Introductory Biology Practice Questions
Course
Introduction
Introductory Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental concepts of biology, including the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, biodiversity, and basic principles of ecology. The course emphasizes scientific inquiry, experimental methods, and real-world applications of biological knowledge. Students will explore the diversity of life, mechanisms of inheritance, and the interdependence of organisms and their environments, building a foundation for more advanced study in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations10th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What discovery was crucial to the founding of the field of microbiology
A)Isolation of lepers limiting the spread of infectious disease
B)Agglutination of bacteria in immune serum
C)The chemical composition of DNA,the genetic material
D)Microscopes which allowed for the direct observation of microbes
Answer: D
Q2) Viruses were initially identified as small infectious agents that could pass through filters.How was it believed that these agents could survive
A)They had small compact structures that allowed for the production of metabolites and replication.
B)They survived on the metabolites and poisons that pass through the filter.
C)They borrowed the use of existing metabolic and replicative mechanisms of the host cells they infected.
D)They are capable of capturing energy from the sun.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: The Microbiome
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Sample Questions
Q1) The asthma incidence rate in Huttite children is:
A)5%
B)2%
C)10%
D)lower than the national average
E)21.3%
Answer: E
Q2) A C-section affects the milk microbbiome by reducing its diversity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) According to this chapter,consumption of which food reduces anxiety and depression
A)coffee and tea
B)bran
C)lamb
D)yogurt
E)tumeric
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Charged atoms with electrostatic attraction are generally held together by _____.
A)covalent bonds
B)ionic bonds
C)hydrogen bonds
D)municipal bonds
Answer: B
Q2) Which one of the following pairs is matched correctly
A)carbon-organic compounds
B)glucose- hydrogen bonds
C)ions-covalent bonds
D)phosphate-enzyme
Answer: A
Q3) Carbohydrates do not include which of the following
A)Glucose
B)Starch
C)Cellulose
D)Sterols
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is true about the index of refraction
A)If light rays are taken up by the object than it has a high index of refraction.
B)Refraction measures the frequency of the light as it reflects from a material.
C)Oil immersion lenses increase the problem of refraction.
D)Light will bend as it passes through two substances with different indices of refraction.
Q2) A microscope that converts changes in the speed of light as it passes through an object into differences in brightness is a ________ microscope.
A)bright field
B)dark field
C)phase-contrast
D)Nomarski
Q3) What statement about microscopy and staining techniques is false
A)Many species look identical under the microscope.
B)Staining and microscopic examination are usually all that is need to identify a microorganism.
C)Microscopes are of little use unless the specimens are prepared properly.
D)The degree of contrast is equally important as resolution and magnification.
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Chapter 5: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about bacteria
A)All bacteria cells are smaller than 100 micrometers in diameter.
B)The cell wall controls the movement of small molecules into and out of the cell.
C)Gram negative bacteria become protoplasts when their cell wall is digested away.
D)Bacterial endospores are reproductive structures.
Q2) Mitochondria:
A)are responsible for converting sunlight to chemical energy
B)are present only in photosynthetic organisms
C)have a double membrane
D)are responsible for protein synthesis
Q3) The cytoskeleton consists of _____.
A)microfilaments and sterols
B)microtubules and proteins
C)microfilaments and microtubules
D)sterols and proteins
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Chapter 6: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The green sulfur and purple sulfur bacteria are capable of:
A)carrying out photosynthesis
B)only obtaining energy from organic molecules
C)bypassing glycolysis for the Krebs cycle
D)metabolizing without enzymes
Q2) A holoenzyme consists of:
A)an apoenzyme plus a cofactor
B)an apoenzyme plus a coenzyme
C)an protein and non-protein component
D)all of these
Q3) An enzyme-substrate complex forms when substrate binds to an enzyme at the enzyme's ______ site.
A)catalytic
B)allosteric
C)operative
D)active
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Chapter 7: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A growth medium consisting of only known amounts of water,magnesium,calcium chloride,potassium and glucose would be considered:
A)a defined synthetic medium
B)a complex medium
C)a chemically nondefined medium
D)two of these
Q2) Within a bacterial endospore,the spore is most closely surrounded by the _____.
A)spore membrane
B)cortex
C)cell membrane
D)spore coat
Q3) The pour plate method of isolating pure cultures _____.
