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Introductory Chemistry provides a foundational understanding of key chemical principles, including the structure of atoms and molecules, chemical reactions, the periodic table, stoichiometry, and states of matter. Designed for students with little to no prior background in chemistry, the course emphasizes conceptual learning and problem-solving skills through lectures, demonstrations, and laboratory experiments. Students will explore real-world applications of chemistry in everyday life and develop the scientific reasoning necessary for further studies in science and health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook Chemistry and Chemical Reactivity 9th Edition by John C. Kotz\New folder
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Q1) The ________ of a substance is defined as its mass per unit volume.
Answer: density
Q2) A(n)________ is a pure substance that is composed of only one type of atom.
A) ion
B) solution
C) element
D) molecule
E) gas
Answer: C
Q3) A mass of 10 g of table salt dissolves in water to form a(n)________ mixture (i.e.,a mixture that is uniform throughout).
Answer: homogeneous
Q4) Which term best describes methane,CH<sub>4</sub>?
A) homogeneous mixture
B) ion
C) element
D) chemical compound
E) atom
Answer: D
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Q1) How many joules are equivalent to 450 calories?
A) 0.45 J
B) 4.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>2</sup> J
C) 9.3\(\times\) 10<sup>-3</sup> J
D) 1.9 \(\times\) 10<sup>3</sup> J
E) 4.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>5</sup> J
Answer: D
Q2) The melting point of a particular solid is 3027 K.This corresponds to A) 4989\(^{\circ}\)F.
B) 3300\(^{\circ}\)C.
C) 2693\(^{\circ}\)C.
D) 4925\(^{\circ}\)F.
E) 1562\(^{\circ}\)F.
Answer: A
Q3) Assuming the density of water is 1.00 g/cm<sup>3</sup>,the mass of 1.0 cubic meter (m<sup>3</sup>) of water is ________ grams.
Answer: 1.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>6</sup>
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Q1) What is the correct name for Cl<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub>?
A) dichlorine heptoxide.
B) chlorine oxide.
C) dichloride heptoxide.
D) dichlorine heptaoxygen.
E) chlorine heptaoxygen.
Answer: A
Q2) An element consists of three isotopes.The abundance of one isotope is 92.21% and its atomic mass is 27.97693 u.The abundance of the second isotope is 4.70% and its atomic mass is 28.97649 u.The atomic mass of the third isotope is 29.97376 u.What is the atomic weight of the element?
A) 28.09 u
B) 28.98 u
C) 28.96 u
D) 29.87 u
E) 29.07 u
Answer: A
Q3) Oxygen and ________ are the two most abundant elements in the Earth's crust. Answer: silicon
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Q1) If an aqueous solution of ____ is added to a mixture of Pb<sup>2+</sup> and Ba<sup>2+</sup>,the lead ion will precipitate,but the barium ion will remain in solution.
A) NaOH
B) Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
C) K<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
D) KCO<sub>3</sub>
E) Ca(CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Which anion will form a precipitate with Ca<sup>2+</sup>?
A) Cl<sup>-</sup>
B) OH<sup>-</sup>
C) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
D) Br<sup>-</sup>
E) none
Q3) ________ acid is produced in a larger quantity than any other chemical in the United States.This chemical is used in the production of fertilizers,pigments,alcohol,paper and detergents.
Q4) _____-oxides produce acids when reacted with water.
Q5) Give the name of an acidic oxide and write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction of the oxide with water.
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Q1) What is the molarity of an NaI solution that contains 5.3 g of NaI in 41.0 mL of solution?
A) 0.86 M
B) 0.035 M
C) 0.0077 M
D) 0.00027 M
E) 0.13 M
Q2) Soft drink bottles are made of polyethylene terephthalate (PET),a polymer composed of carbon,hydrogen,and oxygen.If 1.9022 g PET is burned in oxygen it produces 0.6585 g H<sub>2</sub>O and 4.0216 g CO<sub>2</sub>.What is the empirical formula of PET?
A) CHO
B) CH<sub>7</sub>O<sub>5</sub>
C) C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>7</sub>O
D) C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>10</sub>O
E) C<sub>10</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>5</sub>
Q3) The percent yield of a chemical reaction is calculated by dividing the actual yield by the ________ yield and multiplying by 100%.
Q4) The pH of purified water (or of a neutral solution)is _____.
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Q1) The standard molar enthalpy of formation of NH<sub>3</sub>(g)is -45.9 kJ/mol.What is the enthalpy change if 9.51 g N<sub>2</sub>(g)and 1.96 g H<sub>2</sub>(g)react to produce NH<sub>3</sub>(g)?
