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Introductory Biology is a foundational course that explores the basic principles and concepts of biological science. Students will examine the structure and function of cells, the biochemical processes essential for life, genetics and inheritance, evolution, ecological interactions, and the diversity of living organisms. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and the application of biological knowledge to real-world issues, preparing students for further study in biology and related disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Science for Life with Physiology Edition 5th Edition by Colleen M. Belk
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Q1) A botanist conducted an experiment to test the effect of light on plants. Fifty plants of a flowering species were grown for 60 days under different lengths of artificial daylight. Flowers could be white or pink based on the parent plant genes. The amount of water and fertilizer provided was constant. At the end of the experiment, the size of each leaf for all plants is measured. What is the dependent variable in this experiment?
A) duration of artificial daylight
B) flower's color
C) leaf's size
D) duration of the experiment
Answer: C
Q2) What would result from an ideal experiment?
A) high sampling error
B) small treatment effect
C) low standard error
D) large confidence interval
Answer: C
Q3) What type of reasoning is used to make a hypothesis based on previously established observations?
Answer: Inductive

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Q1) How do the concentrations of H and OH compare to each other in an acidic solution?
A) The concentration of H is higher.
B) The concentration of H is lower.
C) The concentration of H is the same.
D) Acidic solutions do not contain H .
Answer: A
Q2) Which element is the basis for the macromolecules found in living things?
A) carbon
B) hydrogen
C) nitrogen
D) oxygen
Answer: A
Q3) What is the name of a molecule composed of one or more sugars?
A) carbohydrate
B) lipid
C) nucleic acid
D) polypeptide
Answer: A

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Q1) Although viruses are extremely small, they are too large to enter a cell by passive transport. Which process brings viruses into a host cell?
A) diffusion
B) osmosis
C) exocytosis
D) endocytosis
Answer: D
Q2) Which antioxidant is naturally found in cocoa?
A) vitamin A
B) beta-carotene
C) flavonol
D) vitamin C
Answer: C
Q3) What is the liquid interior of the chloroplast called?
A) centriole
B) chromatin
C) Golgi apparatus
D) stroma
Answer: D

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Q1) What process will follow glycolysis, if oxygen is not available?
A) fermentation
B) cellular respiration
C) phosphorylation
D) the conversion of CO into O
Q2) What does recent research suggest about the relationships between weight and health risks?
A) People of normal weights have the lowest health risks.
B) People who are moderately obese have the highest health risks.
C) People who are slightly overweight have the lowest health risks.
D) People who are underweight have the highest health risks.
Q3) Which factor would most affect an individual's basal metabolic rate?
A) caloric intake
B) sleep habits
C) balanced diets
D) exercise levels
Q4) What is the resting energy requirement of a person who is awake but not active? (three words)
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Q5) What weight classification would include a person with a BMI of 23?
Q6) What are the two molecules produced by cellular respiration?
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Q1) During the water cycle, water evaporates from plants through a process called transpiration. Which similar process occurs during the carbon cycle?
A) Carbon dioxide is absorbed by soils.
B) Carbon-based sugars are ingested by animals.
C) Carbon dioxide is respired by animals.
D) Carbon dioxide is absorbed by plants and converted to sugars.
Q2) What human activities release the majority of the carbon dioxide found in the atmosphere?
A) exhaling (cellular respiration waste products)
B) adding decomposing garbage to landfills
C) burning wood for cooking fires
D) burning fossil fuels
Q3) How many membranes surround each chloroplast?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q4) What does the glucose molecule supply to cells?
Q6) Inside which specialized organelle does photosynthesis occur? Page 8
Q5) What cells regulate gas exchange by opening and closing the stomata?
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Q1) What process occurs when cancer cells detach from tumors and spread to other parts of the body?
A) angiogenesis
B) carcinogenesis
C) metastasis
D) mutagenesis
Q2) Which term describes a cancerous tumor?
A) benign
B) carcinogenic
C) malignant
D) oncogenic
Q3) Which phase occurs during mitosis?
A) first gap phase
B) metaphase
C) second gap phase
D) S phase
Q4) What is the process by which cells of a malignant tumor can break away and start new cancers at distant locations?
Q5) What enzyme assists in DNA synthesis? (two words)
Q6) What are the two halves of a duplicated chromosome? (two words)
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Q1) If the DNA contained in the chromosomes of an organism is similar to an instruction manual, then what are the genes "instructing" the cell to do?
