, states of matter, chemical reactions, and the properties of gases, liquids, and solids. It also introduces students to basic laboratory techniques, safety protocols, and problem-solving skills necessary for further study in chemistry and related scientific fields.

Recommended Textbook

Chemistry The Central Science 13th Edition by Theodore E. Brown

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24 Chapters

3679 Verified Questions

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction: Matter and Measurement

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Sample Questions

Q1) A temperature of ________ K is the same as 63 °F.

A)17

B)276

C)290

D)29

E)336

Answer: C

Q2) You have to calculate the volume of a gas sample with mass of 1.000 × 10<sup>3</sup> g and density of 1.027 g/L, but you have forgotten the formula. Which way of reasoning would help you in finding the correct mass?

A)If 1.027 g of a gas takes up a volume of 1 L, then 1.000 × 10<sup>3</sup> g of the same gas takes up a volume of __________.

B)If 1.027 L of gas has a mass of 1 g, then __________ L has the mass of 1.000 × 10<sup>3</sup> g.

Answer: A

Q3) Temperature is a physical property that determines the direction of heat flow.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Atoms, Molecules, and Ions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which pair of elements would you expect to exhibit the greatest similarity in their physical and chemical properties?

A)O, S

B)C, N

C)K, Ca

D)H, He

E)Si, P

Answer: A

Q2) In the absence of magnetic or electric fields, cathode rays ________.

A)do not exist

B)travel in straight lines

C)cannot be detected

D)become positively charged

E)bend toward a light source

Answer: B

Q3) H<sub>2</sub>SeO<sub>4</sub> is called selenic acid.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Stoichiometry: Calculations With Chemical

Formulas and Equations

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of dinitrogen pentoxide is ________. N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub> (g) + H<sub>2</sub>O (l) HNO<sub>3</sub> (aq)

A)1

B)2

C)3

D)4

E)5

Answer: A

Q2) The mass % of C in methane (CH<sub>4</sub>)is ________.

A)25.13

B)133.6

C)74.87

D)92.26

E)7.743

Answer: C

Q3) Determine the mass percent (to the hundredths place)of C in sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO<sub>3</sub>).

Answer: 14.30

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Chapter 4: Aqueous Reactions and Solution Stoichiometry

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the respective concentrations (M)of K<sup>+</sup> and PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3-</sup> afforded by dissolving 0.800 mol K<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> in water and diluting to 1.63 L?

A)0.800 and 0.800

B)0.491 and 0.491

C)0.800 and 0.491

D)1.44 and 0.491

E)0.489 and 0.163

Q2) How many grams of sodium chloride are there in 55.0 mL of a 1.90 M aqueous solution of sodium chloride?

A)0.105

B)6.11

C)3.21

D)6.11 × 10<sup>3</sup>

E)12.2

Q3) Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub> is a strong base.

A)True

B)False

Q4) There are ________ mol of bromide ions in 0.700 L of a 0.400 M solution of AlBr<sub>3</sub>.

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Chapter 5: Thermochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) The E of a system that releases 12.4 J of heat and does 4.2 J of work on the surroundings is ________ J.

A)16.6

B)12.4

C)4.2

D)-16.6

E)-8.2

Q2) A meal containing a burger, fries, and a milkshake contains 53.0 grams of fat, 38.0 grams of protein, and 152 grams of carbohydrate. The respective fuel values for protein, fat, and carbohydrate are 17, 38, and 17 kJ/g, respectively. If swimming typically burns 1100.0 kJ/hour, ________ minutes of swimming are required to completely burn off the meal.

A)4.78

B)33.5

C)62.5

D)10.5

E)286

Q3) ________ is defined as the energy used to move an object against a force.

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Chapter 6: Electronic Structure of Atoms

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Sample Questions

Q1) The wavelength of a photon that has an energy of 6.33 × 10<sup>-18</sup> J is ________ m.

A)3.79 × 10<sup>-7</sup>

B)3.10 × 10<sup>-8</sup>

C)2.38 × 10<sup>23</sup>

D)4.21 × 10<sup>-24</sup>

E)9.55 × 10<sup>15</sup>

Q2) What is the de Broglie wavelength (m)of a 25-g object moving at a speed of 5.0 m/s?

A)1.9 × 10<sup>32</sup> m

B)5.3 × 10<sup>-33</sup> m

C)6.6 × 10<sup>-36</sup> m

D)3.32 × 10<sup>-36</sup> m

E)3.02 × 10<sup>45</sup> m

Q3) The ground-state configuration of tungsten is ________.

A)[Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>3</sup>

B)[Xe]6s<sup>2</sup>4f<sup>14</sup>5d<sup>4</sup>

C)[Ne]3s<sup>1</sup>

D)[Xe]6s<sup>2</sup>4f<sup>7</sup>

E)[Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>4d<sup>10</sup>5p<sup>5</sup>

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Chapter 7: Periodic Properties of the Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) The alkali metal that is naturally radioactive is ________.