A)relies on the fact that liquid agar will solidify as it cools
B)is useful for growing microaerophiles
C)results in some organisms growing embedded in the agar
D)all of these
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The information carried by DNA is used to create a ________ which then moves to the ribosome for protein synthesis.
A)tRNA
B)rRNA
C)siRNA
D)mRNA
Q2) After DNA replication of a bacterial chromosome,the new DNA contains:
A)2 newly synthesized strands of DNA copied from the original parent strands B)one strand of parent DNA along with one newly synthesized strand
C)small segments of parent DNA interspersed with newly synthesized segments of DNA D)two of these choices are true
Q3) Which statement is true
A)Proofreading that occurs during transcription changes the RNA into DNA.
B)Translation is a less accurate process than transcription.
C)Reverse transcription is a less accurate process than regular transcription.
D)Errors in replication can be proofread during transcription.
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Specialized" transduction refers to the fact that:
A)it only happens at specific times in the cell cycle
B)only specific bacteria take part as hosts
C)only a few specific genes are transferred
D)only specific viruses take part in the process
Q2) Hybridomas:
A)are responsible for tumor formation in plants
B)are resistant to monoclonal antibodies
C)divide and grow for only a short period of time
D)are the fusion of antibody producing plasma cell and a cancer cell
Q3) Gene therapy would describe which of the following scenarios
A)Bacteria which produce human growth hormone
B)A DNA comparison in a paternity case
C)Yeast which has been genetically engineered to produce yeast from starch
D)Replacing a defective gene in human cells
Q4) The transfer of DNA between bacterial cells by a virus is:
A)transformation
B)transduction
C)transferration
D)conjugation
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Chapter 10: An Introduction to Taxonomy: The Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A useful technique for comparing different bacterial species based on if they are susceptible to infection by the same virus is called _____.
A)protein profile
B)virus profile
C)phage typing
D)serology
Q2) Which of the following is a reason that bacteria cannot be classified in the same way as animals
A)Some bacteria are not motile.
B)Bacteria do not reproduce sexually.
C)Bacteria are single celled organisms.
D)Bacteria are prokaryotic organisms.
Q3) Which of the following questions would not be a good choice for a dichotomous key
A)Are the cells rod shaped
B)Are the cells Gram negative
C)Do the cells ferment glucose
D)Where is the cell usually found
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Chapter 11: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers is provided by:
A)the presence of oncogenes in humans
B)the presence of antibodies against viruses in cancer patients
C)treating cancer patients with antibiotics
D)development of a cancer following an injection of viruses
Q2) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)is caused by a retrovirus.Which of the following best represents the genetic information flow used by retroviruses
A)DNA --> mRNA --> protein
B)DNA --> protein
C)RNA --> DNA --> mRNA --> protein
D)RNA --> protein
Q3) In the early 1990s,this emerging virus was of concern to the United States.It is transmitted from rodent feces and urine to human beings.This emerging virus is the:
A)influenza virus
B)rhinovirus
C)hantavirus
D)poliovirus
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13
Chapter 12: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protozoans found in the human intestinal tract would most likely be _____.
A)mastigophorans
B)amebozoans
C)apicomplexans
D)ciliophorans
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of a plantlike protist
A)Euglenoids
B)Diatoms
C)Amebozoans
D)Dinoflagellates
Q3) Protozoa that move using flagella are members of the _____.
A)mastigophorans
B)amebozoans
C)apicomplexans
D)ciliates
E)ciliophorans
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Chapter 13: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) When food is salted,water diffuses ________microorganisms,causing them to ____ and die.
A)into; shrink
B)into; explode
C)out of; shrink
D)out of; explode
Q2) What sterilization technique should be used for sterilizing instruments
A)Filtration
B)Disinfection
C)Pasteurization
D)Autoclaving
Q3) A viricide is an agent that _____.
A)inactivates viruses.
B)propagates viruses.
C)inhibits viruses and bacterial endospores.
D)allows viral multiplication.
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Chapter 14: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of an ideal antimicrobial agent include all of the following except:
A)resistance by microorganisms
B)reasonable cost
C)long shelf life
D)toxicity not easily altered
Q2) Antibiotics that bind to RNA polymerase_____.
