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Introductory Biochemistry is designed to provide a foundational understanding of the chemical processes essential to life. This course covers the structure and function of biomolecules such as proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids, as well as the principles of enzymology and metabolism. Students will explore how these molecules interact within complex pathways to maintain cellular function and energy production. The course also emphasizes the experimental methods used in biochemistry and their applications in medicine, biotechnology, and research, preparing students for advanced study in biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of General Organic and Biological Chemistry 8th Edition by John E. McMurry
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Q1) The SI unit for volume is ________ and the metric unit for volume is ________.
A)cc;L
B)L;m<sup>3</sup>
C)m<sup>3</sup>;L
D)mL;cc
E)m<sup>3</sup>;cm<sup>3</sup>
Answer: C
Q2) Which value is closest to the mass of a 2-pound box of laundry detergent?
A)200 g
B)2.0 × 10<sup>-4</sup> cg
C)9 × 10<sup>9</sup> mg
D)1 kg
E)4.5 × 10<sup>3</sup> ng
Answer: D
Q3) List and describe two differences between pure substances and mixtures.
Answer: 1.The composition of a pure substance is always the same,regardless of the source,but the composition of a mixture can vary.
2.Mixtures can be separated into their components by physical changes;some pure substances can be separated into components by chemical change.
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Q1) The number of valence electrons in an element with electron configuration 1s<sup>2 </sup>2s<sup>2 </sup>2p<sup>6 </sup>3s<sup>2 </sup>3p<sup>4</sup> is
A)2.
B)4.
C)6.
D)8.
E)16.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following subshells consists of five orbitals?
A)4s
B)4p
C)4d
D)4f
E)none of the above
Answer: C
Q3) Give the electron dot structure for an element in Group 7A.
Answer: Any of the following could be a correct structure: 11ea7e31_c15c_997c_9bba_eda4fc36eec1_TB4943_00
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Q1) What is the formula for the ionic compound formed between calcium and sulfur?
A)CaS
B)CaSi
C)Ca<sub>2</sub>S
D)CaS<sub>2</sub>
E)CaSi<sub>2</sub>
Answer: A
Q2) The formula for ammonium hydroxide is
A)OHNH<sub>4.</sub>
B)NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>3.</sub>
C)NH<sub>4</sub>O.
D)NH<sub>4</sub>OH.
E)Al(OH)<sub>3.</sub>
Answer: D
Q3) How are noble gases related to the octet rule?
Answer: Noble gases,except helium,illustrate the stability of elements with a full outer shell (an octet).These elements are unreactive because their valence shell is filled.Helium is also grouped with these elements because it is unreactive due to its filled 1s shell.
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Q1) What is the molecular geometry of PH<sub>3</sub>?
A)linear
B)trigonal planar
C)tetrahedral
D)bent
E)trigonal pyramidal
Q2) The covalent bonding model is most useful in describing which of the following compounds?
A)CoCl<sub>2</sub>
B)MgCl<sub>2</sub>
C)NiCl<sub>2</sub>
D)SCl<sub>2</sub>
E)none of the above
Q3) A triple bond involves the sharing of ________ pairs of electrons between the atoms

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Q1) What is the typical net ionic equation for an acid-base neutralization of KOH and HCl?
A)HCl(aq)+ KOH(aq) H<sub>2</sub>O(l)+ KCl(aq)
B)KOH(aq) K<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ OH<sup>-</sup>(aq)
C)H<sub>2</sub>O(l) H<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ OH<sup>-</sup>(aq)
D)K<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ OH<sup>-</sup>(aq) KOH(aq)
E)H<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ OH<sup>-</sup>(aq) H<sub>2</sub>O(l)
Q2) 2 AgNO<sub>3</sub>(aq)+ K<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(aq) 2 KNO<sub>3</sub>(aq)+ Ag<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(s)
The spectator ions in the reaction shown are
A)silver ion and nitrate ion.
B)potassium ion and sulfate ion.
C)potassium ion and nitrate ion.
D)silver ion and sulfate ion.
E)hydrogen ion and hydroxide ion.
Q3) Write and balance the following acid-base neutralization reaction: KOH(aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> aq)
Q4) Write and balance the following acid-base neutralization reaction: HBr(aq)+ Li<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>(aq)
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Q1) Ammonium sulfate is a common component of fertilizer.Calculate it's formula weight.