A) -10.3 kJ/mol-rxn
B) -20.7 kJ/mol-rxn
C) -29.8 kJ/mol-rxn
D) -43.7 kJ/mol-rxn
E) -65.6 kJ/mol-rxn
Q2) Calculate the energy in the form of heat (in kJ)required to convert 325 grams of liquid water at 20.0 S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C to steam at 115 S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C.Assume that no energy in the form of heat is transferred to the environment.(Heat of fusion = 333 J/g; heat of vaporization = 2256 J/g; specific heat capacities: liquid water = 4.184 J/g.K,steam = 1.92 J/g.K)
A) 129 kJ
B) 121 kJ
C) 851 kJ
D) 914 kJ
E) 735 kJ
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Q1) Which of the following is/are correct postulates of Bohr's theory of the hydrogen atom ?
1)The energy of an electron in an atom is quantized (i.e.only specific energy values are possible).
2)The principal quantum number (n),specifies each unique energy level.
3)An electron transition from a lower energy level to a higher energy level results in an emission of a photon of light.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2
E) 1,2,and 3
Q2) The Bohr model predicts that the energy of an atom's electron is ________,meaning that the electron can only occupy orbitals of specific energies.
Q3) According to Heisenberg's ________ principle,it is impossible to simultaneously measure the exact location and energy of an electron.
Q4) A point in a standing wave that has zero amplitude is called a(n)________.
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Q1) An atom of which of the following elements has the most negative electron affinity?
A) Rb
B) As
C) Cl
D) Br
E) Se
Q2) Rank the following atoms in order decreasing atomic radii: C,N,B,Al.
A) Al > B > C > N
B) B > Al > C > N
C) C > B > Al > N
D) B > C > N > Al
E) Al > C > B > N
Q3) Explain why the first ionization energy for oxygen is lower than that for nitrogen.
Q4) Explain the difference between paramagnetic and ferromagnetic.
Q5) ________ rule states that the most stable arrangement of electrons is that which contains the maximum number of unpaired electrons,all with the same spin direction.
Q6) The f-block elements are also referred to as the ________ and actinides.
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Q1) Use Lewis structures to predict the bond order for a carbon-oxygen bond in the carbonate ion?
A) 1
B) 3/2
C) 4/3
D) 2
E) 5/2
Q2) Which of the following bonds would be the most polar?
A) N-N
B) N-P
C) N-C
D) N-As
E) N-Ge
Q3) What is the bond angle in a trigonal planar molecule or ion?
A) 109°
B) 180°
C) 90°
D) 72°
E) 120°
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Q1) What is the maximum number of hybridized orbitals that can be formed by a fluorine atom?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 6
Q2) Atomic orbitals combine most effectively to form molecular orbitals when
A) electrons in the orbitals have no spins.
B) electrons in the orbitals have the same spin.
C) the atoms have an equal number of valence electrons.
D) the atomic orbitals have similar energies.
E) only d-orbitals are used in bonding.
Q3) Refer to Diagram 9-1.According to molecular orbital theory,which of the following species will have the \(\underline{\text{ lowest }}\) bond order?
A) B<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>
B) Ne<sub>2</sub><sup>2+</sup>
C) C<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>
D) O<sub>2</sub><sup>2+</sup>
E) B<sub>2</sub>

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Q1) The density of ethane,C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub> (30.1 g/mol),at 32°C and 1.17 atm pressure is ___.(R = 0.08206 L.atm/mol.K)
A) 1.41 g/L
B) 17.2 g/L
C) 1.34 g/L
D) 0.711 g/L
E) 0.144 g/L
Q2) What volume does 40.5 g of N<sub>2</sub> occupy at STP? (R = 0.08206 L.atm/mol.K)
A) 64.8 L
B) 1.81 L
C) 32.4 L
D) 50.7 L
E) none of these
Q3) Which of the following samples contains the fewest moles of gas?
A) 1.00 L of CH<sub>4</sub> at STP
B) 1.00 L of Ar at -10.0°C and 1.00 atm
C) 1.00 L of NH<sub>3</sub> at 10°C and 1.00 atm
D) 1.00 L of H<sub>2</sub> at 0.0°C and 1.76 atm
E) 1.00 L of HCl at 20°C and 1.00 atm
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Q1) What is the \(\underline{\text{ strongest }}\) intermolecular force present in solid NH<sub>3</sub>?