A)act as base analogs
B)inhibit of cell wall synthesis
C)disrupt of cell membrane function
D)inhibit transcription
Q3) A test to determine the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent that uses growth of a test microorganism in patients' blood serum is the:
A)disk dilution method
B)dilution method
C)disk diffusion method
D)serum killing power method
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16
Chapter 15: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spreading of exotoxins from the site of infection via the blood is called:
A)septicemia
B)toxemia
C)colonization
D)adherence
Q2) Which of the factors below is NOT considered to be an example of a virulence factor
A)Prodrome
B)Leukostatin
C)Streptokinase
D)Adhesions
Q3) All of the following refer to the normal microflora except _____.
A)no microflora is found in the fetus
B)resident microorganisms normally do not cause disease
C)some microorganisms are resident while others are transient
D)resident microorganisms are found in nervous system and blood
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Chapter 16: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bioterrorism:
A)is a new phenomenon
B)agents all transmit from one human to other humans
C)agents are all transmitted through mechanical vectors
D)might employ pathogens such as Bacillus anthracis
Q2) A site where microorganisms can persist and thus maintain the ability to cause infection:
A)Control group
B)Portal of exit
C)Reservoir
D)Portal of entry
Q3) The incidence rate of chicken pox in the United States:
A)includes both old and newly diagnosed cases of disease
B)shows a pattern of pandemics
C)has been increasing for the last ten years
D)is difficult to assess since the disease is no longer "notifiable"
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18
Chapter 17: Innate Host Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interferons are stimulated by viruses and _____.
A)are produced only by macrophages
B)stimulate the production of antiviral proteins in neighboring cells
C)form membrane attack complexes
D)none of these choices
Q2) Antiviral proteins (AVPs)interfere with the replication of which of the following molecules
A)DNA
B)protein
C)mRNA
D)all of these
Q3) What is the fragile,reddish,grainy tissue that is typically observed in cut tissue and consists of capillaries and fibroblasts
A)Gut-associated lymphoid tissue
B)Granulation tissue
C)Granuloma
D)Granulocytes
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Chapter 18: Basic Principles of Adaptive Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both humoral and cellular immunity share the following attributes except:
A)distinguishes self from non-self
B)specificity
C)memory
D)first-line of defense
Q2) All of the following are environmental factors that modify the immune response in a host except:
A)genetics and age
B)pollution and radiation
C)tobacco smoke
D)excessive exposure to radiation
Q3) Adaptive immunity is _____.
A)the ability of a host to mount a defense against a specific inherited agent
B)only acquired artificially
C)only acquired naturally
D)immunity obtained in some manner other than by heredity
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Chapter 19: Immune Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Local wheal and flare,airway restriction,and anaphylactic shock are all associated with _____.
A)Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B)Immune complex hypersensitivity
C)Immediate hypersensitivity
D)Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
Q2) Antigenic or molecular mimicry _____.
A)occurs when T cells attack tissue antigens similar to bacterial antigens
B)involves self reactive T cells hiding in the thymus
C)leads to an increase in the number of regulatory T cells
D)none of these
Q3) The immunologically privileged site that protects the fetus from mother's immune system is most likely due to the fact that _____.
A)mother's IgG do not cross the placenta
B)fetal portion of placenta does not exhibit MHC molecules
C)alpha-fetoprotein inhibits immune responses
D)two of these
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Which of the following does not refer to gas gangrene
A)caused by Clostridium species
B)contains crepitant tissue
C)necrosis appears
D)vaccine is available,but not widely used
Q2) Which of the following statements about pox diseases is incorrect
A)molluscum contagiosum only elicits a slight immune response
B)monkey pox outbreaks have increased with the discontinuation of smallpox vaccination
C)vaccinia virus can be used as a smallpox vaccine
D)cowpox only causes disease in cows,humans cannot be infected
Q3) Which of the following conditions is associated with the erythrogenic toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes
A)rheumatic fever
B)toxic shock syndrome
C)scarlet fever
D)roseola
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched
A)Herpes Whitlow - fingers
B)HSV 2 - genital herpes
C)HSV 1 - labial fever blisters
D)Herpes gladiatorium - pneumonia
Q2) Toxic shock syndrome is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)super-absorbent tampons
C)exotoxin C
D)elderly men
Q3) The etiology of pyelonephritis is most often bacterial,________ ,and less commonly the yeast,______.