A)63.07 amu
B)118.13 amu
C)132.13 amu
D)128.11 amu
E)114.10 amu
Q2) The number of grams in 2.65 mol of SO<sub>2</sub> is
A)2.65.
B)64.1.
C)24.2.
D)170.
E)1.60 × 10<sup>24</sup>.
Q3) The molar mass of Fe(OH)<sub>3</sub> is ________ g.
A)72.86
B)74.88
C)89.87
D)104.86
E)106.87

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Q1) Activation energy can best be described as the A)energy level of the products.
B)maximum energy level of the reaction.
C)energy level of the reactants.
D)difference in energy between reactants and products.
E)difference in energy between reactants and the maximum energy.
Q2) Calculate the enthalpy for the following reaction: N<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> 2
NO given the following bond dissociation energies:
N<sub>2</sub> = 226 kcal/mol O<sub>2</sub> = 119 kcal/mol NO = 145 kcal/mol.
A)55 kcal/mol
B)-55 kcal/mol
C)235 kcal/mol
D)-235 kcal/mol
Q3) Based on the reaction shown,which statement is true?
4 PCl<sub>3</sub>(l) P<sub>4</sub>(s)+ 6 Cl<sub>2</sub>(g) H = 304.0 kcal
A)When 1 mol PCl<sub>3</sub>(l)reacts,304.0 kcal are released.
B)When 1 mol P<sub>4</sub>(s)is produced,304.0 kcal are consumed.
C)When 548.56 g PCl<sub>3</sub>(l)react,304.0 kcal are released.
D)When 137.14 g PCl<sub>3</sub>(l)react,304.0 kcal are consumed.
E)When 123.88 g P<sub>4</sub>(s)are produced,304.0 kcal are released.
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Q1) How many moles of gas are present in a 10.0 liter sample at STP?
A)224 moles
B)22.4 moles
C)10.0 moles
D)2.24 moles
E)0.446 moles
Q2) In comparing liquids and gases,liquids have ________ compressibility and ________ density.
A)smaller;smaller
B)smaller;greater
C)greater;smaller
D)greater;greater
E)none of the above
Q3) What will be the new volume when 128 mL of gas at 20.0°C is heated to 40.0°C while pressure remains unchanged?
A)64.0 mL
B)120.mL
C)128 mL
D)137 mL
E)256 mL
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Q1) Water can be used to dissolve which type of compounds?
A)nonpolar compounds
B)polar compounds
C)ionic compounds
D)both A and B
E)both B and C
Q2) Which has the lowest boiling point?
A)0.1 M Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
B)0.1 M glucose,C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
C)0.1 M MgCl<sub>2</sub>
D)0.1 M Al(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>
E)pure water
Q3) The exothermic step in the dissolution of NaCl in water is
A)the separation of the ions in the salt.
B)the separation of the water molecules.
C)solvation (hydration)of the ions from the salt.
D)separation of the ions in the salt and the separation of the water molecules.
Q4) Explain the difference between osmosis and dialysis.
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Q1) A Brønsted-Lowry base is a substance which
A)produces hydrogen ions in aqueous solution.
B)produces hydroxide ions in aqueous solution.
C)donates protons to other substances.
D)accepts protons from other substances.
E)accepts hydronium ions from other substances.
Q2) What is the value of [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>] in a solution with pH = 10.82?
A)6.6 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M
B)1.5 × 10<sup>-11</sup> M
C)1.03 M
D)10.82 M
E)3.18 M
Q3) conjugate base
A)the species that results when a base accepts a proton
B)an acid-base theory that bases reactions on hydrogen and hydroxide ions
C)a theory that treats acid-base reactions as proton-transfer reactions
D)a substance which can behave as either an acid or a base
E)the species that results when an acid donates a proton
Q4) Write the balanced chemical reaction between methyl amine (CH<sub>3</sub>NH<sub>2</sub>)and hydrobromic acid (HBr).
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Q1) Ionizing radiation is A)radiation that only interacts with ions.
B)the same as a proton.
C)a neutron that has acquired a charge,thus forming an ion.
D)high-energy radiation that removes electrons from atoms or molecules.
E)given off by ions and reacts with nuclei.
Q2) Which type of radiation is attracted toward a negative plate?