A) London dispersion
B) hydrogen-bonding
C) dipole-dipole
D) ion-dipole
Q2) Place the following cations in order from the most negative to the least negative hydration enthalpy: Cs<sup>+</sup>,Na<sup>+</sup>,and Rb<sup>+</sup>.
A) Cs<sup>+</sup> < Rb<sup>+</sup> < Na<sup>+</sup>
B) Cs<sup>+</sup> < Na<sup>+</sup> < Rb<sup>+</sup>
C) Na<sup>+</sup> < Rb<sup>+</sup> < Cs<sup>+</sup>
D) Na<sup>+</sup> < Cs<sup>+</sup> < Rb<sup>+</sup>
E) Rb<sup>+</sup> < Na<sup>+</sup> < Cs<sup>+</sup>
Q3) On a relative basis,the weaker the intermolecular forces in a substance are,
A) the larger is its heat of vaporization.
B) the more it deviates from the ideal gas law.
C) the greater is its vapor pressure at a particular temperature.
D) the larger is its molar heat capacity as a liquid.
E) the higher is its boiling point.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT? If an ionic compound with the formula MX forms a face-centered cubic unit cell with the anions (X<sup>n</sup><sup>-</sup>)at the lattice points,the cations (M<sup>n</sup><sup>+</sup>)may occupy
1)one fourth of the tetrahedral holes in each unit cell.
2)all of the octahedral holes in each unit cell.
3)the center of each face in each unit cell.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2
E) 1,2,and 3
Q2) The metal barium crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice.If the density of barium is 3.51 g/cm<sup>3</sup>,what is the atomic radius of barium?
A) 15.1 pm
B) 174 pm
C) 42.5 pm
D) 19.0 pm
E) 219 pm
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Q1) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A) The solubility of a gas in water decreases with increasing temperature.
B) The solubility of a gas in water is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the water.
C) The dissolution of a gas in water is usually an exothermic process.
D) The relationship between the solubility of a gas and its partial pressure is known as Henry's law.
E) The solubility of a gas in water is inversely proportional to the molar mass of the gas.
Q2) What is the mass percent of an aqueous sodium hydroxide solution in which the mole fraction of NaOH is 0.101?
A) 20.0%
B) 12.1%
C) 68.9%
D) 12.4%
E) 3.31%
Q3) Because ________ particles are relatively large (say,1000 nm in diameter)they scatter visible light,making the mixtures containing these particles appear cloudy.This scattering is known as the Tyndall effect.
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Q1) Termolecular elementary steps are rare.Why?
Q2) For a chemical reaction,the activation energy for the forward reaction is +181 kJ and the activation energy for the backward reaction is +62 kJ.What is the overall energy change for the forward reaction?
A) -119 kJ
B) -62 kJ
C) +119 kJ
D) +181 kJ
E) +243 kJ
Q3) The effect of adding a catalyst to a reaction is to
A) increase the number of collisions between reactants.
B) lower the activation energy of a reaction.
C) increase the equilibrium constant of a reaction.
D) decrease the yield of the products.
E) increase the enthalpy change of a reaction.
Q4) The pre-exponential,A,in the Arrhenius equation is called the ________ factor.
Q5) Elementary steps in a reaction mechanism often include reaction ________.These (usually)short-lived species,which are at one point produced and then later consumed,do not appear in the overall chemical reaction.
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Q1) The symbol Q is called the ________.
Q2) If the reaction quotient,Q,is equal to K in a gas phase reaction,then
A) the chemical system has reached equilibrium.
B) the temperature must be increased for the reaction to proceed in the forward direction.
C) the reaction will proceed in the forward direction until equilibrium is established. D) the reaction will proceed in the backward direction until equilibrium is established. E) the reaction will proceed in the direction that increases the number of gas phase particles.
Q3) If a stress is applied to an equilibrium system,the system will respond in such a way as to relieve that stress.This is a statement of ________ principle.
Q4) In 1913,the Haber-Bosch process was patented.The product of the Haber-Bosch process is ________.
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Q1) What is the pH of the solution which results from mixing 50.0 mL of 0.30 M HF(aq)and 50.0 mL of 0.30 M NaOH(aq)at 25 S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C? (K<sub>a</sub> of HF = 7.2 \(\times\) 10<sup>-4</sup>)
A) 1.98
B) 5.84
C) 8.16
D) 10.85
E) 12.02
Q2) Which of the following species is the strongest acid in an aqueous solution?
A) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H
B) CH<sub>2</sub>ClCO<sub>2</sub>H
C) CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H
D) CCl<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H
E) CHCl<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H
Q3) Which is NOT an amphiprotic species in water?