A)Escherichia coli,Candida albicans
B)Streptococcus mutans,Pityrosporum ovale
C)Escherichia coli,Saccharomyces cerevisiae
D)Streptococcus mutans,Saccharomyces cerevisiae
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Chapter 22: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are used in the treatment or prevention of diphtheria
A)Antibiotics
B)Vaccination
C)Antitoxin
D)All of these choices
Q2) Legionellosis is controlled by:
A)vaccine administration
B)limited exposure to infected patients
C)regular disinfection of aerosolized water sources
D)prophylactic antibiotic treatment
Q3) Whooping cough treatment includes:
A)administration of antitoxin
B)erythromycin
C)supportive treatment for symptoms
D)all of these choices
Q4) Which fungal infection leads to an allergic asthmatic response
A)Aspergillosis
B)Blastomycosis
C)Cryptococcosis
D)Histoplasmosis
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Chapter 23: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Escherichia coli O157:H7 is characterized by all of the following except:
A)causes outbreaks of bloody diarrhea
B)produces Shiga toxins 1 and 2
C)leads to kidney failure called hemorrhagic uremic syndrome (HUS)
D)produces aflatoxin
Q2) All of the following refers to typhoid fever EXCEPT:
A)the Widal test is used to confirm the diagnosis
B)chloroamphenicol,cephalosporine and fluoroquinolones are used in the treatment
C)it requires a surrogate virus infection in order to cause disease
D)internal hemorrhage and perforation of the bowel are serious complications
Q3) Which microbe is responsible for a self-limiting disease whose symptoms include abdominal pain,fever (probably due to endotoxins),diarrhea with blood and mucus,within 8-48 hours of ingestion
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Clostridium botulinum
C)Salmonella enteritidis
D)Pseudomonas cocovenenans
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Cardiovascular, Lymphatic, and Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plague is characterized by all of the following except:
A)sylvanic plague infects city rats
B)etiology is Yersinia pestis
C)antibiotic treatment is effective
D)immense lymph node enlargements called buboes
Q2) In which disease(s)does the merozoite infect red blood cells
A)Malaria
B)Blackwater fever
C)Ehrlichiosis
D)Two of these choices
Q3) The flea is the arthropod vector for:
A)Epidemic typhus
B)Endemic typhus
C)Trench fever
D)Scrub typhus
Q4) Spirochetes are responsible for:
A)Lyme disease
B)Syphilis
C)Relapsing fever
D)All of these choices
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Chapter 25: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Humans are naturally protected against nagana,a tsetse-fly-bourne cattle disease.What has been found to serve the protective role
A)Serum
B)High-density lipoprotein (HDL)
C)Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
D)Iron
Q2) Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is a complication of _____.
A)fungal meningitis
B)streptococcal meningitis
C)viral meningitis
D)meningococcal meningitis
Q3) Tetanus neonatum is:
A)due to tetanus acquired through the birth canal
B)an infection of the umbilical cord
C)a muscle spasm that has nothing to do with Clostridium
D)an infection from Clostridium in contaminated breast milk
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The primary producers in the ocean are:
A)bacteria
B)viruses
C)phytoplankton
D)two of these choices
Q2) The mechanism whereby Rhizobium and the legume associate is characterized by all of the following except:
A)multiplies in the vicinity of legume roots
B)bacteria release proteases to digest cell wall
C)change from free-living to swarmer cells
D)swarmers invade root hairs to become bacteroids
Q3) The trickling filtration system employs a bed of rocks that have been coated with:
A)Sphaerotilus
B)Pseudomonas
C)Beggiatoa
D)two of these choices
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28
Chapter 27: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Which statement about contamination of eggs is incorrect
A)Cracked eggs cannot be sold.
B)Lysozymes in the whites protect the yolk.
C)Trace metals in the whites are tightly bonded with proteins.
D)Eggs should be stored small side up.
Q2) Which cut of meat would you expect to have the largest of contaminating microbes per gram
A)a beef streak wrapped at the grocery
B)a side of beef aging in the slaughter house
C)a package of ground beef
D)a pork chop wrapped at the grocery
Q3) The yeast responsible for wine and beer is generally:
A)Candida
B)Aspergillus
C)Saccharomyces
D)Mucor
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