A)
B) C) D) and E)none of these
Q3) The unit of radiation exposure which allows for the energy and penetrating power of different types of radiation is the A)curie.
B)roentgen.
C)rem.
D)rad.
E)sievert.
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Q1) Which functional group does not contain oxygen?
A)alcohol
B)amine
C)carboxylic acid
D)ester
E)ketone
Q2) How many structural isomers are possible for the molecular formula,C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>?
A)3
B)2
C)1
D)4
E)5
Q3) All of the following statements are general properties of organic compounds except A)the bonds are covalent.
B)they have relatively low boiling points.
C)they have limited or no water solubility.
D)they usually behave as electrolytes in solution.
E)they have relatively low melting points.
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Q1) In the addition of HX to a double bond,the hydrogen goes to the carbon that already has more hydrogens.This is a statement of
A)the double bond rule.
B)LeChatelier's principle.
C)Markovnikov's rule.
D)the rule of "less is better."
E)Zatseff's rule.
Q2) Which phrase most accurately describes the structure common to all aromatic compounds?
A)a six-membered ring with 3 double and 3 single bonds
B)a ring described as 1,3,5-hexatriene
C)identical bonds between all 6 carbon atoms,with 6 electrons moving freely
D)a six-membered ring with easily broken carbon-carbon bonds
E)none of the above
Q3) The monomer used to make the polymer polyvinyl chloride is
A)CH<sub>2</sub>=CF<sub>2.</sub>
B)CF<sub>2</sub>=CF<sub>2.</sub>
C)CH<sub>2</sub>=CHCl.
D)CH<sub>2</sub>=CHCN.
E)CH<sub>2</sub>=CH-C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>5.</sub>
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Q1) Compounds with the -OH group attached to a saturated alkane-like carbon are known as
A)alcohols.
B)alkyl halides.
C)ethers.
D)hydroxyls.
E)phenols.
Q2) Which of the following molecules is chiral?
A)3-pentanol
B)2-pentanol
C)3-bromopentane
D)2,2-dichlorobutane
E)cyclopentanol
Q3) Oxidation reactions are defined differently in organic chemistry than they are in inorganic chemistry.Give the definition of both and explain their similarities.
Q4) List three properties of enantiomers that are the same and three properties that are different.
Q5) Describe and explain the change in water solubility of straight-chain primary alcohols as molar mass increases.
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Q1) Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?
A)3-methyl-1-pentanone
B)2-methyl-3-pentanone
C)2-butanone
D)3-octanone
E)All are correct.
Q2) Which of the following compounds would be the least soluble in water?
A)2-propanone
B)2-butanone
C)2-hexanone
D)2-pentanone
E)3-pentanone
Q3) The IUPAC name for acetone is
A)2-propanal.
B)3-propanal.
C)2-propanone.
D)1-propanone.
E)dimethyl ketone.
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Q1) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling point.List and describe the criteria that must be considered in answering this question. Compounds
1.CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH 2.CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>NHCH<sub>3</sub> 3.CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3 </sub>4.CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>N(CH<sub>3</sub>)CH<sub>3</sub> 5.CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH(OH)CH<sub>3</sub>
Q2) Which type of amine will react with mineral acids to form soluble ammonium salts?
A)1°
B)2°
C)3°
D)A and B
E)A,B,and C
Q3) Write the complete reaction for the following:
A)aniline + HBr(aq)
B)propyl amine + water
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Q1) When an alcohol reacts with phosphoric acid,the product is referred to as a A)phosphate salt.
B)phosphate ester.
C)phosphate anion.
D)pyrophosphate.
E)none of the above
Q2) All of the statements about carboxylic acids are true except
A)they undergo substitution reactions involving the -OH group.
B)at low molecular weights they are liquids with sharp stinging odors.
C)they form hydrogen bonds,causing their boiling points to be higher than expected on the basis of molecular weight.
D)they react with bases to form salts which are often more soluble than the original acid.
E)when they behave as acids,the -OH group is lost leaving the CO<sup>-</sup> ion.
Q3) Predict the products and write the complete reaction between propanoic acid and potassium hydroxide.
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Q1) Which amino acid is classified as neutral and non-polar?