A) HClO<sub>3</sub>
B) HSO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
C) H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>
D) HS<sup>-</sup>
E) HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
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Q1) What is the pH of a buffer composed of 0.35 M H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq)and 0.65 M HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>(aq)? (K<sub>a</sub> of H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup> is 6.2 \(\times\) 10<sup>-8</sup>)
A) 6.94
B) 7.21
C) 7.48
D) 7.73
E) 9.06
Q2) Suppose 50.00 mL of 2.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>-6</sup> M Fe(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub> is added to 50.00 mL of 2.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>-4</sup> M KIO<sub>3</sub>.Which of the following statements is true? For Fe(IO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>,K<sub>sp</sub> = 1.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>-14</sup>.
A) A precipitate forms because Q<sub>c</sub> > K<sub>sp</sub>.
B) A precipitate forms because Q<sub>c</sub> < K<sub>sp</sub>.
C) No precipitate forms because Q<sub>c</sub> < K<sub>sp</sub>.
D) No precipitate forms because Q<sub>c</sub> = K<sub>sp</sub>.
E) No precipitate forms because Q<sub>c</sub> > K<sub>sp</sub>.
Q3) To make a buffer with a pH of 8.00,you should use a weak acid with a K<sub>a</sub> close to _______.
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Q1) Calculate the standard entropy change for the following reaction, 2 SO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) 2 SO<sub>3</sub>(g)
Given SS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0[SO<sub>2</sub>(g)] = 248.2 J/K.mol,SS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0[O<sub>2</sub>(g)] = 205.1 J/K.mol,and SS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0[SO<sub>3</sub>(g)] = 256.8 J/K.mol.
A) -196.5 J/K·mol-rxn
B) -94.0 J/K·mol-rxn
C) -187.9 J/K·mol-rxn
D) +187.9 J/K·mol-rxn
E) +196.5 J/K·mol-rxn
Q2) For any process,the change in entropy of the universe equals the sum of the entropy changes for the system and for the ________.
Q3) At what temperature (in kelvin units)is the entropy of a pure crystal 0.0 J/K.
Q4) For which of the following reactions will the entropy of the system decrease?
A) 2 NH<sub>3</sub>(g)\(\to\)N<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 3 H<sub>2</sub>(g)
B) 2 C(s)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) 2 CO(g)
C) CaCO<sub>3</sub>(s)\(\to\) CaO(s)+ CO<sub>2</sub>(g)
D) 2 NO<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>(g)
E) NaOH(s)\(\to\) Na<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ OH<sup>-</sup>(aq)
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Q1) In the following electrochemical cell,what is the reduction half reaction? Cu(s)| Cu<sup>2+</sup>(aq)|| Fe<sup>3+</sup>(aq),Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq)| Pt(s)
A) Fe<sup>3</sup><sup>-</sup>(aq)+ e<sup>-</sup>\(\to\)Fe<sup>2</sup>(aq)
B) Fe<sup>2-</sup>(aq)+ e<sup>-</sup>\(\to\) Fe<sup>3+</sup>(aq)
C) Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ Pt(s)\(\to\)Fe<sup>3+</sup>0(aq)+ e<sup>-</sup>
D) Cu<sup>2+</sup>(aq)\(\to\)Cu(s)+ 2e<sup>-</sup>
E) Cu(s)\(\to\)Cu<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2e<sup>-</sup>
Q2) Assuming the following reaction proceeds in the forward direction, Fe<sup>3+</sup>(aq)+ Co(s)\(\to\) Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ Co<sup>2+</sup>(aq)
A) Fe<sup>3+</sup>(aq)is oxidized and Co(s)is reduced.
B) Fe<sup>3+</sup>(aq)is oxidized and Co<sup>2+</sup>(aq)is reduced.
C) Co(s)is oxidized and Fe<sup>3+</sup>(aq)is reduced.
D) Co(s)is oxidized and Co<sup>2+</sup>(aq)is reduced.
E) Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq)is oxidized and Co(s)is reduced.
Q3) How many moles of electrons are produced from a current of 14.4 A in 3.20 hours?
A) 4.78 \(\times\) 10<sup>-4</sup> mol
B) 1.72 mol
C) 46.1 mol
D) 3.35 mol
E) 9.33 \(\times\) 10<sup>3</sup> mol
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Q1) The largest known source of tar sands is found in
A) the United States of America.
B) United Arab Emirates.
C) Venezuela.
D) Saudi Arabia.
E) Canada.
Q2) Biodiesel is a mixture of
A) fats and oils derived from glycerol.
B) alkenes derived from fats and oils.