A) grow in size until a certain point is reached, then reproduce itself
B) convert carbohydrates into enzymes
C) change shape and structure to meet the demands of the local environment
D) synthesize specific proteins from amino acids
Q2) According to this graph, what can be concluded about immunity in these birds?
A) The heritability value is approximately 0.50.
B) Genes explain all the variation in immunity among birds in this population.
C) Environment still plays a role in these birds' immunity, even though heritability is high.
D) The heritability of immunity follows a bell-shaped curve, indicating a normal distribution.
Q3) What term refers to the physical traits of an organism?
Q4) What is the estimated influence of genes (as opposed to environment) on a trait called?
Q5) What single, circular structure is found in prokaryotes such as bacteria?
Q6) What are the specialized cells used for sexual reproduction (for example, sperm cells)?
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Q1) In addition to autosomes, what is contained in a human sperm cell?
A) an X chromosome always
B) either an X or a Y chromosome
C) a Y chromosome always
D) both an X and a Y chromosome
Q2) On a pedigree chart, what symbol would represent a son who is affected by a genetic disorder?
A) a shaded circle
B) a clear circle
C) a shaded square
D) a clear square
Q3) What does the acronym VNTR mean?
A) variable number tandem repeats
B) varied nucleotides to repeat
C) volumes of nucleotide tandem repeats
D) variation of nucleotide terminal repeats
Q4) What pattern of inheritance occurs in the ABO blood system where there are three distinct alleles in human populations?
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Q1) Which nitrogenous base percentage is complementary to the 22% guanine found in a double-stranded DNA molecule?
A) 22% thymine
B) 22% cytosine
C) 44% adenine
D) 48% thymine
Q2) What structures form the subunits of ribosomes?
A) mRNA and DNA
B) tRNA and mRNA
C) rRNA and proteins
D) DNA and proteins
Q3) In genetics, what are palindromes?
A) the types of DNA sequences that are cut out by restriction enzymes
B) the A-T complementary bases of DNA
C) the C-G complementary bases of DNA
D) the A-U base pairing between DNA and mRNA
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Q1) What makes one louse able to survive treatment with permethrin and another louse unable to survive?
A) A genetic variation in the louse population allows some lice to be resistant to permethrin.
B) A louse exposed to low levels of permethrin will eventually become resistant.
C) The parents of a louse exposed to permethrin will result in offspring becoming resistant.
D) A louse exposed to other anti-lice treatments will become resistant to all anti-lice treatments.
Q2) Darwin observed that tortoises of the nearby islands, although slightly different, belonged to the same species. How might he have known they were the same species?
A) He probably compared DNA sequence data from the different tortoises.
B) He probably compared the metabolism of the different tortoises and observed similar enzymes.
C) He may have heard that tortoises of different islands could mate with each other.
D) He may have moved one group of tortoises to a new island to observe accumulated changes.
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Q1) What is an allele?
A) a gene that has been changed by natural selection
B) a trait that has been influence by artificial selection
C) a gene that hasn't changed over time
D) a particular version of a gene
Q2) True or false: During a time when resources are abundant, one would not expect much evolutionary change.
A)True
B)False
Q3) After four observations, Darwin made the inference that natural selection causes what process?
Q4) True or false: Any trait that is controlled by genes can be acted on by natural selection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How would you describe the gene changes shown in this figure?
A) No genes have changed, since all flies have a gene for alcohol processing.
B) The number of genes in the population has increased.
C) The frequency of the fast enzyme allele has decreased.
D) The frequency of the fast enzyme allele has increased.
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Q1) How does the distribution shown on the map of alleles for the B blood type support the hypothesis that there are no biological races of humans?
A) All human groups show the same frequency of this allele.
B) A distinct frequency pattern of this allele is found in each human group.
C) A gradient of frequency of the allele is found from its origin in Asia outward to Europe.
D) There's no pattern with respect to frequency of this allele throughout Asia and Europe.
Q2) What effect do assortative matings have on populations?
A) They cause one sex to be much different than the other.
B) They cause isolated groups to be more similar to each other.
C) They increase the rate of mutations.
D) They maintain appearance differences between groups.
Q3) Apple maggot flies appear to be two separate races. What makes these races different?