A)aspartic acid
B)histidine
C)phenylalanine
D)lysine
E)tyrosine
Q2) When a glycoprotein is hydrolyzed,the products would include
A)amino acids only.
B)amino acids plus metal ions.
C)amino acids plus carbohydrates.
D)amino acids plus lipids.
E)amino acids plus RNA.
Q3) Draw the tripeptide as it would be found at pH = 7: ala-gly-phe
Q4) Which pair of amino acids can have hydrophobic interactions?
A)arginine and glutamic acid
B)aspartic acid and lysine
C)leucine and alanine
D)glutamic acid and serine
E)glycine and asparagine
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Q1) Which of the following combinations is required to create a holoenzyme?
A)effector + coenzyme
B)apoenzyme + activator
C)apoenzyme + coenzyme
D)None of the above are correct combinations.
Q2) An enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of a cis double bond to a trans double bond is classified as a(an)
A)ligase.
B)isomerase.
C)oxidoreductase.
D)transferase.
E)hydrolase.
Q3) Enzymes work as catalyst because
A)of a proximity effect between substrate and catalytic site.
B)of an orientation effect in which the substrates are in the correct arrangement to facilitate catalysis.
C)of an energy effect in which the activation energy barrier is lowered.
D)All of these are correct.
E)None of these are correct.
Q4) Explain the term specificity as it applies to enzyme activity.
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Q1) How many stereoisomers of an aldotetrose can exist?
A)2
B)4
C)8
D)16
E)32
Q2) Which molecule is a reducing sugar?
A)sucrose
B)maltose
C)starch
D)glycogen
E)amylopectin
Q3) The bond connecting the two monosaccharides in sucrose is a(an)________ linkage.
A) -1,4 glycosidic
B) -1,4 glycosidic
C)1,2 anomeric
D) -1,6 glycosidic
E) -1,6 glycosidic
Q4) Illustrate the conversion between the and forms of d-fructose.Make sure to include the open chain form.
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Q1) Exergonic reactions are those that have a ________ value of G and ________ spontaneous.
A)positive;are B)positive;are not C)negative;are D)negative;are not E)none of the above
Q2) The reaction in which ATP is converted to ADP with release of 7.3 kcal is a(an)________ reaction.
A)hydrolysis
B)reduction
C)combustion
D)oxidation
E)polymerization
Q3) Which of the following is not true of NAD<sup>+</sup> and FAD?
A)These molecules when present in the reduced state are used to produce ATP.
B)They both contain two nucleosides.
C)They donate electrons to the electron transport system.
D)The reduced form of FAD has more energy than the reduced form of NAD<sup>+</sup>.
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Q1) Pyruvate is converted to lactate under anaerobic conditions because
A)reduction of pyruvate provides NAD<sup>+</sup> which is needed for glycolysis.
B)lactate releases oxygen upon conversion to acetyl-CoA.
C)reduction of pyruvate provides NADH which is needed for gluconeogenesis.
D)lactate is the storage form of pyruvate for use later when more ATP is needed.
E)none of the above
Q2) The process of making glucose from noncarbohydrates is known as
A)glycolysis.
B)glycogenolysis.
C)gluconeogenesis.
D)glycogenesis.
E)lipogenesis.
Q3) gluconeogenesis
A)the conversion of glucose into carbohydrate molecules containing phosphate groups and five carbon atoms
B)the conversion of glucose into glycogen
C)the conversion of glycogen into glucose
D)the production of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources
E)the conversion of glucose into pyruvate
Q4) What are the three possible fates of pyruvate?
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Q1) Lecithin is commonly used as a(an)
A)emulsifying agent.
B)lubricant.
C)drying agent.
D)precipitating agent.
E)dispersant.
Q2) The chemical makeup of a wax is a(n)
A)simple ester of a long chain alcohol and a fatty acid.
B)ester of glycerol with three identical saturated fatty acids.
C)ester of glycerol with three identical unsaturated fatty acids.
D)ester of glycerol with three predominantly saturated fatty acids.
E)ester of glycerol with three predominantly unsaturated fatty acids.
Q3) Which statement about cholesterol is not correct?
A)It is an essential component of cell membranes.
B)It is the precursor for steroid hormones.
C)It is the precursor for bile acids and salts.
D)It cannot be synthesized by the body.
E)It is soluble in non-polar solvents.