C) ketones derived from fatty acids.
D) esters derived from fats and oils.
E) fatty acids derived from fats and oils.
Q3) In addition to electricity,what products are generated by a fuel cell charged with methanol (CH<sub>3</sub>OH)and dioxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)?
A) H<sub>2</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub> and CO
C) H<sub>2</sub> and CH<sub>4</sub>
D) H<sub>2</sub>O and CH<sub>4</sub>
E) H<sub>2</sub>O and CO<sub>2</sub>
Q4) Explain why the melting of Arctic sea ice will not raise the sea level.
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Q1) What is the general valence shell electron configuration of the Group 3A elements?
A) [Noble Gas Core]ns<sup>2</sup>
B) [Noble Gas Core]ns<sup>2</sup>np<sup>1</sup>
C) [Noble Gas Core]ns<sup>2</sup>np<sup>2</sup>
D) [Noble Gas Core]ns<sup>2</sup>np<sup>3</sup>
E) [Noble Gas Core]ns<sup>2</sup>np<sup>4</sup>
Q2) Silicon is purified in a process called ________,where a narrow segment of a silicon rod is melted and allowed to slowly recrystallize.
Q3) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A) Diagnostic imaging of the human digestive tract often requires a patient to consume a slurry of BaSO<sub>4</sub>(s),a compound that contains the toxic Ba<sup>2+</sup> ion.
B) Hydroxyapatite is a calcium containing compound that is the main component of tooth enamel.
C) Beryllium is toxic.Exposure (by breathing)to beryllium can cause berylliosis.
D) Most magnesium is obtained from seawater,where it is present at a roughly 0.05 M concentration.
E) Calcium is the central element in chlorophyll.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72718
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Q1) Iron,_____,and sulfur form the reactive portion of nitrogenase,a biological catalyst used by nitrogen-fixing organisms.
A) Fe
B) Co
C) Zn
D) Cd
E) Mo
Q2) Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
1)Complex ions with the structure [ML<sub>2</sub>]<sup>n\(\pm\)</sup> are always linear.
2)Complex ions with the structure [ML<sub>6</sub>]<sup>n\(\pm\)</sup> are always octahedral.
3)Complex ions with the structure [ML<sub>4</sub>]<sup>n\(\pm\)</sup> are always square planar.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2
E) 2 and 3
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93 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72719
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Q1) Which of the following types of compounds must have an sp<sup>2</sup>-hybridized carbon center?
A) aldehydes
B) ethers
C) alkynes
D) amines
E) alcohols
Q2) What is the molecular formula for heptane?
A) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
B) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>
C) C<sub>7</sub>H<sub>14</sub>
D) C<sub>7</sub>H<sub>16</sub>
E) C<sub>9</sub>H<sub>20</sub>
Q3) A peptide bond is the amide linkage that is formed in a condensation reaction involving the __________ group of one amino acid with the carboxylic acid group of a second amino acid.
Q4) The process by which long chain hydrocarbons in petroleum are shortened is called
Q5) Cis-1,2-dichloroethylene and trans-1,2-dichloroethylene are examples of ________ isomers.
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54 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72720
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Q1) How many unique tripeptides can be made from two molecules of the amino acid valine (val)and one molecule of the amino acid alanine (ala)?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) > 4
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning enzyme chemistry is/are correct?
1)Enzymes are biological catalysts.
2)A reaction occurs when substrate binds the enzyme active site.
3)Enzymes catalyze multiple types of reactions.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2
E) 1,2,and 3
Q3) The amide linkages in a protein and also called ___ bonds.
Q4) If you start with a single duplex DNA molecule,how many duplex DNA molecules will you have after 10 amplification cycles by the polymerase chain reaction?
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79 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72721
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Q1) The half-life for the spontaneous decay of technetium-99m is 6.0 hours.How much of a 0.20 g sample of this isotope remains after 4.5 hours?
A) 0.05 g
B) 0.08 g
C) 0.12 g
D) 0.15 g
E) 0.20 g
Q2) Neutron ________ analysis is a non-destructive process in which a sample is irradiated with neutrons.The neutrons react with nuclei to form isotopes with masses one unit higher than the original nuclei.The nuclei are formed in excited states and they emit gamma radiation that can be used to both identify the presence of an element and quantify how much is present.
Q3) By what (single step)process does polonium-218 change to lead-214?
A) (\(\alpha\)) particle emission
B) (\(\beta\)) particle emission
C) positron emission
D) electron capture
E) neutron capture
Q4) Explain the difference between 1 rad and 1 rem of radiation.
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