A)rubidium

B)cesium

C)lithium

D)francium

E)sodium

Q2) The ion with the largest diameter is ________.

A)Po<sup>2-</sup>

B)S<sup>2-</sup>

C)Se<sup>2-</sup>

D)Te<sup>2-</sup>

E)O<sup>2-</sup>

Q3) Of the alkaline earth metals, which two elements are the least reactive?

Q4) Write the balanced equation for the reaction of potassium with water.

Q5) Which one of the following atoms has the largest radius?

A)As

B)O

C)Sn

D)Cs

E)Ca

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Chapter 8: Basic Concepts of Chemical Bonding

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Sample Questions

Q1) A valid Lewis structure of ________ cannot be drawn without violating the octet rule.

A)PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3-</sup>

B)SiF<sub>4</sub>

C)CF<sub>4</sub>

D)SeF<sub>4</sub>

E)NF<sub>3</sub>

Q2) Which two bonds are most similar in polarity?

A)O-F and Cl-F

B)B-F and Cl-F

C)Al-Cl and I-Br

D)I-Br and Si-Cl

E)C-Cl and Be-Cl

Q3) A double bond consists of ________ pairs of electrons shared between two atoms.

Q4) The strength of a covalent bond is measured by its ________.

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Chapter 9: Molecular Geometry and Bonding Theories

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Sample Questions

Q1) ________ hybrid orbitals are used for bonding by Xe in the XeF<sub>4</sub> molecule.

A)sp<sup>2</sup>

B)sp<sup>3</sup>

C)sp<sup>3</sup>d

D)sp<sup>3</sup>d<sup>2</sup>

E)sp

Q2) Which of the molecules has a see-saw shape?

A)(i)

B)(ii)

C)(iii)

D)(iv)

E)(v)

Q3) Structural changes around a double bond in the ________ portion of the rhodopsin molecule trigger the chemical reactions that result in vision.

A)protein

B)opsin

C)retinal

D)cones

E)rods

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Chapter 10: Gases

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Sample Questions

Q1) A fixed amount of gas at 25.0 °C occupies a volume of 8.66 L when the pressure is 629 torr. Use Charles's law to calculate the volume (L)the gas will occupy when the temperature is increased to 112 °C while maintaining the pressure at 629 torr.

A)9.26

B)11.2

C)1.93

D)6.70

E)38.8

Q2) How much faster does <sup>235</sup>UF<sub>6</sub> effuse than <sup>238</sup>UF<sub>6</sub>?

A)1.013 times as fast

B)1.009 times as fast

C)1.004 times as fast

D)1.006 times as fast

E)1.018 times as fast

Q3) How many molecules are there in 4.00 L of oxygen gas at 500 °C and 50.0 torr?

Q4) The effusion rate of a gas is proportional to the square root of its molar mass.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Liquids and Intermolecular Forces

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Sample Questions

Q1) The heating curve shown was generated by measuring the heat flow and temperature for a solid as it was heated. The slope of the ________ segment corresponds to the heat capacity of the gas.

A)AB

B)BC

C)CD

D)DE

E)EF

Q2) The heating curve shown was generated by measuring the heat flow and temperature of a solid as it was heated. The heat flow into the sample in the segment ________ will yield the value of the H<sub>fusion</sub> of this substance.

A)AB

B)BC

C)CD

D)DE

E)EF

Q3) London Dispersion Forces tend to ________ in strength with increasing molecular weight.

Q4) The direct conversion of a solid to a gas is called ________.

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Chapter 12: Solids and Modern Materials

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following could be useful as an elemental semiconductor?

A)As

B)Zn

C)I

D)K

E)He

Q2) What is the typical effect of the addition of an interstitial element on the properties of a metal?

A)increase in malleability and corrosion resistance

B)increase in hardness and strength, decrease in ductility

C)decrease in melting point and increase in ductility

D)decrease in conductivity and increase in brittleness

E)increased surface luster

Q3) A material that contains more than one element and has the characteristic properties of metals is called a(n)________.

Q4) When lattice points occur at the corners and at the center of a unit cell, the cell is called ________.

Q5) Semiconductor particles with diameters of 1-10 nm are called ________.

Q6) What two metals are alloyed to produce sterling silver?

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Properties of Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The concentration of a solution of lithium chlorite dissolved in water is 12.5% by mass. In a ________ g sample of this solution, there are 52.5 g of water.

A)60.0

B)45.9

C)0.00600

D)23.8

E)1.67

Q2) At 20 °C, a 1.73 M aqueous solution of ammonium chloride has a density of 1.0257 g/mL. What is the mass % of ammonium chloride in the solution? The formula weight of NH<sub>4</sub>Cl is 53.50 g/mol.