A) They look different.
B) They eat different foods.
C) They have different allele frequencies.
D) They mate at different times.
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Q1) What significant event occurred during the Cambrian explosion in Earth's history?
A) life first appeared
B) eukaryotes first appeared
C) plants first appeared
D) multicellular animals first appeared
Q2) True or false: Organisms on Earth are currently classified first as either plant or animal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What does the main trunk at the far left of the "tree of life" represent?
A) all extinct members of the lineage
B) the earliest common ancestor of all the organisms in the tree
C) the most successful members of the lineage
D) the organisms for which most fossils have been discovered
Q4) True or false: Mitochondria and chloroplasts of eukaryotic cells are very similar to prokaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What process is performed by both algae and plants?
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Q1) What would happen if everyone on the planet used resources and lived the average lifestyle of an American?
A) The Earth would have the carrying capacity to sustain the human population.
B) The population growth rate would immediately decrease.
C) We would need multiple Earths for this to be possible.
D) There would be same number of people in less-developed countries as there are Americans.
Q2) New England salt marshes experience a greater amount of plant growth in a given area in one year than any other temperate ecosystem. What characteristic do these salt marshes have?
A) low net primary productivity (NPP)
B) high biodiversity
C) high NPP
D) an unlimited carrying capacity
Q3) True or false: Scientists agree on the size of the carrying capacity of Earth for the human population.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Ants from the genus Pseudomyrmex live in bull's horn acacia trees, Acacia cornigera. The ants will attack any predators of the tree. In return, the ants live protected in the thorns of the tree and eat the nectar and protein-rich secretions of the tree. What term describes this relationship?
A) parasitism
B) mutualism
C) competition
D) commensalism
Q2) What is the likely cause of "colony collapse disorder" in honeybees?
A) an increase in predators
B) overexploitation
C) an increase in parasites
D) greater genetic variability
Q3) What would all individuals of all species living within an area of interest represent?
A) ecosystem
B) community
C) population
D) trophic level
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Q1) What adaptation is found in the evergreen trees of boreal forests?
A) a thick waxy coat on leaves
B) lower levels of chlorophyll in leaves
C) the ability to shed leaves when water availability is low in winter
D) flower production in early spring
Q2) Which location might exhibit the greatest variation in temperatures throughout the seasons?
A) a small town at sea level in Panama
B) San Diego, California
C) a city in Finland
D) Rome, Italy
Q3) How much rainfall is received in a desert?
A) a negligible amount (essentially 0 inches per year)
B) less than 1 inch per year
C) less than 20 inches per year
D) more than 20 inches per year
Q4) In a general sense, ________ refers to short term environmental conditions, and ________ refers to long term environmental conditions.
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Q1) What does homeostasis allow an organism to do?
A) Organisms can obtain energy from food.
B) Organisms can interact with their specific environment.
C) Organisms can maintain a constant internal environment.
D) Organisms can survive without water for long periods of time.
Q2) How do the protein fibers in the matrix ground substance compare between loose and fibrous connective tissues?
A) In loose connective tissues, the protein fibers are loosely woven, but in fibrous connective tissues, the fibers are densely packed.
B) In fibrous connective tissues, the protein fibers are loosely woven, but in loose connective tissues, the fibers are densely packed.
C) The protein fibers are dark red in fibrous connective tissue but are white in loose connective tissues.
D) The protein fibers are white in fibrous connective tissue but are dark red in loose connective tissues.
Q3) What tissue type protects the body from water loss?
Q4) What example of homeostasis includes the maintenance of constant internal body temperature?
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Q1) Which organ system acts upon substances contained in the alimentary canal?
A) circulatory system
B) digestive system
C) integumentary system
D) excretory system
Q2) How many alcoholic drinks can generally be metabolized in one hour?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Q3) What is the contraction of smooth muscles that moves a bolus of food down the esophagus called?
A) emulsification
B) elimination
C) peristalsis
D) detoxification
Q4) True or False: Drinking any amount of alcohol always has negative effects on the body.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) True or false: Of the 170,000 new cases of lung cancer diagnosed in the United States each year, greater than 90% of these patients are current smokers or former smokers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the chemical in tobacco smoke that's able to activate the brain's reward pathways, thus making smoking a very addictive process?