Q4) Sketch a lipid bilayer and identify its hydrophobic and hydrophilic portions.
Q5) Describe the similarities and differences between soaps and emulsifying agents.
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Q1) How many molecules of acetyl-CoA are needed to synthesize a 16-carbon fatty acid if the process is started with acetyl-S-enzyme-1 and malonyl-CoA?
A)5
B)6
C)7
D)8
E)9
Q2) The complete metabolism of one molecule of stearic acid,a fatty acid with 18 atoms of carbon,would produce ________ molecules of acetyl-CoA.
A)8
B)9
C)10
D)16
E)18
Q3) Which has greater "energy density," carbohydrates or fats.Explain your answer in terms of molecular structure and net energy production.
Q4) Compare the processes of -oxidation of fatty acids and lipogenesis of fatty acids.
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Q1) Ketogenic amino acids cannot be converted into which of the following?
A)fatty acids
B)glucose
C)ketone bodies
D)acetyl CoA
E)They can be converted into all of the above.
Q2) The conversion of nitrogen derivatives to urea takes place in the A)blood.
B)kidneys.
C)liver.
D)brain.
E)intestines.
Q3) An essential amino acid is one that
A)is required for the synthesis of all proteins.
B)must be obtained in the diet because the human body cannot synthesize it.
C)can safely be omitted from the diet because the human body can produce it in unlimited amounts.
D)must be provided in the diet for individuals with specific hereditary enzyme deficiencies.
E)has a relatively simple carbon skeleton.
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Q1) Transcription is
A)copying of DNA molecules to make an exact duplicate.
B)production of a single strand of RNA identical to the information strand of DNA.
C)production of a single strand of RNA from the template strand of DNA.
D)making a protein molecule based on information contained in RNA.
E)breakdown of damaged nucleic acids to prevent mutations.
Q2) Replication of DNA produces two daughter DNA molecules in which
A)one daughter molecule contains both parent strands and one daughter molecule contains both newly synthesized strands.
B)each daughter molecule contains one parent strand and one newly synthesized strand.
C)each daughter molecule contains two newly synthesized strands.
D)each daughter molecule contains both parent strand.
E)None of the above happens during replication.
Q3) Draw the structure illustrating the hydrogen bonding that occurs between the base pairs cytosine and guanine.
Q4) Draw the full structure of the dinucleotide C-G.Identify the 5' and 3' ends of this dinucleotide.
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Q1) Telomerase is a(an)
A)constriction that determine the shape of chromosomes during cell division.
B)sequence of nucleotides that code for proteins which function as enzymes.
C)sequence of nucleotides that code for proteins which function as chemical messengers,usually hormones or neurotransmitters.
D)enzyme which adds specific groups of nucleic acids to the ends of the DNA molecule.
E)sequence of non-coding nucleotides at the ends of chromosomes.
Q2) All of the following terms are associated with recombinant DNA except A)plasmids.
B)bacterial cells.
C)endonuclease.
D)hydrogen bonding.
E)restriction enzymes.
Q3) Which of the following is not a non-coding portion of a DNA molecule?
A)telomere
B)centromere
C)exon
D)intron
E)promoter sequence
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Q1) The molecule or molecules that interacts with a hormone or other biologically active molecule to initiate a cellular response is called a(n)
A)receptor.
B)transmitter.
C)active site.
D)target cell.
Q2) The second messenger for the hormones epinephrine is A)cyclic AMP.
B)AMP.
C)ADP.
D)ATP.
E)none of the above
Q3) Describe in detail the two ways in which a hormone can deliver its message to a target cell.What characteristics of the hormone determine which mechanism is used?
Q4) Which of the following is an example of an amino acid derivative hormone?
A)thyroxine
B)insulin
C)theobromine
D)antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which part of the kidney does the blood enter it?
A)glomerulus
B)Henle's loop
C)kidney tubule
D)Bowman's capsule
E)nephrons
Q2) All of the chemicals listed are associated with blood clotting except A)vitamin K.
B)calcium ion.
C)collagen.
D)fibrinogen.
E)hemoglobin.
Q3) The protein in red blood cells that is most important to their major function is A)fibrin.
B)fibrinogen.
C)hemoglobin.
D)heme.
E)immunoglobulin.
Q4) Distinguish between inflammatory and immune responses to antigens.
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