A)1.85

B)3.31

C)1.68

D)0.594

E)9.00

Q3) The value of the boiling-point-elevation constant (K<sub>b</sub>)depends on the identity of the solvent.

A)True

B)False

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Chemical Kinetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) At elevated temperatures, dinitrogen pentoxide decomposes to nitrogen dioxide and oxygen: 2N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub>(g) 4NO<sub>2 </sub>(g) + O<sub>2</sub> (g)

When the rate of formation of O<sub>2</sub> is 2.2 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M/s, the rate of decomposition of N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub> is ________ M/s.

A)7.2 × 10<sup>-3</sup>

B)3.6 × 10<sup>-3</sup>

C)1.8 × 10<sup>-3</sup>

D)1.4 × 10<sup>-2</sup>

E)0.00090

Q2) The enzyme nitrogenase converts ________ into ________.

A)ammonia, urea

B)CO and unburned hydrocarbons, H<sub>2</sub>O and CO<sub>2</sub>

C)nitrogen, ammonia

D)nitrogen oxides, N<sub>2</sub> and O<sub>2</sub>

E)nitroglycerine, nitric acid, and glycerine

Q3) A catalyst that is present in a different phase from the reacting molecules is called a(n)________ catalyst.

Q4) For the reaction aA + Bb cC + dD, the rate law is ________.

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Chemical Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) At constant temperature, reducing the volume of a gaseous equilibrium mixture causes the reaction to shift in the direction that increases the number of moles of gas in the system.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If the reaction quotient Q for a reaction is less than the value of the equilibrium constant K for that reaction at a given temperature, ________ must be converted to ________ for the system to reach equilibrium.

Q3) If the reaction quotient Q for a reaction is greater than the value of the equilibrium constant K for that reaction at a given temperature, ________ must be converted to ________ for the system to reach equilibrium.

Q4) If a reaction is endothermic, ________ the reaction temperature results in an increase in K.

Q5) The number obtained by substituting starting reactant and product concentrations into an equilibrium-constant expression is known as the ________.

Q6) If the value for the equilibrium constant is much greater than 1, then the equilibrium mixture contains mostly ________.

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Chapter 16: Acid-Base Equilibria

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Sample Questions

Q1) The base-dissociation constant, K<sub>b</sub>, for pyridine, C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>5</sub>N, is 1.4 × 10<sup>-9</sup>. The acid-dissociation constant, K<sub>a</sub>, for the pyridinium ion, C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>5</sub>NH<sup>+</sup>, is ________.

A)1.0 × 10<sup>-7</sup>

B)1.4 × 10<sup>-23</sup>

C)7.1 × 10<sup>-4</sup>

D)1.4 × 10<sup>-5</sup>

E)7.1 × 10<sup>-6</sup>

Q2) The conjugate base of NH<sub>3</sub> is ________.

A)NH<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>

B)NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>

C)NH<sub>2</sub>OH

D)H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>

E)OH<sup>-</sup>

Q3) A Lewis acid is an electron-pair acceptor, and a Lewis base is an electron-pair donor.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: Additional Aspects of Aqueous Equilibria

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Q1) Consider a solution containing 0.100 M fluoride ions and 0.126 M hydrogen fluoride. The concentration of fluoride ions after the addition of 9.00 mL of 0.0100 M HCl to 25.0 mL of this solution is ________ M.

A)0.0735

B)0.0762

C)0.0980

D)0.0709

E)0.00253

Q2) Calculate the pH of a buffer solution that contains 0.820 grams of sodium acetate and 0.010 moles of acetic acid in 100 ml of water. The K<sub>a</sub> of acetic acid is 1.77 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.

Q3) What is the solubility (in M)of PbCl<sub>2</sub> in a 0.15 M solution of HCl? The K<sub>sp</sub> of PbCl<sub>2</sub> is 1.6 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.

A)2.0 × 10<sup>-3</sup>

B)1.1 × 10<sup>-4</sup>

C)1.8 × 10<sup>-4</sup>

D)7.1 × 10<sup>-4</sup>

E)1.6 × 10<sup>-5</sup>

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19

Chapter 18: Chemistry of the Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) The brown color of photochemical smog over a city is mainly due to ________.

A)NO<sub>2</sub>

B)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>

C)CO

D)SO<sub>2</sub>

E)CO<sub>2</sub>

Q2) List two of the three major sources of nitrogen and phosphorus in water.

Q3) Sulfur released into the troposphere arises from both natural and human activity. What is the ratio of human to natural sources of sulfur compounds?

A)3:1

B)2:1

C)1:1

D)1:2

E)1:3

Q4) The approximate pH of acid rain is ________.