Q3) About how many years after quitting smoking does it take for the risk of heart disease and death to return to the levels similar to those seen in people who never smoked?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 15
Q4) What is the purpose of the platelets, an important cell type within human blood?
A) They provide glucose to tissues.
B) They carry oxygen to body cells.
C) They help form a clot at the site of a wound.
D) They carry antibodies against infections.
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Q1) By what process do bacteria reproduce?
A) competitive fusion
B) meiosis
C) plasmid replication
D) binary fission
Q2) True or false: The relationship between the protist, Plasmodium, that causes malaria and its host is beneficial to both of them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What does the HPV vaccine provide protection against?
A) cervical cancer
B) hepatitis B
C) pertussis
D) tetanus
Q4) Which cells are important elements that comprise cell-mediated immunity?
A) B cells
B) cytotoxic T cells
C) plasma cells
D) complement proteins

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Q1) Why are women more proficient than men on the balance beam apparatus used in gymnastics?
A) Women have a higher center of gravity because their legs are long relative to their torsos.
B) Women have a lower center of gravity because their arms are long relative to their legs.
C) Women have a higher center of gravity because their arms are long relative to their torsos.
D) Women have a lower center of gravity because their torsos are long relative to leg length.
Q2) Which endocrine glands are involved in calcium homeostasis?
A) thyroid and parathyroid
B) hypothalamus and pituitary
C) thyroid and pancreas
D) hypothalamus and adrenal gland
Q3) True or false: Because women have a broader pelvis, their Q angle is smaller than the Q angle in men.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In the graph depicting the levels of various hormones, what event would prevent the decline in estrogen and progesterone seen toward the end of the 28-day menstrual cycle?
A) a subsequent ovulation event
B) the maturation of another follicle
C) fertilization
D) degeneration of the corpus luteum
Q2) In which structure does fertilization take place?
A) uterus
B) ovary
C) oviduct
D) cervix
Q3) Asexual reproduction
A) requires the genetic contributions of two individuals.
B) requires two types of sex cells.
C) results in offspring that are clones of the parent.
D) results in fertilization.
Q4) What are the primary female reproductive organs that are responsible for producing egg cells?
Q5) What body system allows the survival of different species?
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Q1) What is the network of nerves that radiates out from the brain and the spinal cord part of?
A) the central nervous system
B) interneurons
C) the peripheral nervous system
D) neurotransmitters
Q2) Where are the visual centers located?
A) in the temporal lobes of the cerebral cortex
B) in the occipital lobes of the cerebral cortex
C) in the lobes of the cerebral cortex
D) in the parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex
Q3) What is proprioception?
A) the sense of pressure on the body
B) the sense of the position of the body
C) the sense of smell
D) the sense of the body's temperature
Q4) True or false: Electrical signals travel faster down unmyelinated axons than myelinated axons.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is a leaf blade attached to a stem by a stalk-like structure?
A) internode
B) stoma
C) petiole
D) node
Q2) As the guard cells ________, the stomata become ________.
A) swell; open
B) shrink; open
C) swell; closed
D) shrink; larger
Q3) Modern farmers use irrigation to deliver which growth requirement to their plants?
A) light
B) water
C) nutrients
D) carbon dioxide
Q4) What is the emergence of a plant embryo from a seed?
Q5) What is the concentration of persistent toxic chemicals at higher levels within a food chain or food web?
Q6) Pollination occurs when the pollen of a flower lands on which plant structure?
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Q1) What are the narrow, tapering cells found in the xylem tubes of drought-adapted plant species?
Q2) In plants, what are embolisms?
A) toxic acids produced when stomata are closed and it's sunny
B) formations of ice crystals when a plant is subjected to below-freezing temperatures
C) hormones that result in apical dominance
D) air bubbles that form within xylem
Q3) What effect does pruning flowers have on a plant?
A) The plant will make more flowers than normal.
B) The new flowers that grow will be larger.
C) The plant will produce more leaves.
D) The plant will produce fruits instead of flowers.
Q4) When can ice formation destroy plant cells?
A) as water flows into cells via osmosis as the temperature drops
B) as adhesion increases inside xylem tubes
C) as jagged ice crystals puncture cell membranes
D) as cells are poisoned by dissolved "antifreeze" solutes
Q5) What is the tendency of a plant's uppermost bud to limit the growth of lower buds? (two words)
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