Q5) Municipal water treatment consists of five steps ending with chlorination.

A)True

B)False

Q6) A chemical bond rupture resulting from the absorption of a photon is called

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Chapter 19: Chemical Thermodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The combustion of hydrogen in the presence of excess oxygen yields water: 2H<sub>2</sub>(g) + O<sub>2</sub>(g) 2H<sub>2</sub>O (l)

The value of S° for this reaction is ________ J/K mol.

A)+405.5

B)-405.5

C)-326.3

D)-265.7

E)+265.7

Q2) The value of G° at 25 °C for the decomposition of POCl<sub>3</sub> into its constituent elements, 2POCl<sub>3</sub> (g) P<sub>2</sub> (g) + O<sub>2</sub> (g) + 3Cl<sub>2</sub> (g)

Is ________ kJ/mol.

A)-1108.7

B)+1108.7

C)-606.2

D)+606.2

E)-1,005

Q3) The melting of a substance at its melting point is an isothermal process.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Electrochemistry

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Q1) A voltaic cell is constructed with two silver-silver chloride electrodes, where the half-reaction is AgCl (s) + e<sup>-</sup> Ag (s) + Cl<sup>-</sup> (aq)E° = +0.222 V The concentrations of chloride ion in the two compartments are 0.0100 M and 1.55 M, respectively. The cell emf is ________ V.

A)0.216

B)0.130

C)0.00143

D)34.4

E)0.228

Q2) In a voltaic cell electrons flow from the anode to the cathode.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Galvanized iron is iron coated with ________.

A)magnesium

B)zinc

C)chromium

D)phosphate

E)iron oxide

Q4) In the formula G = -nFE, F is the ________.

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Chapter 21: Nuclear Chemistry

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Q1) The carbon-14 dating method can be used to determine the age of a ________.

A)flint arrowhead

B)papyrus scroll

C)stone axe head

D)clay pot

E)rock

Q2) Which one of the following is used as a radiotracer to study blood?

A)iron-59

B)technetium-99

C)sodium-23

D)iodine-131

E)phosphorus-32

Q3) Conversion of one nucleus into another was first demonstrated in 1919 by ________.

Q4) The alpha decay of what isotope of what element produces lead-206?

A)polonium-210

B)radon-222

C)mercury-202

D)bismuth-208

E)thallium-204

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Chemistry of the Nonmetals

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Q1) The oxidation numbers of sulfur in the sulfate ion, sulfite ion, sulfur trioxide, and hydrogen sulfide are ________, ________, ________, and ________, respectively.

A)+4, -2, +4, +6

B)+6, +2, +4, +6

C)+6, +4, +6, -2

D)+4, +6, +4, -2

E)-2, +6, -2, 0

Q2) What is the oxidation state of xenon in XeO<sub>2</sub>F<sub>2</sub>?

A)0

B)+4

C)+8

D)+2

E)+6

Q3) To produce carbon black, ________.

A)diamond is exposed to extremely high pressures and temperatures

B)wood is strongly heated in the absence of oxygen

C)coal is strongly heated in the absence of oxygen

D)hydrocarbons such as methane are heated in a very limited supply of oxygen

E)graphite is cooled to -273 °C

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Transition Metals and Coordination Chemistry

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Q1) In ________, the bonds are the same but the spatial arrangement of the atoms is different.

A)structural isomers

B)linkage isomers

C)coordination-sphere isomers

D)stereoisomers

E)resonance structures

Q2) The correct name for [Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>5</sub>Cl]Cl<sub>2 </sub>is

A)pentaaminechlorocobalt (III)chloride

B)chloropentaammoniacobalt (II)chloride

C)pentaammoniachlorocobalt (II)chloride

D)cobalt (III)pentaamino trichloride

E)cobalt (III)pentaamminemonochloride chloride

Q3) What is the most common geometry found in five-coordinate complexes?

A)trigonal bipyramidal

B)octahedral

C)tetrahedral

D)linear

E)icosahedral

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Chapter 24: The Chemistry of Life: Organic and Biological Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many chiral carbon atoms does the neopentane (2, 2 - dimethylpropane)have?

A)0

B)1

C)2

D)3

E)4

Q2) How many chiral centers are there in CH<sub>3</sub>CHClCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CHBrCH<sub>3</sub>?

A)0

B)1

C)2

D)3

E)4

Q3) Aromatic hydrocarbons ________.

A)readily undergo addition reactions like alkenes

B)contain a series of bonds on several consecutive carbon atoms

C)undergo substitution reactions more easily than saturated hydrocarbons

D)have sp<sup>3</sup> hybridized carbon atoms

Q4) In the oxidation of ethanol the intermediate formed is ________.

Q5) Write the formula for 2-methyl-4-propylnonane.

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